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Cisco Module 2: Clients and Servers in Computer Networks

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes the request–response model in computer networks?

a)

Servers only send updates without receiving input

b)

Servers ask for data while clients store it

c)

Clients and servers both broadcast data constantly

d)

Clients ask for services while servers provide them

2.

Which item is a client device rather than a server?

a)

Smartphone used to browse websites

b)

Rack-mounted machine with ECC RAM

c)

Storage array serving many users

d)

Network appliance with redundant power

3.

Which example is client software?

a)

Authentication directory domain controller

b)

Database management back-end service

c)

Web browser such as Chrome or Edge

d)

Mail transfer daemon running headless

4.

What is a primary responsibility of a client in a networked app?

a)

Sending requests and showing results

b)

Enforcing organization-wide permissions

c)

Handling thousands of users concurrently

d)

Hosting massive databases reliably

5.

Clients compared to servers are typically

a)

Optimized for high concurrent load

b)

Less powerful with limited storage

c)

More redundant with dual power

d)

Equipped for nonstop 24/7 duty

6.

Which characteristic makes a server different from a typical client machine?

a)

Lightweight graphics acceleration

b)

High-performance CPUs and large RAM

c)

Touchscreen interface for users

d)

Battery optimized sleep features

7.

Which type of server delivers websites over HTTP or HTTPS?

a)

Web server

b)

File server

c)

Email server

d)

Game server

8.

Which server type primarily handles shared documents on a LAN?

a)

File server

b)

Web server

c)

Email server

d)

Authentication server

9.

Which responsibility is typical for servers during communication?

a)

Issuing controller vibration feedback

b)

Displaying interface widgets on screen

c)

Taking user keyboard and mouse input

d)

Listening for and processing requests

10.

A multiplayer title needs real-time session management for many users. Which server best fits?

a)

Email server

b)

Game server

c)

File server

d)

Authentication server

11.

Place the first action in the communication sequence when a user loads a webpage.

a)

Switch assigns permissions to the server

b)

Server pushes data without any request

c)

Client connects and sends an HTTP request

d)

Client writes to a shared database table

12.

Which statement about server responsibilities is most accurate?

a)

Servers enforce security and send accurate responses

b)

Servers mainly capture clicks and render screens

c)

Servers depend on clients to process requests

d)

Servers store very little and avoid redundancy

13.

Which step happens immediately after a client sends a request in a typical client–server communication sequence?

a)

Client checks local permissions and caches

b)

Client displays the result to the user

c)

Server sends a response back to the client

d)

Server receives the request from the network

14.

Which protocol is responsible for translating a domain name to a server’s IP address?

a)

HTTP handles web page delivery

b)

DNS maps names to IP addresses

c)

SMTP manages outgoing emails

d)

TCP ensures packet order and integrity

15.

In the list of everyday actions, which best illustrates the client–server model in practice?

a)

Connecting two laptops via Bluetooth

b)

Streaming a video from a platform

c)

Copying files over a USB cable

d)

Syncing notes between two phones directly

16.

Which statement best distinguishes Client–Server from Peer-to-Peer (P2P) architecture?

a)

Client–Server uses a central server; P2P is decentralized

b)

Both rely on a single central server by design

c)

P2P is centralized while Client–Server is distributed

d)

Neither architecture involves direct device communication

17.

A school wants easier network management and centralized security policies. Which model should it prefer?

a)

Hybrid with no authentication ever

b)

Ad-hoc mesh with random routing

c)

Peer-to-Peer with direct device links

d)

Client–Server with a managed central server

18.

Which protocol pair correctly matches the common use described?

a)

FTP/FTPS — secure email retrieval

b)

DNS/TCP — mapping webpages to HTML

c)

SMTP/IMAP — sending and receiving email

d)

HTTP/HTTPS — file system backups

19.

During web browsing, which ordered pair of protocols most directly handles naming and reliable delivery?

a)

DNS then TCP/IP for delivery

b)

IMAP then SMTP for routing

c)

TCP/IP then DNS for reliability

d)

FTP then HTTP for naming

20.

Which scenario exemplifies P2P networking as described?

a)

Two gamers connect directly without central servers

b)

An email client retrieves messages from a mail server

c)

A browser requests a page from a hosted website

d)

Students upload homework to the school portal

21.

Which statement best defines a host in a network?

a)

Only machines that store large databases

b)

Only systems that provide user interfaces

c)

Any computer that participates in communication

d)

Any device that forwards packets only

22.

What is the one-sentence takeaway about clients and servers?

a)

Clients provide services while servers request them

b)

Clients ask for services while servers provide them

c)

Servers start conversations while clients wait silently

d)

Servers and clients both control access equally

23.

Which client action is typical during normal operation?

a)

Running headless without a user interface

b)

Initiating requests and sending user input

c)

Processing other users’ permissions centrally

d)

Listening for incoming requests continuously

24.

Which task is the server primarily responsible for?

a)

Displaying results directly to a local user

b)

Serving many clients at the same time

c)

Submitting assignments to another computer

d)

Handling basic on-device errors for the user

25.

Which activity is NOT a client responsibility?

a)

Displaying results to the user

b)

Receiving responses from servers

c)

Storing large persistent databases

d)

Initiating a web request click

26.

Which activity is NOT a server responsibility?

a)

Storing files and databases

b)

Enforcing security and permissions

c)

Relying on a constant user interface

d)

Processing data and business logic

27.

Which example best represents a client role?

a)

File server storing student documents

b)

Game server tracking scores persistently

c)

Authentication server handling login tokens

d)

Phone app sending a data request

28.

Which example best represents a server role?

a)

Game client sending player actions

b)

Web server delivering content pages

c)

Student laptop submitting homework

d)

Browser composing a search query

29.

How do the roles interact during a typical exchange?

a)

Clients control shared resources directly

b)

Clients initiate while servers respond

c)

Servers initiate contact with random users

d)

Servers consume resources from clients

30.

What determines whether a computer is acting as a client or server at any moment?

a)

Its hardware model and brand name

b)

Its current behavior and activities

c)

Its physical location in a rack

d)

Its IP address class and subnet

31.

Which statement corrects a common misconception?

a)

The internet is a single massive computer

b)

Your computer stores the entire website locally

c)

Wi‑Fi is the same thing as the internet

d)

Large services rely on many coordinated servers

32.

Why do large services rarely crash completely from one failure?

a)

Clients retry requests indefinitely by default

b)

Servers stop listening when overloaded

c)

Home routers transparently duplicate traffic

d)

Load balancing and failover add resilience

33.

A laptop browsing the web and later hosting a file share illustrates what principle?

a)

Clients never become servers

b)

One device can play dual roles

c)

Roles rotate on a scheduled timer

d)

Roles are fixed by device purchase

34.

According to the role comparison, which pairing is accurate?

a)

Client handles many users; server is user-facing

b)

Client provides services; server requests

c)

Client listens constantly; server initiates

d)

Client requests services; server provides

35.

Which behavior aligns with servers staying available?

a)

Starts communication without any request

b)

Runs continuously to await clients

c)

Shuts down when inactive overnight

d)

Opens interfaces only when a user logs in

36.

Which statement best defines a peer-to-peer (P2P) network?

a)

All devices are equals without central server

b)

Clients request from a managed central server

c)

A router distributes data to thin clients

d)

A cloud provider allocates virtual servers

37.

In a pure P2P network, each device primarily acts as what?

a)

Both client and server simultaneously

b)

Only a requesting client node

c)

A passive repeater device

d)

Only a centralized server node

38.

Which feature directly contributes to P2P scalability?

a)

Growth requires adding dedicated servers

b)

Bandwidth fixed by central controller

c)

Throughput limited by one master node

d)

Capacity increases as more peers join

39.

What is a common example of a P2P technology students might recognize?

a)

Traditional web hosting cluster

b)

Enterprise directory services

c)

Single mainframe time-sharing

d)

BitTorrent file distribution protocol

40.

Which consequence follows when one peer leaves a healthy P2P network?

a)

All peers must reconnect to router

b)

Entire service becomes unavailable

c)

Network usually keeps working overall

d)

Data routing stops for every client

41.

Which disadvantage makes schools avoid pure P2P deployments?

a)

Harder to monitor and control access

b)

Requires expensive central servers

c)

Consumes excessive static IP blocks

d)

Incompatible with Ethernet switches

42.

Compared to client–server, which pairing is correct?

a)

Security unrelated to architecture choice

b)

P2P stronger security; client–server weaker

c)

P2P weaker security; client–server stronger

d)

Both models equal security by default

43.

Which statement addresses a key misconception about P2P?

a)

P2P requires anonymous dark networks

b)

P2P always violates copyright laws

c)

P2P is a design, not inherently illegal

d)

P2P forbids any client–server mixing

44.

In hybrid P2P systems, what role does the index server play?

a)

Encrypts all files for each peer

b)

Stores locations pointing to resources

c)

Transfers every resource to clients

d)

Authenticates users for a domain

45.

Which description fits a P2P application on an end device?

a)

Only forwards packets like a switch

b)

Runs only a foreground client process

c)

Requires separate hardware appliance

d)

Provides user interface and background service

46.

Why do P2P networks avoid a single point of failure?

a)

Workload and data spread across peers

b)

Traffic forced through one controller

c)

Redundant hardware in one data center

d)

Every request handled by central host

47.

Which situation best illustrates multiple roles on one computer?

a)

Relies on remote server for all tasks

b)

Contains only one client application

c)

Acts solely as a thin terminal display

d)

Runs web, email, and file server together

48.

Which advantage aligns with sharing large files in P2P?

a)

Lower latency for small transactions

b)

Efficient distribution across many peers

c)

Guaranteed uniform service quality

d)

Centralized bandwidth management

49.

Which challenge specifically affects performance in P2P networks?

a)

Determined solely by router firmware

b)

Depends on participating peers' devices

c)

Limited by a single master database

d)

Bound only by backbone provider SLA

50.

Which statement best describes network infrastructure?

a)

The policy rules for organizational security

b)

A cloud service for hosting user accounts

c)

A software suite for encrypting application data

d)

The hardware enabling a stable communication channel

51.

Which three broad categories make up the physical components of a network?

a)

End devices, intermediary devices, media

b)

Users, services, permissions

c)

Hubs, cables, protocols

d)

Servers, clients, applications

52.

Which device is classified as an end device (host)?

a)

Multilayer enterprise switch

b)

IP phone used on a desk

c)

Perimeter firewall appliance

d)

Core network router

53.

What is the primary role of intermediary devices?

a)

Render webpages for client browsers

b)

Provide electrical power to endpoints

c)

Store user files for long durations

d)

Forward and control traffic between hosts

54.

Which example represents network media rather than a device?

a)

A wireless tablet used by a student

b)

A printer connected to a subnet

c)

A solid black line representing LAN cabling

d)

A firewall appliance in a rack

55.

Which symbol in diagrams commonly represents wireless media?

a)

Purple star indicating security events

b)

Orange triangle indicating compute nodes

c)

Green square indicating application logic

d)

Blue waves indicating radio transmission

56.

Which statement about end devices is accurate?

a)

They replace addressing with broadcasting

b)

They operate only at the physical layer

c)

They only relay traffic between networks

d)

They are the source or destination of messages

57.

Which item from the list is an intermediary device, not an end device?

a)

LAN switch used in a wiring closet

b)

Desktop computer on a workstation

c)

TelePresence endpoint in a lab

d)

Wireless tablet in a classroom

58.

Which best identifies messages sent without visible cabling in a home network?

a)

Encrypted solely by application software

b)

Transported only through optical fiber

c)

Stored on servers for later delivery

d)

Transmitted via radio or infrared waves

59.

A host needs to send data to another host. What information must it use to ensure delivery to the correct destination?

a)

The address of the destination host

b)

The hostname of the nearest switch

c)

The SSID of the wireless network

d)

The VLAN number of the router port

60.

Which end device is BEST for a remote farmer to access the internet when cellular coverage exists but wired service is unavailable?

a)

Network printer with Ethernet port

b)

Smartphone with hotspot sharing enabled

c)

Desktop PC without wireless adapter

d)

Telepresence endpoint for video rooms

61.

A technician must connect a small home network that only has a cable modem to the internet and provide Wi‑Fi to users. Which device should the technician bring?

a)

Desktop computer to act as server

b)

Dedicated firewall appliance only

c)

Wireless router with NAT and DHCP

d)

Standalone LAN switch with eight ports

62.

Which role does an Internet Service Provider (ISP) primarily serve for a home network?

a)

Controls all global web content

b)

Hosts every website on demand

c)

Manufactures user end devices

d)

Provides the link to the internet

63.

Which physical medium is the primary carrier for the internet backbone?

a)

Twisted‑pair telephone

b)

Microwave terrestrial hops

c)

Fiber‑optic cable links

d)

Coaxial television lines

64.

What is a common additional service ISPs offer to subscribers beyond internet access?

a)

Custom OS development

b)

Email and web hosting

c)

Home printer repairs

d)

CPU overclock tuning

65.

ISPs interconnect in a hierarchical manner mainly to achieve which networking goal?

a)

Exclusive national control

b)

Permanent peer isolation

c)

Guaranteed zero latency

d)

Shortest path routing globally

66.

Which statement best distinguishes a modem from a router in a home network?

a)

Modem filters malware; router hosts email

b)

Modem switches VLANs; router stores websites

c)

Modem assigns IPs; router modulates signals

d)

Modem converts signals; router forwards packets

67.

Which two items in the diagram would a mobile health worker most likely use to connect while traveling? (Assume portable access is needed.)

a)

Switch with wired media

b)

Tablet with wireless media

c)

Desktop with LAN media

d)

Router with WAN media

68.

Which ISP service is most directly related to placing customer servers in a provider’s facility?

a)

Voice over IP calling

b)

Application hosting pool

c)

POP Internet access

d)

Equipment co‑location service

69.

What does POP most likely refer to in the context of ISP services?

a)

Packet over Phone link

b)

Protocol of Providers

c)

Peer on Premises host

d)

Point of Presence location

70.

Why are submarine fiber‑optic cables critical for global connectivity?

a)

They connect continents undersea

b)

They power coastal routers

c)

They back up email servers

d)

They encrypt all web traffic

71.

Which home connection method typically requires a coaxial drop from a cable provider and a cable modem?

a)

Fixed wireless link

b)

Dial‑up analog service

c)

Fiber GPON service

d)

Cable broadband service

72.

A household wants multiple devices to share one ISP link securely with NAT and Wi‑Fi. Which device is needed in addition to the modem?

a)

A residential router

b)

A packet sniffer

c)

A media converter

d)

An unmanaged hub

73.

Which practice best improves security when using an ISP connection at home?

a)

Use default admin credentials

b)

Broadcast open guest network

c)

Enable WPA3 with strong passphrase

d)

Disable router firewall entirely

74.

Which device is needed to securely connect multiple home computers to an ISP while providing IP addressing and wireless access?

a)

A basic modem directly to ISP

b)

A standalone Ethernet hub

c)

An integrated wireless router

d)

A managed Layer 3 core

75.

What is a key reason a direct PC-to-ISP modem connection is discouraged for home users?

a)

It blocks streaming media entirely

b)

It prevents IP addressing by ISPs

c)

It leaves the computer unprotected online

d)

It requires fiber to the premises

76.

Cable internet typically carries data over which medium to the home?

a)

Twisted-pair telephone line

b)

Dedicated fiber from ISP

c)

Coaxial cable shared with TV

d)

Microwave point-to-point link

77.

DSL requires a special modem primarily to do what?

a)

Split data from voice signals

b)

Encrypt payloads end to end

c)

Convert fiber light to copper

d)

Provide Wi‑Fi to devices

78.

Which statement best contrasts cable and DSL last‑mile media?

a)

Cable uses fiber; DSL uses coax

b)

Cable uses coax; DSL uses phone

c)

Both use coaxial to premises

d)

Cable uses microwave; DSL fiber

79.

In typical ADSL, why might upload speeds be slower than download speeds?

a)

Upstream is metered by ISPs

b)

Line coding only supports half duplex

c)

Separate channels allocate less upstream

d)

Routers throttle uplink by default

80.

For DSL, what factor most affects achievable speed at a residence?

a)

Size of ISP backbone

b)

Number of television sets

c)

CPU speed of home router

d)

Distance from central office

81.

Which technology is most suitable where no wired service exists but you have mobile coverage?

a)

Cable via neighborhood coax

b)

DSL over copper pairs

c)

Dial‑up over analog line

d)

Cellular data connectivity

82.

A drawback of consumer cellular internet plans is commonly what?

a)

Mandatory static IPv6 only

b)

Requires rooftop satellite dish

c)

Bandwidth usage is metered

d)

Needs splitters on phone line

83.

Satellite internet typically requires which condition for a stable link?

a)

Dual‑band mesh inside home

b)

Copper pair loop continuity

c)

Clear line of sight to satellite

d)

Shared neighborhood coax tap

84.

Which connection type is described as always on and delivered by cable TV providers?

a)

Dial‑up telephone access

b)

ISDN Basic Rate Access

c)

Cable broadband service

d)

Leased private circuit

85.

Which home device combination best supports both wired and wireless clients on one ISP line?

a)

Hub with uplink to ISP cloud

b)

Modem plus integrated router

c)

PC and DSL modem only

d)

Switch chained to dial‑up modem

86.

Why can DSL users talk on the phone while browsing the web?

a)

The ISP routes voice separately

b)

Wi‑Fi carries voice instead

c)

DSL uses split channels for voice

d)

Cable TV handles voice traffic

87.

Which option best explains why dial‑up is limited compared to modern broadband?

a)

Analog modems use narrow voice band

b)

Backbone switches restrict traffic

c)

Hubs reduce full‑duplex speeds

d)

Wi‑Fi interference is too high

88.

A teleworker needs reliable access for multiple devices with security features. Which setup fits?

a)

Open hub to ISP without NAT

b)

Single PC connected to ISP modem

c)

Cellular phone tether only forever

d)

Modem with integrated router and AP