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Entrepreneurship Unit 2 Quiz

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the Entry Cost Valuation method focus on?

a)

Fair market value of assets

b)

Future earning potential

c)

Estimated cost of replicating the business

d)

Market price per share

2.

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the Entry Cost Valuation method?

a)

Hiring and training personnel

b)

Future market trends

c)

Developing intellectual property

d)

Acquiring necessary assets

3.

What does the Asset-Based Approach primarily value?

a)

Market price per share

b)

Fair market value of assets

c)

Book value of the company

d)

Future cash flows

4.

What is a limitation of the Asset-Based Approach?

a)

It considers future earning potential

b)

It may undervalue intangible assets

c)

It accurately reflects market conditions

d)

It is easy to calculate

5.

How is Net Book Value calculated?

a)

Total Assets x Total Liabilities

b)

Total Assets / Total Liabilities

c)

Total Assets - Total Liabilities

d)

Total Assets + Total Liabilities

6.

What is a limitation of the Book Value Method?

a)

It reflects true market value

b)

It considers future earning potential

c)

It can be manipulated through accounting practices

d)

It is based on fair market value

7.

What does the Price/Earnings Ratio (P/E Ratio) compare?

a)

Total assets to total liabilities

b)

Earnings per share to total liabilities

c)

Market price per share to earnings per share

d)

Market price per share to total assets

8.

What does a higher P/E ratio often indicate?

a)

Negative market sentiment

b)

No growth expectations

c)

Higher growth expectations

d)

Lower growth expectations

9.

What is a limitation of the P/E Ratio?

a)

It is based on historical data

b)

It can be influenced by market sentiment

c)

It considers future cash flows

d)

It reflects intrinsic value accurately

10.

What does the Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) method determine?

a)

Book value of assets

b)

Fair market value of liabilities

c)

Present value of future cash flows

d)

Future market trends

11.

What is involved in the DCF method?

a)

Calculating book value

b)

Projecting future cash flows

c)

Determining liquidation value

d)

Assessing market presence

12.

Which valuation method may not accurately reflect current market conditions?

a)

Price/Earnings Ratio

b)

Asset-Based Approach

c)

Entry Cost Valuation

d)

Book Value Method

13.

What is the focus of the Book Value Method?

a)

Market price per share

b)

Intangible assets

c)

Accounting records

d)

Future cash flows

14.

Which method is used to compare a company to its industry peers?

a)

Discounted Cash Flow

b)

Entry Cost Valuation

c)

Asset-Based Approach

d)

Price/Earnings Ratio

15.

What is a key consideration in the Entry Cost Valuation method?

a)

Acquiring necessary assets

b)

Book value of the company

c)

Market price fluctuations

d)

Future earning potential

16.

Which of the following is NOT one if the types of venture models;

a)

promising start-ups

b)

ventured-backed start ups

c)

initial public offering

d)

corporate-supported start-ups

17.

Which of the following is NOT a method used in business venture valuation?

a)

cash flow statement

b)

entry cost valuation

c)

asset-based approach

d)

book value method

18.

What is the primary focus of Discounted Cash Flow method in venture valuation?

a)

Assessing the market share

b)

Predicting the stock price

c)

Estimating the present value of future cash flows

d)

Calculating the total revenue

19.

How is Asset-Based Valuation different from Discounted Cash Flow method?

a)

Discounted Cash Flow method focuses on the value of the company's liabilities

b)

Asset-Based Valuation focuses on the company's future cash flows

c)

Discounted Cash Flow method focuses on the value of the company's brand

d)

Asset-Based Valuation focuses on the value of the company's assets

20.

What does Book Value Method primarily consider in venture valuation?

a)

Value of assets and liabilities

b)

Revenue and expenses

c)

Customer satisfaction and brand recognition

d)

Market share and competition

21.

What types of assets are considered in Asset-Based Valuation?

a)

Intellectual property and patents

b)

Real estate and stocks

c)

Cash and liabilities

d)

Tangible and intangible assets

22.

The MOST appropriate form of financing during the rapid growth stage of a venture is

a)

first-round financing

b)

start-up or seed financing

c)

public and seasoned financing

d)

second-round or mezzanine financing

23.

During which stage of a venture‟s life cycle may first-round external financing be utilized?

a)

Survival

b)

Maturity

c)

Start-up

d)

Rapid growth

24.

Which valuation method may become subjective if the shares for a company are NOT traded on the stock market?

a)

Income capitalization

b)

Book value (balance sheet value)

c)

Price earning (multiple earnings value)

d)

Discounted future earnings (discounted cash flow)

25.

Which method is NOT an income valuation method?

a)

Income capitalization

b)

Book value (balance sheet value)

c)

Price earning (multiple earnings value)

d)

Discounted future earnings (discounted cash flow)

26.

The process of buying and selling via the internet is called

a)

E-commerce

b)

E-marketing

c)

E-banking

d)

E-communication

27.

Which of the following products are NOT suitable for online selling?

a)

CDs

b)

Books

c)

Fresh vegetables

d)

Financial services

28.

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of business ventures?

a)

Ventures are sown.

b)

Ventures can be grown.

c)

Ventures are harvested.

d)

Ventures can be exported

29.

At which stage of the venture life cycle does the entrepreneur create the capacity to possess the product or service?

a)

Start-up

b)

Innovation

c)

Venture growth

d)

New venture development

30.

Which of the following is a factor to consider before launching into E-commerce?

a)

Location

b)

Nationality

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Data mining

31.

Which of the following venture valuation methods takes the time value of money into account?

a)

Book value

b)

Price earnings

c)

Payback period

d)

Discounted future earnings

32.

Which of the following strategies can promote success in E-commerce?

a)

Focusing on market needs

b)

Minimizing the use of emails (C) De-emphasizing strategic alliances (D) Focusing on corporate social responsibility

c)

De-emphasizing strategic alliances

d)

Focusing on corporate social responsibility

33.

The stage in the venture life cycle where the entrepreneur can consider entering other target markets is described as

a)

growth

b)

decline

c)

start-up

d)

business stabilization

34.

One reason for valuing a venture fairly accurately is to

a)

promote goodwill

b)

avoid under-harvesting

c)

enhance accountability

d)

avoid customer complaints

35.

As in the brick and motar model, a frequent- buyer programme can help an e-commerce intiative establish

a)

Privacy

b)

Loyalty

c)

Security

d)

Flexibility

36.

Many attempts at e--commerce fail because of the belief that

a)

Technology is all that is needed

b)

The most important factor is strategy

c)

Too much security is better than too little

d)

Online sales can lead to new growth opportunities

37.

Company Adi sells products to individuals. What EC classification do they fit?

a)

B2C

b)

B2B

c)

C2C

d)

P2P

38.

E-Commerce is the process of buying, selling or exchanging products, services or information via computer.

a)

Yes

b)

No

39.

Which of the following best describes e-commerce?

a)

Doing Business electronically

b)

Doing business

c)

Sale of goods

d)

All of the abive

40.

E-Commerce stands for

(a)  

41.

Which of the following may be considered an activity that falls under the corporate social responsibility of a lumber company?

a)

Cash donations towards reforestation

b)

Supporting company fun-day celebration

c)

Increasing workers‟ salaries and wages

d)

Spearheading the growth of the company

42.

A Caribbean government recently asked an airline to obtain a license before operating in that territory. This means the airline was being asked to satisfy

a)

a social obligation

b)

a legal requirement

c)

an ethical obligation

d)

a corporate social responsibility

43.

When an existing company grants a license to another company to operate using the formers name and design to provide the same service, the arrangement is called

a)

a franchise

b)

a partnership

c)

an undertaking

d)

limited liability

44.

Which of the following contains guidelines for regulating process and service standards irrespective of the type of business?

a)

COSSH

b)

ISO Standards

c)

Employee Handbook

d)

Economic Partnership Agreement

45.

Which of the following types of business has unlimited life and allows for the easy transferability of ownership interest?

a)

Partnership

b)

Corporation

c)

Sole proprietorship

d)

Limited liability partnership

46.

The Corporate Charter is BEST described as the

a)

basic legal declaration contained in the bylaws

b)

legal document that establishes the corporation

c)

set of rules and procedures established to govern the daily operations of the corporation

d)

document that governs the relationship between the workers of the corporation and management

47.

Which of the following courses of action is available to the regulatory agency in a country if a registered company fails to pay its taxes?

a)

Prosecute the company

b)

Arrest the company's employees

c)

Cut the company's source of raw material supply

d)

Ask buyers to boycott the company's products

48.

An entrepreneur wishing to adopt open innovation must

a)

Maximize the returns of shareholders

b)

Focus on the firm’s core competencies

c)

Build an internal collaboration network

d)

Be willing to collaborate with customers and competitors

49.

In a partnership venture, the partners share the management, profits, and debts of their business based on the terms of their

a)

Friendship or relationship

b)

Capital contribution

c)

Deed of partnership

d)

By-laws

50.

One advantage of the franchise approach to business is that the entrepreneur gets more

a)

Profit

b)

Guidance

c)

Capital

d)

Partners

51.

In the contact of venture operations, a whistle-blower is a person who

a)

Reports illegal and unethical behavior

b)

Speaks loudly during the decision-making process

c)

Contributes capital but is inactive in managing the business

d)

Seeks new innovative ways of doing things within a business

52.

Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of the social entrepreneur

a)

In business to create a profit

b)

Takes environmental objectives into consideration

c)

Highly inclined towards socializing and networking

d)

Repeatedly starts and manages several companies at the same time

53.

The primary purpose of a cooperative is to

a)

break - even

b)

push the economic interest of members

c)

improve the standard of living of the country

d)

bring together a group of existing companies to form one company

54.

Phillip a young designer is desperate for his new clothing line to become successful. To help his chances, he begins to copy the designs of prominent designers. This is in breach of

a)

Tax laws

b)

Labour laws

c)

ISO Regulations

d)

Intellectual property laws

55.

If a business is listed on the stock exchange

it means that it is a

a)

private company

b)

limited partnership

c)

limited liability company

d)

non-governmental organisation

56.

Market research is the process of obtaining information on

a)

the source of financing for the business

b)

the strengths and weaknesses of a business idea

c)

developing the best recruitment and selection model

d)

how the business can create value and manage its operations

57.

Which element of research is concerned with targeting specific customers with niche marketing campaigns?

a)

Customer analysis

b)

Promotion strategy

c)

Expected sales trend

d)

Product characteristics

58.

Which of the following are considered when doing a personality SWOT analysis?

a)

Grades, parent's money, movies, friends

b)

Race, neighborhood, age, fashion sense

c)

Market conditions, economy, taxation, liability

d)

Skills, education, negative work habits, your industry

59.

Which of the following financial statements gives a comprehensive view of the firm's profitability?

a)

Cash budget

b)

Balance sheet

c)

Income statement

d)

Cash flow statement

60.

Which of the following is a form of equity finance for a start-up?

a)

Loans

b)

Debentures

c)

Personal savings

d)

Issuing bonds

61.

The period it takes a business to earn a profit after the initial investment is known as

a)

pay back

b)

liquidity

c)

solvency

d)

profitability

62.

Patrick is a novice entrepreneur. He has to prepare a business model for his business plan. Which of the following components of the business model will determine for whom he has to create value?

a)

Beneficiary

b)

Value proposition

c)

Income generation

d)

Product differentiation

63.

During which stage of a venture's life cycle may first-round external financing be utilized?

a)

Survival

b)

Maturity

c)

Start-up

d)

Growth

64.

The financial statement that shows the value of an organization's assets, liabilities and owner's equity is the

a)

Income statement

b)

Cash flow statement

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Cash budget

65.

Which of the following is a KEY component of a business plan?

a)

Venture logo

b)

SWOT analysis

c)

Value Proposition

d)

Executive summary

66.

The point at which a venture is neither making profits nor losses is described by the term

a)

pay back

b)

break even

c)

cash strap

d)

start-up

67.

Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of the feasibility analysis for a new venture?

a)

Time

b)

Culture

c)

Finance

d)

Employment

68.

Which of the following is a savings and investment option?

a)

Fixed deposit

b)

Loan

c)

Cash

d)

Inventory

69.

A short-term debt obligation backed by the government with a maturity of less than one year is known as a

a)

Bond

b)

Fixed deposit

c)

Stock

d)

Treasury bill

70.

The net change in cash and cash equivalents is

a)

$4 million (increase)

b)

$4 million (decrease)

c)

$27 million (increase)

d)

$6 million (decrease)

71.

Which section of a business plan provides information about staffing?

a)

Finance

b)

Marketing

c)

Operations

d)

Management

72.

Which method is NOT an income valuation method?

a)

Income capitalization

b)

Book value

c)

Price-earnings

d)

Discounted cash flow

73.

Using the book value approach calculate the book value of an asset if the original cost was $10,000 and accumulated depreciation totaled $2,300 after 3 years:

a)

$12,300

b)

$7,700

c)

$6,900

d)

$7,000

74.

Which of the following products are not suitable for online selling?

a)

Fresh vegetables

b)

Books

c)

CD's

d)

Financial services

75.

What is the price earnings multiple (ratio) for this firm?

a)

2

b)

8

c)

10

d)

12

76.

Which of the following is a factor to consider before launching into e-commerce?

a)

Location

b)

Nationality

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Data mining

77.

Which of the following strategies can promote e-commerce success?

a)

Promotion online and offline

b)

Minimizing the use of emails

c)

Focusing on corporate social responsibility

d)

De-emphasizing strategic alliances

78.

When a venture first begins operations it experiences

a)

low sales, high costs

b)

low sales, low costs

c)

high sales, low costs

d)

high sales, high costs

79.

Many attempts at e-commerce fail because of the belief that

a)

the most important factor is strategy

b)

all you need is technology

c)

too much security is better than too little

d)

online sales can lead to new growth opportunities

80.

At which stage of the venture's life cycle is innovation critical for the survival of the venture?

a)

Growth

b)

Decline

c)

Start-up

d)

Acceleration

81.

To reward employees, businesses may allow them to purchase shares at a predetermined price, effectively making them part owners of the firm. This practice is

a)

Deregulation

b)

Reward programme

c)

Employee stock option plan

d)

None of the above

82.

As in a brick and mortar model, a frequent buyer programme can help e-commerce ventures establish customer

a)

loyalty

b)

security

c)

privacy

d)

flexibility

83.

Which of the following is NOT an approach to e-commerce

a)

Online shopping malls

b)

Own website

c)

Partnering with payment service providers

d)

Partnering with sole traders

84.

Many unknown recording artistes use the Internet and You Tube because of

a)

speed and flexibility

b)

access to global market

c)

potential to increase sales

d)

potential to improve margins

85.

When assessing the online potential of a business venture, consideration should be given to

a)

data mining, target markets, difficulty of access to offline customers

b)

appeal to customers, online shopping malls, data mining

c)

appeal to customers, target markets, costs and benefits

d)

costs and benefits, domain name

86.

The following would appear in which section of the cash flow statement?

Cash payments for purchasing inventory

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

87.

The following would appear in which section of the cash flow statement?


Cash received from a business investor

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

88.

The following would appear in which section of the cash flow statement?


cash payments for equipment

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

89.

The following would appear in which section of the cash flow statement?


cash received from sales of services

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

90.

Selling and distributing merchandise sold by the company

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

91.

Borrowing cash from a bank for additional working capital

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

92.

Gross profit is calculated by...

a)

Revenue - Expense

b)

Revenue + Expense

c)

Revenue - Liabilities

d)

Revenue + Liabilities

93.
Examples may include salaries, utilities, rent, insurance, and office supplies.
a)
Revenue
b)
Expense
c)
Net Income
d)
Net Loss
94.
The Income Statement lists a businesses:
a)
Assets and Expenses
b)
Owner's Equity and Revenue
c)

Revenue and Expenses

d)
Expenses and Net Assets
95.

Which of the following means money spent?

a)

income

b)

expense

c)

net income

d)

gross income

96.

Which of the following means money received?

a)

net loss

b)

net gain

c)

insurance

d)

income

97.

When expenses are greater than income?

a)

expense

b)

net loss

c)

net income

d)

net gain

98.
A Net Profit occurs if:
a)
Gross Profit is greater than expenses
b)
Expenses greater than Gross Profit
c)
None of the listed choices
99.

If total expenses exceed total revenue, a net loss is reported.

a)

True

b)

False

100.
By completing an Income Statement, you can make decisions.  How could you improve sales?
a)
reduce selling prices
b)
reduce the cost price of your product
c)
increase advertising
d)
introduce a new product
101.
How could a business improve net profit?
a)
reduce expenses
b)
increase COGS
c)
reduce sales
d)
increase expenses
102.

If total sales is 20,000 and Total Expenses is 1000, then profit will be:

a)

21000

b)

19000

c)

1000

103.

It informs the users of the financial condition of the business at a given date.

a)

Statement of Financial Position

b)

Financial Statement

c)

Statement of Income

104.

Another name for the statement of Financial Position.

a)

Balance Sheet

b)

Income Statement

c)

Pofit and Loss Statement

105.

A debt or obligation owed to others.

a)

Liabilities

b)

Assets

c)

Owner's Equity

106.

Cash in Bank is classified as

a)

Current Asset

b)

Current Liability

c)

Noncurrent Asset

d)

Noncurrent Liability

107.

Account Receivable is classified as

a)

Current Asset

b)

Current Liability

c)

Noncurrent Asset

d)

Noncurrent Liability

108.

Furniture and Fixtures is classified as

a)

Current Asset

b)

Current Liability

c)

Noncurrent Asset

d)

Noncurrent Liability

109.

Two types of Financial Statement Account:

a)

General and Journal Form

b)

Report and Account Form

c)

Statement of Cash flow and Income Statement

110.

Also known as the "Long-term Assets"

a)

Non-current Assets

b)

Current Assets

c)

Non-current liabilities

d)

Current Liabilities

111.

 What term refers to the process of starting a new business, typically involving the creation and development of innovative ideas into profitable ventures?

a)

Marketing

b)

Entrepreneurship

c)

Investment

d)

Management

112.
A characteristic of a sole proprietorship is that the owner:
a)
Has access to unlimited funds
b)
Receives all the profit
c)
Transfers all the risk
d)
Delegates all functions
113.
To form my business, I used all of my savings and borrowed from the bank, and I'm personally liable for all of the debts. This statement is an example of which of the following forms of business ownership:
a)
Partnership
b)
Sole proprietorship
c)
Corporation
d)
Cooperative
114.
John, Robert, and Charles were college friends who wanted to start a business. John has creative ability, Robert's expertise is selling, and Charles' expertise is management. However, each has limited capital. The ideal business ownership for these young men is a
a)
Merger
b)
Partnership
c)
Franchise
d)
Corporation
115.
The Scott Company decided to sell stock to raise capital. Under what form of business organization does the company operate?
a)
Corporation
b)
Cooperative
c)
Partnership
d)
Sole proprietorship
116.
A type of state-chartered corporation that was developed to help small businesses by taxing them as individuals in a partnership is a(n) __________ corporation.
a)
S Corporation
b)
C Corporation
c)
Private
d)
Limited
117.
What type of corporation sells millions of shares and must furnish complete information about its earnings, assets, and debts?
a)
C Corporation
b)
S Corporation
c)
Private
d)
Limited
118.
The American Red Cross is an example of a(n) ___________ corporation.
a)
Hybrid
b)
Nonprofit
c)
S Corporation
d)
C Corporation
119.
One of the characteristics of the form of business ownership known as an LLC is that
a)
This kind of business can last indefinitely.
b)
It is required to have at least three owners (members).
c)
The IRS collects taxes based on the LLC�s gross income.
d)
The owners' personal property cannot be taken to pay the business�s debts.
120.

________ is conducted to determine whether a proposed business has sufficient management expertise, organizational competence, and resources to successfully launch its business.

a)
A) Product/service feasibility analysis
b)

B) Financial feasibility analysis

c)

C) Organizational feasibility analysis

d)
D) Industry/market feasibility analysis
e)

E) Institutional feasibility analysis