wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Units 1-5 AP Biology Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amino acid

b)

Monosaccharide

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Steroid

2.

Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?

a)

The hydrogen end

b)

The oxygen end

c)

Both ends are slightly positive

d)

Neither end is positive

3.

Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?

a)

Both sides are negative

b)

One side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge

c)

One side has a negative charge and the other side has a neutral charge

d)

Both sides are positive

4.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

5.

How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?

a)

new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate

b)

new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate

c)

new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl

d)

new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl

6.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

7.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
8.
Which biomolecule is found in fats, oils, and waxes and is a source of long-term energy
a)
Proteins
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipids
d)
Carbohydrate
9.

monosaccharides, fatty acid and glycerol, amino acids, and nucleotides are examples of _____________.

a)

Elements

b)

Compounds

c)

Macromolecules

d)

Monomers

10.
What elements are common to all 4 biomolecules?
a)
Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
b)
Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus
c)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
d)
Carbon, Hydrogen, Phosphorus
11.

Which of the following examples explains how biological activity relies on water's adhesive properties?

a)

Water travels through vascular tissue (xylem) from the roots to the leaves of a plant.

b)

Stomata (openings) in leaves control transpiration of water out of the leaf as water vapor.

c)

Vacuoles in plant cells swell as water dilutes the contents of the vacuole.

d)

Feathers retain an oily coating that repels water droplets.

12.

Given the structure of water (H2O), which of the following must be true?

a)

Each water molecule can form four hydrogen bonds.

b)

Each water molecule will form covalent bonds with its neighbors.

c)

Water has an overall negative charge.

d)

Water is able to easily dissolve nonpolar substances.

13.

Which of the following describes a covalent bond?

a)

It involves an atom that gains an electron.

b)

Two or more atoms share electron pairs.

c)

Molecules linked by covalent bonds are less dense when in solid form than when in liquid form.

d)

A hydrogen atom with a partial positive charge is attracted to another atom with a partial negative charge.

14.

Which of the following statements regarding carbon is FALSE?

a)

Carbon has the capacity to form single and double bonds.

b)

Carbon has the ability to bond together to form extensive branched or unbranched "carbon skeletons."

c)

Carbon has the ability to bond with up to six other atoms.

d)

Carbon has a tendency to form covalent bonds.

15.

A researcher wants to identify a newly isolated DNA strand. The first step in identifying the DNA strand is to measure its length. To do this, the researcher wants to develop a fluorescent tag that emits light once it binds to both ends of the strand.

Which of the following best describes how the researcher should develop a fluorescent tag with an ability to bind to both ends of the strand?

a)

The tag should have an affinity to bind only guanine (G) and cytosine (C) nitrogenous bases.

b)

The tag should have an affinity to bind only free amino (-NH2) and carboxyl (-COOH) functional groups.

c)

The tag should have an affinity to bind only adenine (A) and thymine (T) nitrogenous bases.

d)

The tag should have an affinity to bind only free 3' hydroxyl (-OH) and 5' phosphate (-PO4) functional groups.

16.

The image depicts how the bacterial protein barnase undergoes modifications that involve changing its conformation, or shape. In order to function in the cell, barnase has to be folded from a nonfunctional conformation into a functional conformation.

a)

The functional conformation of barnase has a tertiary structure because it consists of a polypeptide chain folded into a three-dimensional shape.

b)

The functional composition of barnase has a quaternary structure because it consists of interactions between multiple polypeptide units.

c)

The functional composition of barnase has a secondary structure because it consists of a single alpha-helix.

d)

The functional composition of barnase has a primary structure because it consists of a linear chain of amino acids.

17.

Your first big biology exam is coming up in a few days, and in order to prepare for late-night study sessions, you buy a box of Yummies, a delicious type of snack cake. After checking out the nutrition facts label on the side of the box, you discover that a single Yummie cake contains 4.5 grams of total fat, 27 grams of carbohydrate, 0 grams of fiber, and 1 gram of protein.


The pH of the stomach is extremely acidic (~ pH 2). If you ate a Yummie cake, what do you think would happen to the protein that you ingested as it passes through the stomach?

a)

The protein would form longer proteins via dehydration reactions.

b)

The protein would get broken down via dehydration reactions.

c)

The protein would become denatured due to the acidic environment.

d)

The protein would speed up digestion because it is an enzyme.

18.

In the early 1950’s, a team of researchers led by Erwin Chargaff conducted a series of experiments related to deciphering the chemical composition of DNA. In one experiment, Chargaff’s team examined samples of DNA from different species of sea urchins. The results of this experiment are summarized in the table pictured. Which of the following results from the experiment is most consistent with the base-pairing rules of DNA?

a)

The average molar ratio of guanine to cytosine is less than the average molar ratio of adenine to guanine across all species in the experiment.

b)

The percentage of adenine nucleotides is roughly equal to the percentage of thymine nucleotides across all species in the experiment.

c)

The average molar ratio of adenine to guanine is greater than the average molar ratio of thymine to cytosine across all species in the experiment.

d)

The percentage of thymine nucleotides is roughly equal to the percentage of cytosine nucleotides across all species in the experiment.

19.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

20.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

21.

Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.

a)

confirmation change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

22.

Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

23.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

24.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

25.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

26.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

27.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

28.

Plant cells can exchange small soluble compounds with neighboring cells directly through junctions in the cell wall called -

a)

gap junctions

b)

thylakoids

c)

stomata

d)

plasmodesmata

29.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

30.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

31.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

32.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

33.

What would happen is protein phosphatases were defective?

a)

Cancerous cells would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle will shut down.

b)

Gametes would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle cannot shut down.

c)

Gametes would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle will shut down.

d)

Cancerous cells would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle cannot shut down.

34.

Which type of feedback loop would mammals use to maintain a constant body temperature or say 124.6 C?

a)

Homeostatic

b)

Postive

c)

Negative

d)

Isotonic

35.

Which of the following is NOT a part of photosynthesis?

a)

Calvin cycle

b)

Light reactions

c)

Light independent reactions

d)

Krebs cycle

36.

Where do the light reactions take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Stroma

d)

Mitochondrial matrix

37.

What is the input for the light reactions?

a)

Light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

38.

What is the output for the light reactions?

a)

Light energy

b)

ATP

c)

NADPH

d)

H2O

39.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

Cytosol

b)

Thylakoid membrane

c)

Stroma

d)

Mitochondrial matrix

40.

What is the input for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

41.

What is the output for the Calvin cycle?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

NADPH

d)

ATP

e)

G3P

42.

How many CO2 molecules are needed to make 1 G3P?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

43.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
44.
A florist places a bouquet of white carnations in water containing blue dye. After a time, the flowers turn blue. What process helped the carnations to change color?
a)
Specific heat 
b)
Surface tension
c)
Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules 
d)
Formation of covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen molecules
45.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
46.

The fact that water can stick to other substances is called:

a)

Ph

b)

Adhesion

c)

Cohesion

d)

Insulation

47.

A polymer of glucose that serves as a storage macromolecule in animals is

a)

chitin

b)

cellulose

c)

glycogen

d)

amylase

48.

What macromolecule is shown above?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

49.

Which biomolecule is this a picture of?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

50.
The name of the initial chain of monomers in a protein is called.....
a)
polypeptide
b)
polysaccharide
c)
polyester
d)
polynucleotide
51.
The two types of folding in the secondary structure are.....
a)
alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets
b)
polypeptide & nucleotide
c)
globular & fibrous
52.
The tertiary structure folding in proteins is primary due to the interactions of....
a)
the 'R' groups
b)
the 'P' groups
c)
the 'A' groups
d)
the 'S'
53.

Genetic information stored in DNA is coded in...

a)

the directionality of the molecule

b)

the complementary base pairs

c)

the sugar phosphate backbone

d)

the sequence of bases in a single strand

54.

Substitution of amino acids in primary struture does not affect subsequent levels of protein folding.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

DNA and RNA have the same 5-carbon sugar and the same nucleotides.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

n the 1950s, the scientist Alfred Hershey and Marth Chase carried out an experiment using bacteriophages, which are viruese that infect bacteria. During the experiment, the scientists allowed bacteriophages that had been labeled with a radioactive element to infect the cells.


After carrying out their experiment, the scientists concluded that bacteriophages inject DAN, but not protein, into the host bacterial cell during infection.


To be able to reach this conclusion the scientists found which element inside the bacteria cells?

a)

radioactive carbon

b)

radioactive phosphorus

c)

radioactive hydrogen

d)

radioactive sulfur

57.
Describes the arrangement of the cell membrane as bendable and made of many parts. 
a)
The Fluid Mosaic Model 
b)
The Major Mobility Model 
c)
The Crazy Cell Model
d)
The Maze Model
58.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
59.
___________ strengthens and stabilizes the cell membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
60.
___________ have 2 functions in the cell membrane.
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let certain things in. 
2.) Enzyme receptors embedded in the membrane.
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
61.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
62.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
63.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
64.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
65.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
66.
In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?
a)
Up the concentration gradient
b)
Down the concentration gradient
c)
Across the concentration gradient
d)
Over the river and through the woods
67.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
68.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
69.

When particles move from low to high concentration

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

70.
_______________  requires energy in the form of ATP
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Passive transport
71.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules will randomly move through the pores in ______________.
a)
Carrier proteins 
b)
Channel proteins
c)
Ion pumps
d)
All of the above
72.
Meaning "to drink"
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Phagocytosis
d)
Pinocytosis
73.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
74.

Your gums are swollen. How will rinsing with warm salt water help the swelling?

a)

swollen gums will absorb the salt

b)

salt lowers the temp

c)

salt goes against the concentration gradient

d)

water in the gums will diffuse out of the cells

75.
Using this image, what organelle is C?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Large Cell Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
76.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
77.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
78.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
79.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
80.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
81.
Complex cell. Can be plant or animal. Contains membrane bound organelles. 
a)
Eukaryotic Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Bacteria
d)
Blood cell
82.
What does this organism use for movement?
a)
Pseudopod
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
legs
83.
Where are ribosomes produced?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Golgi body
d)
Vessicle
84.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
85.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
86.
Plant cells have ___ for cell to cell communication.
a)
gap junctions
b)
plasmodesmata
c)
desmosomes
d)
tight junctions
87.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
88.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
89.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
90.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
91.

The difference in electric potential between the interior and the exterior of a cell is called:

a)

Concentration Difference

b)

Membrane Potential

c)

Cotransport

d)

Concentration Potential

92.

The combination of an ion's concentration gradient and membrane potential is called

a)

action potential

b)

electrochemical potential

c)

electrochemical gradient

d)

action gradient

93.

What is the relationship between an enzymes active site and its substrate?

a)

The active site has the right polarity to interact with the substrate.

b)

The active site is hydrophobic and interacts with other hydrophobic amino acids on the substrate

c)

The active site has a specific shape that fits the shape of the substrate

d)

The active site uses energy to form covalent bonds with the substrate

94.

How does a competitive inhibitor affect an enzymes function?

a)

It binds to an allosteric site that alters the shape of the enzyme

b)

It changes the polarity of the enzyme, decreasing the rate of reaction

c)

It denatures the enzyme which increases the activation energy for the reaction.

d)

It binds to the active site, preventing the enzyme from catalyzing the reaction

95.

Which of these factors can affect the initial rate of an enzyme reaction?

a)

Enzyme concentration

b)

Substrate concentration

c)

Temperature

d)

pH

e)

All of the above

96.

In scientific experiments what is a control?

a)

The variable that is manipulated by the researcher

b)

A test that does not have the independent variable, to show a baseline with no reaction

c)

A test where the researcher does not know which sample contains which variable

d)

The variable that changes based on the experimental conditions

97.

What is chemiosmosis?

a)

The diffusion of electrons through the electron transport chain

b)

The breakdown of a glucose molecule

c)

The diffusion of protons down their concentration gradient

d)

The active transport of NADH into the mitochondria

98.

Why is chemiosmosis important to cellular respiration?

a)

It provides the energy needed to catabolize glucose

b)

It is the force that powers ATP synthase

c)

It provides the energy needed to breakdown pyruvate into carbon dioxide

d)

It generates the electrons needed for the electron transport chain

99.

Why do plants not store 100% of the light energy absorbed by chlorophyll in glucose molecules?

a)

Most of the energy is used to power the reaction or is lost as heat

b)

Plants do not have a high energy requirement, so they do not need to convert 100% of the energy

c)

The energy is used to power ATP synthase proteins on the thylakoid membrane

d)

The remaining energy is used actively transport oxygen out of the cell.

100.

What are the net products of photosynthesis?

a)

6 CO2, 6 H2O, Energy

b)

6 O2 and 6 H2O

c)

C6H12O6 and 6 O2

d)

6 CO2 and C6H12O6