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PAP Chemistry - 9 weeks Test Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The two most important properties of all matter are

a)

the ability to carry an electric current well and to hold electric charge.

b)

taking up space and having mass.

c)

being brittle and hard.

d)

being malleable and ductile.

2.

2. A compound is

a)

a. a pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler, stable substances.

b)

b. a substance, made of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded, that can be broken down into simpler, stable substances.

c)

c. the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.

d)

d. any substance, whether it is chemically bonded or not.

3.

A measure of the quantity of matter is

a)

density

b)

weight

c)

volume

d)

mass

4.

Noble gases are in Group 18, and are best known because they are

a)

unreactive.

b)

excellent conductors.

c)

rare.

d)

lanthanides.

5.

A state of matter in which a material has no definite shape but has a definite volume is the ____ state.

a)

gas

b)

liquid

c)

plasma

d)

solid

6.

If a mixture is uniform in composition, it is said to be

a)

homogeneous

b)

chemically bonded

c)

heterogeneous

d)

a compound

7.

If a mixture is not uniform throughout, it is called

a)

homogeneous

b)

heterogeneous

c)

chemically bonded

d)

a solution

8.

Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a)

air

b)

orange juice

c)

raw milk

d)

marble

9.

A nonmetal is usually

a)

brittle

b)

malleable

c)

a good conductor

d)

used to make jewelry

10.

10. Metalloids are often

a)

unreactive.

b)

semiconductors.

c)

lanthanides.

d)

from outer space.

11.

Which of the following observations is qualitative?

a)

A chemical reaction was complete in 2.3 seconds.

b)

The solid had a mass of 23.4 grams.

c)

The pH of a liquid was 5.

d)

Salt crystals formed as the liquid evaporated.

12.

All of the following are examples of units except

a)

mass.

b)

kilometer.

c)

gram.

d)

ounce.

13.

The SI base units for length and time are

a)

centimeter and second.

b)

meter and hour.

c)

centimeter and hour.

d)

meter and second.

14.

The SI base unit for mass is the

a)

gram.

b)

cubic centimeter.

c)

meter.

d)

kilogram.

15.

The SI base unit for time is the

a)

day.

b)

hour.

c)

minute.

d)

second.

16.

Which of these is a measure of the amount of material?

a)

density

b)

weight

c)

volume

d)

mass

17.

Which pair of quantities determines the density of a material?

a)

mass and weight

b)

volume and weight

c)

volume and concentration

d)

volume and mass

18.

The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm³. What is the volume of a diamond with a mass of 0.25 g?

a)

0.071 cm³

b)

0.875 cm³

c)

3.75 cm³

d)

14 cm³

19.

A numerical result is said to have good precision if

a)

it agrees closely with an accepted value.

b)

repeated measurements agree closely.

c)

it has a small number of significant figures.

d)

it is a large whole number.

20.

A chemist obtained the values 5.2246 g, 5.2353 g, and 5.2501 g for the mass of a sample. Without knowing the true mass of the sample, it can be said that these values have

a)

good precision.

b)

good accuracy.

c)

poor precision.

d)

poor accuracy.

21.

The average distance between the Earth and the moon is 386 000 km. Expressed in scientific notation, this distance is written as

a)

386 x 10³ km.

b)

39 x 10⁴ km.

c)

3.9 x 10⁵ km.

d)

3.86 x 10⁵ km.

22.

In the equation density = mass/volume, mass divided by volume has a constant value. This means that the

a)

equation graphs as a straight line.

b)

variables mass and volume are inversely proportional.

c)

equation graphs as a hyperbola.

d)

product of mass and volume is a constant.

23.

The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics except that it

a)

is positively charged.

b)

is very dense.

c)

contains nearly all of the atom's mass.

d)

contains nearly all of the atom's volume.

24.

Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the

a)

nucleus

b)

nuclides

c)

electrons

d)

protons

25.

The smallest unit of an element that can exist either alone or in combination with other such particles of the same or different elements is the

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

neutron

d)

atom

26.

The most common form of hydrogen has

a)

no neutrons.

b)

one neutron.

c)

two neutrons.

d)

three neutrons.

27.

All isotopes of hydrogen contain

a)

one neutron.

b)

two electrons.

c)

one proton.

d)

two nuclei.

28.

Chlorine has atomic number 17 and mass number 35. It has

a)

17 protons, 17 electrons, and 18 neutrons.

b)

35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neutrons.

c)

17 protons, 17 electrons, and 52 neutrons.

d)

18 protons, 18 electrons, and 17 neutrons.

29.

Carbon-14 (atomic number 6), the radioactive nuclide used in dating fossils, has

a)

6 neutrons

b)

8 neutrons

c)

10 neutrons

d)

14 neutrons

30.

Neon-22 contains 12 neutrons. It also contains

a)

12 protons.

b)

22 protons.

c)

22 electrons.

d)

10 protons.

31.

For electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals

a)

frequency minus wavelength

b)

frequency plus wavelength

c)

frequency divided by wavelength

d)

frequency times wavelength

32.

Max Planck proposed that a hot object radiated energy in small, specific amounts called

a)

quanta

b)

waves

c)

hertz

d)

electrons

33.

The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the

a)

interference effect.

b)

photoelectric effect.

c)

quantum effect.

d)

dual effect.

34.

The electron in a hydrogen atom has its lowest total energy when the electron is in its

a)

neutral state.

b)

excited state.

c)

ground state.

d)

quantum state.

35.

Which model of the atom explains why excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light?

a)

the Bohr model

b)

Rutherford's model

c)

de Broglie model

d)

Planck's theory

36.

A three-dimensional region around a nucleus where an electron may be found is called a(n)

a)

spectral line

b)

electron path

c)

orbital

d)

orbit

37.

An orbital that can never exist according to the quantum description of the atom is

a)

3d

b)

8s

c)

6d

d)

3f

38.

The letter designations for the first four sublevels with the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel are

a)

s:2, p:4, d:6, and f:8.

b)

s:1, p:3, d:5, and f:7.

c)

s:2, p:6, d:10, and f:14.

d)

s:1, p:2, d:3, and f:4.

39.

The number of orbitals for the d sublevel is

a)

1.

b)

3.

c)

5.

d)

7.

40.

How many electrons can occupy the s orbitals at each energy level?

a)

two, if they have opposite spins

b)

two, if they have the same spin

c)

one

d)

no more than eight

41.

How many electrons are needed to completely fill the fourth energy level?

a)

8

b)

18

c)

32

d)

40

42.

The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital is

a)

Hund's rule.

b)

the Aufbau principle.

c)

Bohr's law.

d)

the Pauli exclusion principle.

43.

Two electrons in the 1s orbital must have different spin quantum numbers to satisfy

a)

quantum rule.

b)

the magnetic rule.

c)

the Pauli exclusion principle.

d)

the Aufbau principle.

44.

The sequence in which energy sublevels are filled is specified by

a)

the Pauli exclusion principle.

b)

the orbital rule.

c)

Lyman's series.

d)

the Aufbau principle.

45.

The element with electron configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p² is

a)

Mg (Z = 12)

b)

C (Z = 6)

c)

S (Z = 16)

d)

Si (Z = 14)

46.

What is the electron configuration for nitrogen, atomic number 7?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p³

b)

1s² 2s³ 2p²

c)

1s² 2s³ 2p¹

d)

1s² 2p² 3p¹

47.

The electron notation for aluminum (atomic number 13) is

a)

1s² 2s² 2p³ 3s² 3p³ 3d¹.

b)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 2d¹.

c)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p¹.

d)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶.

48.

What are the radioactive elements with atomic numbers from 90 to 103 called?

a)

the noble gases

b)

the lanthanides

c)

the actinides

d)

the rare-earth elements

49.

What are the elements with atomic numbers from 58 to 71 called?

a)

the lanthanides

b)

the noble gases

c)

the actinides

d)

the alkali metals

50.

Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar

a)

atomic masses.

b)

atomic numbers.

c)

numbers of neutrons.

d)

properties.

51.

Elements to the right side of the periodic table (p-block elements) have properties most associated with

a)

gases.

b)

nonmetals.

c)

metals.

d)

metalloids.

52.

How many electrons does bromine have in its outermost energy level?

a)

7

b)

17

c)

18

d)

35

53.

To what group does magnesium belong?

a)

Group 2

b)

Group 3

c)

Group 5

d)

Group 12

54.

The elements in Group 1 are also known as the

a)

alkali metals.

b)

rare-earth series.

c)

Period 1 elements.

d)

actinide series.

55.

The number of valence electrons in Group 1 elements is

a)

1.

b)

2.

c)

8.

d)

equal to the period number.

56.

For groups 13 through 18, the number of valence electrons is equal to the group number

a)

plus 1.

b)

plus the period number.

c)

minus the period number.

d)

minus 10.

57.

If a material can be shaped or extended by physical pressure, such as hammering, which property does the material have?

a)

conductivity

b)

malleability

c)

ductility

d)

luster

58.

An atom is

a)

the smallest unit of matter that maintains its chemical identity.

b)

the smallest unit of a compound.

c)

always made of carbon.

d)

smaller than an electron.

59.

Which part of the illustration below shows the particles in a heterogeneous mixture?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

60.

A mixture is:

a)

a combination of pure substances bonded chemically.

b)

any substance with a uniform composition.

c)

a blend of any two or more kinds of matter, as long as each maintains its own unique properties.

d)

any group of elements that are chemically bonded to one another.

61.

The vertical columns on the periodic table are called:

a)

periods.

b)

rows.

c)

groups.

d)

elements.

62.

The horizontal rows on the periodic table are called:

a)

actinides

b)

families

c)

elements

d)

periods

63.

The quantity of matter per unit volume is:

a)

mass

b)

weight

c)

inertia

d)

density

64.

The liter is defined as:

a)

1000 m³

b)

1000 cm³

c)

1000 g³

d)

1000 c³

65.

The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm³. What is the mass of a solid piece of aluminum with a volume of 1.50 cm³?

a)

0.556 g

b)

1.80 g

c)

4.05 g

d)

4.20 g

66.

What is the density of 37.72 g of material whose volume is 6.80 cm³?

a)

0.180 g/cm³

b)

5.55 g/cm³

c)

30.9 g/cm³

d)

256. g/cm³

67.

100 milliliters is equivalent to:

a)

1 hectoliter

b)

1 microliter

c)

1 centiliter

d)

1 deciliter

68.

0.25 g is equivalent to

a)

250 kg.

b)

250 mg.

c)

0.025 mg.

d)

0.025 kg.

69.

0.05 cm is the same as

a)

0.000 05 m.

b)

0.005 mm.

c)

0.05 m.

d)

0.5 mm.

70.

A measurement that closely agrees with an accepted value is best described as

a)

precise.

b)

reproducible.

c)

significant.

d)

accurate.

71.

Two variables are directly proportional if their ____ has a constant value.

a)

sum

b)

difference

c)

quotient

d)

product

72.

Two variables are inversely proportional if their ____ has a constant value.

a)

sum

b)

difference

c)

product

d)

quotient

73.

The electrostatic attraction between positively charged nuclei and negatively charged electrons permits two atoms to be held together by a(n)

a)

chemical bond.

b)

London force.

c)

neutron.

d)

ion.

74.

If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is

a)

nonpolar covalent.

b)

polar covalent.

c)

dipole covalent.

d)

coordinate covalent.

75.

When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the shared electrons is called the atom's

a)

electron affinity.

b)

electronegativity.

c)

resonance.

d)

hybridization.

76.

If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called

a)

nonpolar.

b)

polar.

c)

ionic.

d)

dipolar.

77.

What are shared in a covalent bond?

a)

ions

b)

Lewis structures

c)

electrons

d)

dipoles

78.

Nonpolar covalent bonds are not common because

a)

one atom usually attracts electrons more strongly than the other.

b)

ions always form when atoms join.

c)

the electrons usually remain equally distant from both atoms.

d)

dipoles are rare in nature.

79.

The B—F bond in BF₃ (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is

a)

polar covalent.

b)

ionic.

c)

nonpolar covalent.

d)

metallic.

80.

The percentage ionic character and the type of bond in Br₂ (electronegativity for Br is 2.8) is

a)

0%; nonpolar covalent.

b)

100%; polar covalent.

c)

0%; pure ionic.

d)

100%; pure ionic.

81.

A neutral group of atoms held together by covalent bonds is a

a)

molecular formula.

b)

chemical formula.

c)

polyatomic ion.

d)

molecule.

82.

The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s² 2s² 2p³. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy the octet rule?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

8

83.

What group of elements satisfies the octet rule without forming compounds?

a)

halogen

b)

noble gas

c)

alkali metal

d)

alkaline-earth metal

84.

In drawing a Lewis structure, each nonmetal atom except hydrogen should be surrounded by

a)

2 electrons.

b)

4 electrons.

c)

8 electrons.

d)

10 electrons.

85.

How many extra electrons are in the Lewis structure of the phosphate ion, PO₄³⁻?

a)

0

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

86.

How many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide ion, OH⁻?

a)

1

b)

8

c)

9

d)

10

87.

A chemical bond formed by the attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons is a(n)

a)

nonpolar covalent bond.

b)

ionic bond.

c)

polar covalent bond.

d)

metallic bond.

88.

Compared with nonmetals, the number of valence electrons in metals is generally

a)

smaller.

b)

greater.

c)

about the same.

d)

almost triple.

89.

For the f sublevel, the number of orbitals is

a)

5

b)

7

c)

9

d)

18

90.

The main energy level that can hold only two electrons is the

a)

first.

b)

second.

c)

third.

d)

fourth.

91.

The atomic sublevel with the next highest energy after 4p is

a)

4d.

b)

4f.

c)

5p.

d)

5s.

92.

The electron configuration for the carbon atom (C) is 1s² 2s² 2p². The atomic number of carbon is

a)

3.

b)

6.

c)

11.

d)

12.

93.

If an element has an octet of electrons in its highest main energy level, there are electrons in this level.​

a)
2
b)
8
c)

10

d)

32

94.

How many valence electrons are in an atom of magnesium?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

95.

How does calcium obey the octet rule when reacting to form compounds?

a)

It gains electrons.

b)

It gives up electrons.

c)

It does not change its number of electrons.

d)

Calcium does not obey the octet rule.

96.

What is the charge on the strontium ion?

a)

2–

b)

1–

c)

1+

d)

2+

97.

How many electrons does nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble-gas electron configuration?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

98.

The electron configuration of a fluoride ion, F⁻, is ____.

a)

1s²2s²2p⁵

b)

the same as that of a neon atom

c)

1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹

d)

the same as that of a potassium ion

99.

Which of the following occurs in an ionic bond?

a)

Oppositely charged ions attract.

b)

Two atoms share two electrons.

c)

Two atoms share more than two electrons.

d)

Like-charged ions attract.

100.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of most ionic compounds?

a)

They are solids.

b)

They have low melting points.

c)

When melted, they conduct an electric current.

d)

They are composed of metallic and nonmetallic elements.