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Project Management Quiz

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A project manager oversees a project with predefined deliverables that are unlikely to change during the project's course. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Predictive

b)

Agile

c)

Iterative

d)

Incremental

2.

A project manager is assigned to oversee the development of a new web-based application for a client. The client wants to review and provide feedback at each milestone throughout the project, and the manager anticipates a low degree of change to the project scope. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Agile

b)

Incremental

c)

Iterative

d)

Predictive

3.

A project manager uses an iterative lifecycle approach for a software development project requiring significant experimentation and refinement in the design phase. The project team needs to incorporate feedback from users and stakeholders throughout the project. Which of the following defines why the iterative lifecycle is best for this project?

a)

Iterative lifecycles require few deliveries but a high degree of change.

b)

Iterative lifecycles require periodic deliveries.

c)

Iterative lifecycles require multiple deliveries and a high degree of change.

d)

Motivate the team.

4.

A project team is developing a mobile application for a client. The client gives the team a general idea of the application's functionality but is open to making changes based on user feedback throughout the project. Which of the following project lifecycles is most appropriate for this project?

a)

Incremental

b)

Iterative

c)

Agile

d)

Predictive

5.

The team is classifying various project management models as either adaptive or predictive. Which of the following models would most closely meet the definition of adaptive?

a)

Waterfall

b)

Critical chain

c)

Kanban

d)

Critical path

6.

Ralph Stacey developed a method to objectively determine the type of lifecycle to apply to a project. Which of the following two answers are parameters Stacey recommends in making this decision?

a)

Personnel capacity

b)

Risk exposure

c)

Technical degree of uncertainty

d)

Requirements uncertainty

7.

A project sponsor wants to establish an agile methodology to manage certain projects. Which of the following two key roles are essential to the success of this initiative?

a)

Program manager

b)

Product owner

c)

Scrum master

d)

Project manager

8.

A customer requests frequent deliveries during an inventory management upgrade project. Likely, the degree of change impacting the project is low. Which of the following is the best lifecycle choice for this scenario?

a)

Predictive

b)

Agile

c)

Iterative

d)

Incremental

9.

Another project's customer requests a high degree of deliveries. However, the team anticipates the degree of change to be high as well. Which of the following is the best lifecycle choice for this scenario?

a)

Predictive

b)

Agile

c)

Incremental

d)

Iterative

10.

A project manager is overseeing a project and decides to use a Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control Model. Which of the following types of project is manager overseeing?

a)

Agile

b)

Six Sigma

c)

Waterfall

d)

Lean

11.

The project management team is reviewing a variety of organizational types. Which two of the following ways will the project manager be impacted depending on the organization type the team selects?

a)

Resource availability

b)

Contingency reserves

c)

Risk appetite

d)

Project manager's authority

12.

A project manager works in an organization sometimes known as a "silo." In this model, support is minimal and the manager may not be assigned as a project manager. Success in this model is difficult to achieve. Which model fits this scenario?

a)

Strong matrix

b)

Organic or functional

c)

Weak matrix

d)

Project oriented

13.

A project management office (PMO) has a low level of control but does provide best practices, common oversights, and templates. Which type of PMO is this?

a)

Controlling

b)

Directive

c)

Informational

d)

Supportive

14.

A key infrastructure project has failed twice to achieve the desired objectives. For the third attempt, the team modifies their approach to meet the needs of the project. What method did the team use in this scenario?

a)

Revising

b)

Updating

c)

Modifying

d)

Tailoring

15.

integrity, care, trustworthiness, and compliance. Which principle of project management do these statements represent?

a)

Be a diligent, respectful, and caring steward

b)

Create a collaborative project team environment

c)

Focus on value

d)

Effectively engage with stakeholders

16.

A project manager's ability to respond to changing conditions, along with the ability to absorb impacts and recover quickly, is critical. Which of the following concepts defines these two critical abilities?

a)

Resiliency and adaptability

b)

Perseverance and assertiveness

c)

Adaptability and perseverance

d)

Assertiveness and resiliency

17.

The need to identify key measures, metrics, and standards falls within which of the following Project Management Institute's (PMI) knowledge areas?

a)

Project scope management

b)

Project integration management

c)

Project quality management

d)

Project resource management

18.

A project manager wants to ensure that they understand all key project management principles. How many principles should the manager review?

a)

Five principles

b)

Eight principles

c)

Twelve principles

d)

Ten principles

19.

Which knowledge area requires a project manager to negotiate with organizational functional managers to gain support?

a)

Project procurement management

b)

Project stakeholder management

c)

Project scope management

d)

Project resource management

20.

A project team is implementing a new work-from-home policy. Many meetings will require virtual methods. What are the two key considerations that may impact the success of this new program?

a)

Technology availability

b)

Multiple locations

c)

Various time zones

d)

Employee disabilities

21.

A key principle in project management states that the ability to absorb impacts and recover quickly is essential. What does the Project Management Institute (PMI) call this ability?

a)

Flexibility

b)

Resiliency

c)

Adaptability

d)

Strength

22.

A team is trying to understand how all process groups work together. They also need to develop and implement an integrated change control process. Which knowledge area are they analyzing?

a)

Project scope management

b)

Project initiation management

c)

Project integration management

d)

Project planning management

23.

There are a number of meetings that are critical to success when managing an adaptive project. Which two meetings are appropriate for an adaptive project?

a)

Kick-off meetings to gain stakeholder acceptance

b)

Product backlog refinement

c)

Daily standup meeting

d)

Pre-baseline and baseline presentations

24.

One of the 12 Principles of Project Management describes each project as unique, recommends that the project manager avoid a 'Cookie Cutter' approach, and directs managers to adapt their approach to meet the project's needs. Which principle does this describe?

a)

Recognize, evaluate, and respond to system interactions

b)

Navigate complexity

c)

Optimize risk responses

d)

Tailor based on context

25.

Management assumes all employees work for the sole purpose of income. Managers should influence these team members using a hands-on and top-down management approach. Which of the following management type does this describe?

a)

Theory D

b)

Theory X

c)

Theory Y

d)

Theory Z

26.

Which of the following quality tools provides the horizontal value chain for a process from start to end and is commonly used by Six Sigma for process development and improvement?

a)

Mind mapping

b)

Logical data model

c)

Design for X

d)

SIPOC

27.

The team uses a graphical representation of numerical data over a standard distribution. They determine the mean and analyze how data changes as you move away from the mean on the bell curve. Which tool and technique is the team using?

a)

Histogram

b)

Design for X

c)

Affinity chart

d)

Scatter diagram

28.

William Bridges developed a three-step transition model that defines stages of change. Which of the following is the final stage in this three-step transition model?

a)

The Neutral Zone

b)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

c)

The New Beginning

d)

Unfreezing

29.

A project manager develops a business case to modify an existing product to add functionality that a critical customer requests. The sponsor approves the business case and wants to move on to the project's next phase. Which document does the project manager need to create next?

a)

Stakeholder engagement plan

b)

Project brief

c)

Statement of work

d)

Project charter

30.

What are two benefits the project manager will realize once a sponsor approves the project charter?

a)

Budget approval

b)

Access to resources

c)

Authority

d)

Final scope description

31.

Which of the following is a manager-created document meant for stakeholders who do not require in-depth project detail?

a)

Stakeholder register

b)

Project brief

c)

Project charter

d)

Business case

32.

A project manager is developing a business case to support the automation of a core organizational process. They are following the Project Management Institute (PMI) model. Which of the following elements are not included in a business case?

a)

Business strategy

b)

Project sponsor

c)

Business need

d)

Project justification

33.

The PMI recommends that the value propositions in a project charter address four key areas. These areas include financial, process, employee, and customer benefits. Which model does this four-benefit approach replicate?

a)

Benefits Quadrant Model

b)

Benefits Management Model

c)

Value Analysis Model

d)

Balanced Scorecard Model

34.

A project manager presents a project charter to a sponsor. The sponsor approves the project charter for planning. Which key milestone is met in this scenario?

a)

Baseline

b)

Interim approval

c)

Pre-baseline

d)

Preliminary scope

35.

A project manager defines the roles and responsibilities of the team in a stakeholder register. Which code should the manager use for a team member, who is a subject matter expert (SME), and is responsible for task completion?

a)

RC

b)

RA

c)

CI

d)

AC

36.

Which two statements about a stakeholder register are true?

a)

Stakeholders may have multiple RACI designators.

b)

The project manager develops the stakeholder register with the project charter.

c)

The project manager completes the stakeholder register before the start of a project.

d)

The project manager should define role definitions on the stakeholder register.

37.

A project manager is taking a team vote to decide on the following scenario. There are four groups of stakeholders in the project. Marketing accounts for approximately 40% of the total stakeholder population. As a result, the marketing group will have the final say in the decision-making process. Which of the following describes this process?

a)

Majority

b)

Autocratic

c)

Unanimity

d)

Plurality

38.

A facilitator leads a brainstorming session to generate potential solutions. After the team identifies all possible solutions, the stakeholders must prioritize each for feasibility. The best option is generally regarded as the one that scores the highest. Which decision-making method does this scenario describe?

a)

Wideband Delphi

b)

Multi-criteria decision analysis

c)

Voting

d)

Nominal group technique

39.

Which decision-making method does the project manager facilitate when the decision needs to be confidential, and participants are hesitant to share their opinions in an open forum, or when the team is widely dispersed?

a)

Voting

b)

Multi-criteria decision analysis

c)

Nominal group technique

d)

Wideband Delphi

40.

A project stakeholder has several reservations about a project but also sees potential. In terms of project support, the project stakeholder is still unsure. How would you classify the current level of commitment of the stakeholder?

a)

U

b)

N

c)

L

d)

R

41.

A project team finalizes a close-hold plan that defines the stakeholders' existing and desired levels of commitment. The team develops strategies to manage these stakeholders. Which of the following plans did the team develop in this scenario?

a)

Stakeholder engagement plan (SEP)

b)

Stakeholder register

c)

Project brief

d)

Project charter

42.

A project manager met with a chief financial officer (CFO). The project under consideration is a new product that provides a revenue stream for approximately four years. The CFO asks for a financial analysis that considers the time value of money. Which financial information should the project manager provide?

a)

ROI

b)

NPV

c)

IRR

d)

ROIC

43.

This financial analysis results in a subjective or objective measure of returns. Company shareholders determine if the project provides greater returns to the shareholders than its costs. Which two of the following financial analyses does this describe?

a)

ROIC

b)

ROI

c)

BCR

d)

EVA

44.

Which of the following describes the estimation technique that involves comparing the current project to similar past projects to estimate the costs?

a)

Parametric

b)

Analogous

c)

Budget estimate

d)

Bottom-up

45.

A critical stakeholder's responsibilities to support a project include ensuring that the project team produces the deliverables and meets the timeline. Which of the following roles should the project manager annotate on the stakeholder register for the stakeholder in this scenario?

a)

I

b)

C

c)

R

d)

A

46.

The project manager has completed the project charter, and the team has just finished a brainstorming session to identify key stakeholders critical to the project's success. Where should the project manager document these stakeholders?

a)

Stakeholder register

b)

Stakeholder dictionary

c)

Stakeholder matrix

d)

Stakeholder log

47.

Which of the following is a weighted method of decision-making in which two or more options are compared and scored?

a)

Wideband Delphi

b)

Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

c)

Nominal Group Technique

d)

OARP

48.

A project team employs a voting method where more than 50% of the voting members determine the decision path. Which of the following criterion describes this scenario?

a)

Unanimity

b)

Plurality

c)

Majority

d)

Unilateral

49.

Review the illustration. Which of the following is the name of this tool?

a)

Strategy development table

b)

UNRSL analysis tool

c)

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

d)

Commitment level matrix

50.

There are two projects. Project A has a value of $60,000. Project B has a value of $40,000. You can select only one project, and you decide on Project B. By selecting Project B, you 'give up' the chance to gain the value of Project A. Which of the following concepts addresses project trade-offs like the one in this scenario?

a)

Time value of money

b)

Straight line

c)

Depreciation

d)

Opportunity cost

51.

A project manager discovers that cash flow may be increased by applying tax benefits gained from asset depreciation. The project manager purchased a capital asset valued at $20,000 with a depreciable lifecycle of 4 years. How much can the manager claim each year using the straight-line depreciation method?

a)

$10,000

b)

$20,000

c)

$5,000

d)

$7,500

52.

A project has benefits of $100,000. The costs are $50,000. Which is the benefit-cost ratio (BCR) for this scenario?

a)

2.0

b)

$50,000

c)

0.5

d)

100%

53.

Which of the following estimation techniques uses regression analysis and learning curve techniques to multiply the quantity of work performed times the productivity rate?

a)

Expert

b)

Bottom-up

c)

Top-down

d)

Parametric

54.

The project manager normally provides the rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate in the project charter. What is the range for a ROM estimate?

a)

-25%/+75%

b)

-25%/+25%

c)

-10%/+10%

d)

-5%/+10%

55.

The scope baseline includes which two of the following documents?

a)

Scope management plan

b)

Network diagram

c)

WBS dictionary

d)

Scope statement

56.

A project work package has an optimistic estimated completion time of nine days. The team calculates the most likely duration to be twelve days for completion time. There is a chance of a pessimistic outcome of eighteen days. Using the three-point averaging method, which is the best duration estimate for this project?

a)

Thirty-nine days

b)

Thirteen days

c)

Twelve days

d)

Thirteen and a half days

57.

What is the critical path in the network diagram below?

a)

BCDF

b)

ACDF

c)

ACDE

d)

BCDE

58.

A project manager completes the pre-baseline presentation, and the project sponsor approves the project charter. Which area should the team begin planning first?

a)

Project quality management

b)

Project scope management

c)

Project schedule management

d)

Project cost management

59.

Which two of the following are process-oriented plans that share methods and general planning guidance?

a)

Scope statement

b)

Cost management plan

c)

Requirements management plan

d)

Network diagram

60.

A project manager oversees a project that will remodel a critical portion of its manufacturing facility. The project manager is informed that several permits will be required before construction begins. What type of dependency is the team encountering in this scenario?

a)

Discretionary dependency

b)

Internal dependency

c)

Mandatory dependency

d)

External dependency

61.

A project manager reviews a document produced by a business analyst that describes the product vision, how the product supports organizational objectives, product features, timelines, and recommended project lifecycles. This document will guide project initiation and planning. Which of the following documents matches this description?

a)

Project charter

b)

Scope statement

c)

Product roadmap

d)

Traceability matrix

62.

A project manager wants to ensure the project's deliverables conform to the customer's requirements and are fit for use. Which of the following support plans should the project manager use?

a)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

b)

Quality Management Plan

c)

Risk Management Plan

d)

Resource Breakdown Structure

63.

A project team member wants to see the project's material and equipment requirements. Which of the following support plans will show the team member a visual representation of the project's needs broken down into small components?

a)

Resource Breakdown Structure

b)

Communications Management Plan

c)

Procurement Management Plan

d)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

64.

Which support plan does the project manager develop during support planning that must receive approval from the sponsor? This plan ensures the right information is shared with all stakeholders in a timely manner.

a)

Quality Management Plan

b)

Resource Breakdown Structure

c)

Communications Management Plan

d)

Risk Management Plan

65.

A project manager must develop a support plan to identify, evaluate, and manage positive and negative events that may impact a project. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop?

a)

Communications Management Plan

b)

Risk Management Plan

c)

Resource Breakdown Structure

d)

Procurement Management Plan

66.

The project customer has asked the project manager to ensure that the organization can acquire the project deliverables from external sources they need in a timely and cost-effective manner. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop to identify and procure the products and services the project requires to reach completion?

a)

Risk Management Plan

b)

Resource Breakdown Structure

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Procurement Management Plan

67.

The project team needs to assess the project stakeholder's current levels of commitment to develop strategies to raise the stakeholder's level of commitment even higher. Which of the following support plans should the project manager develop to identify and evaluate the stakeholder's commitment levels and develop strategies to gain commitment?

a)

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

b)

Risk Management Plan

c)

Procurement Management Plan

d)

Communications Management Plan

68.

A project manager requires contractor support. The project team does not have the technical expertise needed to build a deliverable internally. The manager sends out a Statement of Work describing the functionality required. The manager realizes that this contract will likely place risk on the buyer. What type of contract will the project manager initiate once a seller is selected?

a)

Statement of Work (SOW)

b)

Time and material

c)

Fixed price

d)

Cost reimbursement

69.

The sponsor approves the project charter, and the project manager publishes the stakeholder register. Which planning process should the team address first?

a)

Scope

b)

Schedule

c)

Cost

d)

Quality

70.

The project team is planning the scope and are working on a document that shows the detail and attributes of each work package supporting the project. These attributes are broken into specific tasks. Which document is under development in this scenario?

a)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

b)

Scope statement

c)

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

d)

Project charter

71.

Which two of the following components are part of the overall scope baseline?

a)

Requirements management plan

b)

Scope management plan

c)

Scope statement

d)

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

72.

The project management team develops a comprehensive network diagram to support the project. Which two of the following choices would be featured on a network diagram in this scenario?

a)

Critical path

b)

Task descriptions

c)

Resource costs

d)

Work package durations

73.

A project team analyzes all costs and determines a few indirect costs. Which item would fall under this category?

a)

Contingency reserves

b)

Company-funded training

c)

Material purchases

d)

Equipment acquisitions

74.

A project manager estimates project cost with an optimistic cost of $22,000, a most-likely cost of $28,000, and a pessimistic cost of $40,000. Applying the PERT method of three-point estimation, which cost estimate should the project manager use?

a)

$40,000

b)

$29,000

c)

$28,000

d)

$30,000

75.

Plans and timing to support deliverable inspections and verify newly produced deliverables are included in which plan?

a)

Quality management plan

b)

Quality control plan

c)

Quality assurance plan

d)

Project measurement plan

76.

What is the CV for the following scenario? EV = $3,000 PV = $2,800 AC = $2,700

a)

+$300

b)

+$200

c)

-$300

d)

-$200

77.

What is the SPI for the following scenario? EV = $3,000 PV = $2,800 AC = $2,700

a)

1.04

b)

0.96

c)

1.11

d)

1.07

78.

Using the following choices, fill in the two blanks in the statement. A manager schedules the project kick-off meeting after _______ approval of the project management plan. The meeting strives to gain ________ acceptance.

a)

sponsor, project team

b)

sponsor, stakeholder

c)

stakeholder, sponsor

d)

project team, sponsor

79.

Many project managers worry about managing the triple constraints. The Project Management Institute (PMI) refers to this as the project manager's triangle. Which of the following two constraints apply to this description?

a)

Cost

b)

Risk

c)

Scope

d)

Communications

80.

The project management framework is divided into five distinct phases: initiate, plan, execute, monitor, control, and close. How does the PMI refer to these phases?

a)

Project phase gates

b)

Project steps

c)

Project lifecycles

d)

Project process groups

81.

The project management framework developed by the PMI lists forty-nine specific processes. Where do the majority of these processes fall within the framework?

a)

Monitor and Control

b)

Execute

c)

Plan

d)

Initiate

82.

The ABC Company recently implemented a Project Management Office (PMO). The initial plan is for this PMO to provide information, standard templates, and guidance to the firm's project managers. What type of PMO does this scenario describe?

a)

Informational

b)

Controlling

c)

Supportive

d)

Directive

83.

The PMI breaks project management lifecycles into adaptive and predictive categories. Which two project management models fall under the predictive category?

a)

Scrum

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Six Sigma

84.

A team plans to implement an agile model to support certain projects in an organization. Where will the team maintain and document all requirements?

a)

In the product backlog

b)

In the scope management plan

c)

In the scope statement

d)

In the scope backlog

85.

Ralph Stacey developed an analysis matrix to determine the optimal lifecycle to choose to implement a project. What are the two criteria Stacey recommends to make this decision?

a)

Scheduling volatility

b)

Technical degree of uncertainty

c)

Overall risk exposure and score

d)

Requirements uncertainty

86.

A project sponsor reviewed a list of key roles supporting an agile project. He notices that the list includes more than one role. What role is not included on the agile supporting role list?

a)

Scrum master

b)

Project manager

c)

Development team

d)

Product owner

87.

Which two of the following options are formal phases in the PMI project management lifecycle?

a)

Execute

b)

Initiate

c)

Implement

d)

Manage

88.

The PMI stresses the impact that organization models can have on a project and the team. They define three distinct matrix models. In one of the models, the project manager enjoys power more than the functional manager, can make decisions on the allocation of resources, has a great deal of control, and can utilize their project management skills on the projects. Which matrix model does this describe?

a)

Standard Matrix Model

b)

Weak Matrix Model

c)

Balanced Matrix Model

d)

Strong Matrix Model

89.

A team is performing a cost of quality study and analyzing costs of non-compliance against costs of compliance. Which two costs are non-compliance?

a)

Warranty claims costs

b)

Training costs

c)

Reworks costs

d)

Verification costs

90.

A product owner is analyzing the transition model for change due to changes happening on the project. Some people's productivity is dropping due to frustration or confusion. Others seem to be motivated, creative, and passionate. What stage of the transition model is the team in?

a)

Transition

b)

The Neutral Zone

c)

Ending, Losing, and Letting Go

d)

The New Beginning

91.

Current ABC Company management assumes employees are motivated from within. They use a more personal coaching style to influence the team. What is this management style?

a)

Theory Z

b)

Theory X

c)

Theory Y

d)

Theory W

92.

When managing the virtual team, which skill is most critical to success?

a)

Motivation

b)

Influencing

c)

Coaching

d)

Communications