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Exam 2 - Advanced Med Surg - Part 1

Total questions: 102

Worksheet time: 3hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The public health nurse is presenting a health promotion class to a group at a local community center. Which intervention most directly addresses the leading cause of cancer deaths in North America?

a)

Monthly self-breast exams

b)

Smoking cessation

c)

Annual colonoscopies

d)

Monthly testicular exams

2.

A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a client who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the client's skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?

a)

Liver function tests (LFTs)

b)

Complete blood count (CBC)

c)

Platelet count

d)

Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

3.

The nurse is conducting a health education about cancer prevention to a group of adults. What menu best demonstrates dietary choices for potentially reducing the risks of cancer?

a)

Smoked salmon and green beans

b)

Pork chops and fried green tomatoes

c)

Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli

d)

Liver, onions, and steamed peas

4.

Which nursing action best demonstrates primary cancer prevention?

a)

Encouraging yearly Pap tests

b)

Teaching testicular self-examination

c)

Promoting and providing vaccines

d)

Facilitating screening mammograms

5.

A woman with a family history of breast cancer received a positive result on a breast tumor marking test and is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of which type of oncologic surgery?

a)

Salvage surgery

b)

Palliative surgery

c)

Prophylactic surgery

d)

Reconstructive surgery

6.

The nurse is caring for a client who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing client education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the client?

a)

Impaired nutritional status

b)

Cognitive changes

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Alopecia

7.

While a client is receiving intravenous (IV) doxorubicin hydrochloride for the treatment of cancer, the nurse observes swelling and pain at the IV site. The nurse should prioritize which action?

a)

Stopping the administration of the drug immediately

b)

Notifying the client's health care provider

c)

Continuing the infusion but decreasing the rate

d)

Applying a warm compress to the infusion site

8.

A client newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?

a)

Pruritis (itching)

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Altered glucose metabolism

d)

Confusion

9.

A client on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in clients at risk for thrombocytopenia?

a)

Interrupted sleep pattern

b)

Hot flashes

c)

Epistaxis

d)

Increased weight

10.

The nurse manager is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, which action should the nurse manager emphasize?

a)

Adjust the dose to the client's present symptoms.

b)

Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration.

c)

Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication.

d)

Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

11.

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a client for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. Which information should the nurse emphasize to the client's family and friends?

a)

Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case there is a negative outcome.

b)

Make sure the client doesn't eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure.

c)

Wear a hospital gown when you go into the client's room.

d)

Do not visit if you've had a recent infection.

12.

Which type of cancer is the leading cause of death in the United States?

a)

Colorectal

b)

Prostate

c)

Lung

d)

Breast

13.

The nurse on a bone marrow transplant unit is caring for a client with cancer who has just begun hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

a)

Fatigue related to altered metabolic processes

b)

Altered nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexia

c)

Risk for infection related to altered immunologic response

d)

Body image disturbance related to weight loss and anorexia

14.

While on spring break, a 22-year-old client was taken to the hospital for heat stroke and alcohol poisoning. The client is worried and states that a biopsy was taken and showed "some kind of benign condition." Which response by the nurse would be best?

a)

I understand that you are worried. Benign conditions are noncancerous, but let’s look at your chart to see your results.

b)

You have every right to be upset; a benign condition means you may have cancerous cells. Let me call your health care provider to talk to you.

c)

Are you sure a biopsy was done? Your admitting diagnosis would not prompt that kind of procedure.

d)

Do not worry; if something was wrong, your primary health care provider would have told you and started treatment.

15.

A client with terminal small-cell lung cancer has been given a six-month prognosis and wants to die at home. The health care team believes the condition warrants inpatient care. The nurse might suggest which compromise?

a)

Discuss a referral for rehabilitation hospital.

b)

Panel the client for a personal care home.

c)

Discuss a referral for acute care.

d)

Discuss a referral for hospice care.

16.

The clinic nurse is caring for an adult oncology client who reports extreme fatigue and weakness after the first week of radiation therapy. Which response by the nurse would best reassure this client?

a)

These symptoms usually result from radiation therapy; however, we will continue to monitor your laboratory studies and test results.

b)

These symptoms are part of your disease and are an unfortunately inevitable part of living with cancer.

c)

Try not to be concerned about these symptoms. Every client feels this way after having radiation therapy.

d)

Even though it is uncomfortable, this is a good sign. It means that only the cancer cells are dying.

17.

A 16-year-old female client has post-chemotherapy alopecia. This prompts the nursing diagnoses of Disturbed Body Image and Situational Low Self-Esteem. Which response by the client would best indicate improved coping related to these diagnoses?

a)

Requests that her family bring her makeup and a wig

b)

Begins to discuss the future with her family

c)

Reports less disruption from pain and discomfort

d)

Cries openly when discussing her disease

18.

An adult client with leukemia will soon begin chemotherapy. What would the nurse do to combat the most common adverse effects of chemotherapy?

a)

Administer an antiemetic.

b)

Administer an antimetabolite.

c)

Administer a tumor antibiotic.

d)

Administer an anticoagulant.

19.

A client has been hospitalized for a wedge resection of the left lower lung lobe after a routine chest x-ray showed carcinoma. The client reports feeling anxious and asks to smoke. Which statement by the nurse would be most therapeutic?

a)

Smoking is the reason you are here.

b)

The doctor left orders for you not to smoke.

c)

You are anxious about the surgery. Do you see smoking as helping?

d)

Smoking is OK right now, but after your surgery it is contraindicated.

20.

An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a client who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The client's wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?

a)

Malignant cells possess greater mobility than normal body cells.

b)

Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-associated antigens.

c)

Chromosomes contained in cancer cells are more durable and stable than those of normal cells.

d)

The nuclei of cancer cells are unusually large, but regularly shaped.

21.

A client's most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that lung cancer has metastasized to the bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the client's cancer cells spread?

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Lymphatic circulation

c)

Invasion

d)

Angiogenesis

22.

The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a client who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply.

a)

Rate of growth

b)

Ability to cause death

c)

Cell size

d)

Cell location

e)

Ability to spread

23.

When discussing with a client factors that distinguish malignant cells from benign cells of the same tissue type, which characteristic should the nurse mention?

a)

Slow rate of mitosis of cancer cells

b)

Different proteins in the cell membrane

c)

Differing size of the cells

d)

Different molecular structure in the cells

24.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a 75-year-old client who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurse's interview with the client, the client admits drinking around 600 mL (20 oz) of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put the client at risk for? Select all that apply.

a)

Malignant melanoma

b)

Brain cancer

c)

Breast cancer

d)

Esophageal cancer

e)

Liver cancer

25.

A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?

a)

Disease prophylaxis

b)

Risk reduction

c)

Secondary prevention

d)

Tertiary prevention

26.

A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The client has asked if they will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this client most likely undergo?

a)

Lymphadenectomy

b)

Needle biopsy

c)

Open biopsy

d)

Sentinel node biopsy

27.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just been told that the client’s stage IV colon cancer has recurred and metastasized to the liver. The oncologist offers the client the option of surgery to treat the progression of this disease. What type of surgery does the oncologist offer?

a)

Palliative

b)

Reconstructive

c)

Salvage

d)

Prophylactic

28.

The nurse is caring for a client with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the client has recently learned that the cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the client struggling to breathe, and the nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency?

a)

Increased intracranial pressure

b)

Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS)

c)

Spinal cord compression

d)

Metastatic tumor of the neck

29.

Which intervention should the nurse teach a client who is at risk for hypercalcemia?

a)

Avoid the use of stool softeners.

b)

Take laxatives daily.

c)

Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.

d)

Restrict calcium intake.

30.

A client with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation (HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

a)

Limit the time that visitors spend at the client's bedside.

b)

Teach the client to perform all aspects of basic care independently.

c)

Assign male nurses to the client's care whenever possible.

d)

Situate the client in a shared room with other clients receiving brachytherapy.

31.

The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology client discharged three days ago after completing chemotherapy treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurse's priority assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of which complication?

a)

Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS)

b)

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

c)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

d)

Hypercalcemia

32.

The nurse is admitting an oncology client to the unit prior to surgery. The nurse reads in the electronic health record that the client has just finished radiation therapy. With knowledge of the consequent health risks, the nurse should prioritize assessments related to what health problem?

a)

Cognitive deficits

b)

Impaired wound healing

c)

Cardiac tamponade

d)

Tumor lysis syndrome

33.

The hospice nurse has just admitted a new client to the program. What principle guides hospice care?

a)

Care addresses the needs of the client as well as the needs of the family.

b)

Care is focused on the client centrally and the family peripherally

c)

The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the client.

d)

The care team prioritizes the client's physical needs and the family is responsible for the client's emotional needs.

34.

A client is hospitalized because a large abdominal tumor was seen on the computed tomography scan. A biopsy is ordered, and the client wants to know if “this will cause a big scar.” Which type of biopsy will this client likely experience?

a)

Excisional

b)

Incisional

c)

Needle

d)

Punch

35.

What is the recommended daily fluid intake for a client to prevent constipation?

a)

Avoid the use of stool softeners.

b)

Take laxatives daily.

c)

Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily.

d)

Restrict calcium intake.

36.

A client was diagnosed with cancer several weeks ago and family members describe the client as "utterly distraught." The client has fully withdrawn from social and family contact. What is the nurse's best action?

a)

Reassure the client and the family that these types of responses to cancer are common.

b)

Refer the client to the appropriate mental health provider.

c)

Educate the client about the mental health benefits of exercise.

d)

Reassure the family that the client is grieving and will eventually come to terms with the diagnosis.

37.

A client has been diagnosed with breast cancer and is being treated aggressively with a chemotherapeutic regimen. As a result of this regimen, the client has an inability to fight infection because bone marrow is unable to produce a sufficient amount of:

a)

lymphocytes.

b)

cytoblasts.

c)

antibodies.

d)

capillaries.

38.

During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a teacher has been exposed. The client has previously been immunized for mumps, and consequently possesses:

a)

acquired immunity.

b)

natural immunity.

c)

phagocytic immunity.

d)

humoral immunity.

39.

A gardener sustained a deep laceration while working and requires sutures. The date of the client's last tetanus shot was over 10 years ago. Based on this information, the client will receive a tetanus immunization, which will allow for the release of which type of substance?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Antigens

c)

Cytokines

d)

Phagocytes

40.

An infection control nurse is presenting an in-service reviewing the immune response. The nurse describes the clumping effect that occurs when an antibody acts like a cross-link between two antigens. What process is the nurse explaining?

a)

Agglutination

b)

Cellular immune response

c)

Humoral response

d)

Phagocytic immune response

41.

A nurse has given an 8-year-old client the scheduled vaccination for rubella. This vaccination will cause the client to develop which expected and desired condition?

a)

Natural immunity

b)

Passive acquired immunity

c)

Cellular immunity

d)

Mild hypersensitivity

42.

A client with a history of dermatitis takes corticosteroids on a regular basis. The nurse should assess the client for which complication of therapy?

a)

Immunosuppression

b)

Agranulocytosis

c)

Anemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

43.

A nurse is planning the assessment of a client who is exhibiting signs and symptoms of an autoimmune disorder. The nurse should be aware that the incidence and prevalence of autoimmune diseases is known to be higher among which group?

a)

Young adults

b)

Native Americans/First Nations

c)

Women

d)

People of Hispanic descent

44.

A client has been brought to the emergency department by the parents after falling through the glass of a patio door, sustaining a laceration. The nurse caring for this client knows that the site of the injury will have an invasion of which type of cell?

a)

Interferons

b)

Phagocytic cells

c)

Helper T cells

d)

Cytokines

45.

A client was scratched by an old tool and developed a virulent staphylococcus infection. During the immune response, circulating lymphocytes containing the antigenic message returned to the nearest lymph node. During what stage of the immune response did this occur?

a)

Recognition stage

b)

Proliferation stage

c)

Response stage

d)

Effector stage

46.

A client with cystic fibrosis has received a double lung transplant and is now experiencing signs of rejection. Which immune response predominates in this situation?

a)

Humoral

b)

Nonspecific

c)

Cellular

d)

Antibody

47.

A client being treated for bacterial pneumonia initially experienced dyspnea and a high fever but now claims to be feeling better and is afebrile. The client is most likely in which stage of the immune response?

a)

Recognition stage

b)

Proliferation stage

c)

Response stage

d)

Effector stage

48.

The nurse is providing care for a client who has multiple sclerosis. The nurse recognizes the autoimmune etiology of this disease and the potential benefits of what treatment?

a)

Stem cell transplantation

b)

Serial immunizations

c)

Immunosuppression

d)

Genetic engineering

49.

A client's injury has initiated an immune response that involves inflammation. What are the first cells to arrive at this client's site of inflammation?

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Red blood cells

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Neutrophils

50.

A nurse is planning a client's care and is relating it to normal immune response. During which stage of the immune response do sensitized lymphocytes stimulate some of the resident T and B lymphocytes to enlarge, divide, and proliferate?

a)

Recognition stage

b)

Proliferation stage

c)

Response stage

d)

Effector stage

51.

The nurse should recognize a client's risk for impaired immune function if the client has undergone surgical removal of which of the following?

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Spleen

c)

Kidney

d)

Pancreas

52.

A client with hepatitis B has been admitted to the medical intensive care unit with sepsis. Which immunity function was most likely compromised?

a)

Lymphatic system

b)

Passive immunity

c)

Complement system

d)

Monoclonal antibodies

53.

A nurse has admitted a client who has been diagnosed with urosepsis. Which immune response predominates in sepsis?

a)

Mitigated

b)

Nonspecific

c)

Cellular

d)

Humoral

54.

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record in an effort to identify drugs that may contribute to the client's recent immunosuppression. What drug is most likely to have this effect?

a)

An antibiotic

b)

A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)

c)

An antineoplastic

d)

An antiretroviral

55.

A client requires ongoing treatment and infection-control precautions because of an inherited deficit in immune function. The nurse should recognize that this client most likely has which type of immune disorder?

a)

A primary immune deficiency

b)

A gammopathy

c)

An autoimmune disorder

d)

A rheumatic disorder

56.

A neonate exhibited some preliminary signs of infection, but the infant's condition resolved spontaneously prior to discharge home from the hospital. This infant's recovery was most likely due to which type of immunity?

a)

Cytokine immunity

b)

Specific immunity

c)

Active acquired immunity

d)

Nonspecific immunity

57.

A gerontologic nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client who has a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which age-related change increases older adults' susceptibility to respiratory infections?

a)

A. Atrophy of the thymus

b)

B. Bronchial stenosis

c)

C. Impaired ciliary action

d)

D. Decreased diaphragmatic muscle tone

58.

A nurse is explaining the process by which the body removes cells from circulation after they have performed their physiologic function. The nurse is describing what process?

a)

The cellular immune response

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Opsonization

59.

A client is responding to a microbial invasion and the client's differentiated lymphocytes have begun to function in either a humoral or a cellular capacity. During what stage of the immune response does this occur?

a)

The recognition stage

b)

The effector stage

c)

The response stage

d)

The proliferation stage

60.

A nurse is reviewing the immune system before planning an immunocompromised client's care. How should the nurse characterize the humoral immune response?

a)

A. Specialized cells recognize and ingest cells that are recognized as foreign.

b)

B. T lymphocytes are assisted by cytokines to fight infection.

c)

C. Lymphocytes are stimulated to become cells that attack microbes directly.

d)

D. Antibodies are made by B lymphocytes in response to a specific antigen.

61.

A client is undergoing testing to determine the overall function of the client’s immune system. Which test will best identify the functioning of the client's cellular immune system?

a)

Immunoglobulin testing

b)

Delayed hypersensitivity skin test

c)

Specific antibody response

d)

Total serum globulin assessment

62.

Diagnostic testing has revealed a deficiency in the function of a client's complement system. This client is likely to have an impaired ability to do what action?

a)

Protect the body against viral infection.

b)

Mark the parameters of the immune response.

c)

Bridge natural and acquired immunity.

d)

Collect immune complexes during inflammation.

63.

A client's current immune response involves the direct destruction of foreign microorganisms. This aspect of the immune response may be performed by which cells?

a)

Suppressor T cells

b)

Memory T cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells

d)

Complement T cells

64.

A nurse is explaining how the humoral and cellular immune responses should be seen as interacting parts of the broader immune system rather than as independent and unrelated processes. What aspect of immune function best demonstrates this?

a)

The movement of B cells in and out of lymph nodes

b)

The interactions that occur between T cells and B cells

c)

The differentiation between different types of T cells

d)

The universal role of the complement system

65.

A nurse is caring for a client who has had a severe antigen–antibody reaction. Which portion of the antigen is involved in binding with the antibody?

a)

A. Antibody agglutination

b)

B. Antigenic message

c)

C. Antigenic determinant

d)

D. Antibody response

66.

A client is being treated for cancer, and the nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Infection Due to Protein Losses. Protein losses inhibit immune response in which way?

a)

Causing apoptosis of cytokines

b)

Increasing interferon production

c)

Causing CD4+ cells to mutate

d)

Depressing antibody response

67.

A client is vigilant in self-care but is frustrated by a recent history of upper respiratory infections and influenza. Which aspects of the client's lifestyle may have a negative effect on immune response? Select all that apply.

a)

Exercises at the gym twice a day

b)

Does not consume any red meat

c)

Takes over-the-counter daily vitamins

d)

Sleeps approximately seven hours daily

e)

Works as a medical researcher

68.

A nurse educator is developing a care plan concerning a risk of infection related to vascular insufficiency. Which disease and/or injury would most likely align with this nursing care plan?

a)

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

b)

Major burns

c)

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

d)

Diabetes

69.

The nurse is completing a focused assessment addressing a client's immune function. What should the nurse prioritize in the physical assessment?

a)

Percussion of the client's abdomen

b)

Palpation of the client's liver

c)

Auscultation of the client's apical heart rate

d)

Palpation of the client's lymph nodes

70.

A client's exposure to which microorganism is most likely to trigger a cellular response?

a)

Herpes simplex

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus

71.

A client was recently exposed to infectious microorganisms and many T lymphocytes are now differentiating into killer T cells. This process characterizes what stage of the immune response?

a)

Effector

b)

Proliferation

c)

Response

d)

Recognition

72.

A client's natural immunity is enhanced by processes that are inherent in the physical and chemical barriers of the body. What is a chemical barrier that enhances natural immunity?

a)

Cell cytoplasm

b)

Interstitial fluid

c)

Gastric secretions

d)

Cerebrospinal fluid

73.

A client is fighting an active infection. What function will cytokines perform in this immune response?

a)

Determining whether a cell is foreign

b)

Determining if lymphokines will be activated

c)

Determining whether the T cells will remain in the nodes and retain a memory of the antigen

d)

Determining whether the immune response will be the production of antibodies or a cell-mediated response

74.

A client has undergone treatment for urosepsis and received high doses of numerous antibiotics during the course of treatment. When planning the client's subsequent care, the nurse should be aware of which potential effect on the client's immune function?

a)

Bone marrow suppression

b)

Uncontrolled apoptosis

c)

Prostaglandin synthesis inhibition

d)

Immunosuppression

75.

A client's recent diagnostic testing included a total lymphocyte count. The results of this test will allow the care team to gauge what aspect of the client's immunity?

a)

Humoral immune function

b)

Antigen recognition

c)

Cell-mediated immune function

d)

Antibody production

76.

At which stage of life are people most commonly diagnosed with PIDD?

a)

Early childhood

b)

Infancy

c)

Adolescence

d)

Early adulthood

77.

A client with Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse caring for the client should prioritize which intervention?

a)

Protective isolation

b)

Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) administration

c)

Chest physiotherapy

d)

Nutritional supplementation

78.

A pediatric nurse is working with an interdisciplinary team and parents to care for a 6-month-old client who has recently been diagnosed with severe combined immune deficiency (SCID). Which treatment is likely of most benefit to this client’s type of primary immune deficiency disease (PIDD)?

a)

Combined radiotherapy and chemotherapy

b)

Antibiotic therapy

c)

Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT)

d)

Treatment with colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

79.

A nurse is implementing the care plan of diarrhea related to enteric pathogens of human immunodeficiency virus infections. Which interventions are needed to reach the goal of resuming usual bowel habits? Select all that apply.

a)

Administer antimicrobials.

b)

Restrict fluid to 1500 mL/50.7 fl oz daily.

c)

Implement a BRAT diet.

d)

Administer antitussives.

e)

Establish normal bowel pattern.

80.

The nurse is applying standard precautions in the care of a client who has an immunodeficiency. What are key elements of standard precautions? Select all that apply.

a)

Using appropriate personal protective equipment

b)

Placing clients in negative pressure isolation rooms

c)

Placing clients in positive pressure isolation rooms

d)

Using safe injection practices

e)

Performing hand hygiene

81.

A client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency disease informs the nurse that the client has been experiencing a new onset of a dry cough and occasional shortness of breath. After determining that the client's vital signs are within reference ranges, what action should the nurse take?

a)

Administer a nebulized bronchodilator.

b)

Perform oral suctioning.

c)

Assess the client for signs and symptoms of infection.

d)

Teach the client deep breathing and coughing exercises.

82.

A nurse caring for a client who has an immunosuppressive disorder knows that continual monitoring of the client is critical. What is the primary rationale behind the need for continual monitoring?

a)

So that the client's functional needs can be met immediately

b)

So that medications can be given as prescribed and signs of adverse reactions noted

c)

So that early signs of impending infection can be detected and treated

d)

So that the nurse's documentation can be thorough and accurate

83.

A nurse is planning the care of a client who requires immunosuppression to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow during a transplantation procedure. What is the most important component of infection control in the care of this client?

a)

Administration of IVIG

b)

Antibiotic administration

c)

Appropriate use of gloves and goggles

d)

Thorough and consistent hand hygiene

84.

A home health nurse is caring for a client who has an immunodeficiency. What is the nurse's priority action to help ensure successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis?

a)

Encourage the client and family to be active partners in the management of the immunodeficiency.

b)

Encourage the client and family to manage the client's activity level and activities of daily living effectively.

c)

Make sure that the client and family understand the importance of monitoring fluid balance.

d)

Make sure that the client and family know how to adjust dosages of the medications used in treatment.

85.

Since the emergence of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. At present, members of which group are most affected by new cases of HIV?

a)

Male-to-male sexual contact

b)

Heterosexual contact

c)

Male-to-male sexual contact with injection drug use

d)

People 25 to 29 years of age

86.

A clinic nurse is caring for a client admitted with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The nurse has assessed that the client is experiencing a progressive decline in cognitive, behavioral, and motor functions. The nurse recognizes that these symptoms are most likely related to the onset of which complication?

a)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) encephalopathy

b)

B-cell lymphoma

c)

Kaposi sarcoma

d)

Wasting syndrome

87.

A nurse is assessing a client with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the client, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?

a)

Oral temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

b)

Tachypnea and restlessness

c)

Frequent loose stools

d)

Weight loss of 0.45 kg (1 lb) since yesterday

88.

A client has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. The client asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows that antibodies to the acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) virus are present in the blood, this indicates that the client has which of the following?

a)

Immunity to HIV

b)

An intact immune system

c)

An AIDS-related complication

d)

An HIV infection

89.

The nurse is addressing condom use in the context of a health promotion workshop. When discussing the correct use of condoms, which instruction should the nurse give the attendees?

a)

A. Apply the condom prior to erection.

b)

B. A condom may be reused with the same partner if ejaculation has not occurred.

c)

C. Use skin lotion as a lubricant if alternatives are unavailable.

d)

D. Hold the condom during withdrawal so it doesn’t come off.

90.

A nurse is planning the care of a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who is admitted to the unit with Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this client?

a)

Ineffective airway clearance

b)

Impaired oral mucous membranes

c)

Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements

d)

Activity intolerance

91.

A nurse is working with a client who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. This client will be considered to have AIDS when the CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?

a)

75 cells/mm³ of blood

b)

200 cells/mm³ of blood

c)

325 cells/mm³ of blood

d)

450 cells/mm³ of blood

92.

A client's current antiretroviral regimen includes enfuvirtide (T-20). What dietary counseling will the nurse provide based on the client's medication regimen?

a)

Avoid high-fat meals while taking this medication.

b)

Limit fluid intake to 2 L/day.

c)

Limit sodium intake to 2 g/day.

d)

Take this medication without regard to meals.

93.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with stage 3 human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After assessing the client's gastrointestinal system and analyzing the data, which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be the priority?

a)

Acute abdominal pain

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Bowel incontinence

d)

Constipation

94.

A client with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond?

a)

Complementary therapies generally have not been approved, so clients are usually discouraged from using them.

b)

Researchers have not looked at the benefits of alternative therapy for clients with HIV, so we suggest that you stay away from these therapies until there is solid research data available.

c)

Many clients with HIV use some type of alternative therapy and, as with most health treatments, there are benefits and risks.

d)

You'll need to meet with your doctor to choose between an alternative approach to treatment and a medical approach.

95.

A client with HIV infection has begun experiencing severe diarrhea. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention to help alleviate the diarrhea?

a)

Administer antidiarrheal medications on a scheduled basis, as prescribed.

b)

Encourage the client to eat three balanced meals and a snack at bedtime.

c)

Increase the client's oral fluid intake.

d)

Encourage the client to increase his or her activity level.

96.

A nurse is caring for a client hospitalized with AIDS. A friend comes to visit the client and privately asks the nurse about the risk of contracting HIV when visiting the client. What is the nurse's best response?

a)

A. "Do you think that you might already have HIV?"

b)

B. "Your immune system is likely very healthy."

c)

C. "AIDS isn't transmitted by casual contact."

d)

D. "You can't normally contract AIDS in a hospital setting."

97.

A health care provider is taking post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) medications for exposure to a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which topics will the health care provider need to understand regarding PEP administration prior to beginning this regimen? Select all that apply.

a)

Potential drug toxicities

b)

Needed dietary changes

c)

Potential drug interactions

d)

Sleep pattern disturbances

e)

Adherence requirements

98.

An 18-year-old client who is pregnant has tested positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and asks the nurse if her baby is going to be born with HIV. Which response by the nurse is the best?

a)

Your baby has a one in four chance of being born with HIV.

b)

Your health care provider is likely the best one to answer that question.

c)

If the baby is HIV-positive, we can’t do anything until after the birth, so try not to worry.

d)

Your baby could contract HIV before, during, or after delivery.

99.

On admission to a medical unit, a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) tests positive for benzodiazepine. The client denies using this medication. Which medication is likely causing a false-positive result?

a)

Efavirenz

b)

Doravirine

c)

Nevirapine

d)

Etravirine

100.

A client is in the primary infection stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which statement regarding this client's current health status is most accurate?

a)

The client's HIV antibodies are successfully, but temporarily, killing the virus

b)

The client is infected with HIV but lacks HIV-specific antibodies.

c)

The client's risk for opportunistic infections is at its peak.

d)

The client may or may not develop long-standing HIV infection.

101.

A client's primary infection with HIV has subsided and an equilibrium now exists between HIV levels and the client's immune response. This is known as what physiologic state?

a)

Static stage

b)

Latent stage

c)

Viral set point

d)

Window period

102.

A client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency disease informs the nurse that the client has been experiencing a new onset of a dry cough and occasional shortness of breath. After determining that the client's vital signs are within reference ranges, what action should the nurse take?

a)

Administer a nebulized bronchodilator.

b)

Perform oral suctioning.

c)

Assess the client for signs and symptoms of infection.

d)

Teach the client deep breathing and coughing exercises.