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SDM Quizz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What was the primary outcome of the UN Sustainable Development Summit 2015?

a)

Adoption of the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)

b)

Adoption of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development

c)

Establishment of the United Nations Environmental Council

d)

Launch of the Paris Climate Agreement

2.

How many Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were introduced in the 2030 Agenda?

a)

8

b)

12

c)

17

d)

22

3.

The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were designed to replace which previous global framework?

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)

c)

Universal Declaration of Human Rights

d)

Rio+20 Conference Resolutions

4.

The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development focuses on five key areas known as the "5 Ps." Which of the following is not one of them?

a)

People

b)

Planet

c)

Profit

d)

Peace

e)

Prosperity

5.

How many specific targets and indicators accompany the 17 SDGs?

a)

169

b)

168

c)

167

d)

166

6.

Which of the following is a new focus of the SDGs that was not explicitly covered in the MDGs?

a)

Poverty eradication

b)

Gender equality

c)

Climate action

d)

Access to education

7.

The SDGs are intended to be:

a)

Applicable only to developing countries

b)

Enforced through legal obligations

c)

Universally applicable to all countries

d)


Focused only on economic growth

8.

What is the main purpose of the SDGs according to the 2030 Agenda?

a)

To provide a framework for shared action across social, economic, and environmental dimensions

b)

To promote economic growth at the cost of the environment

c)

To focus only on eradicating poverty in the least developed countries

d)

To replace national policies with a single global policy

9.

One key difference between the MDGs and the SDGs is that

a)

The SDGs apply only to developing countries

b)

The SDGs incorporate environmental sustainability as a core pillar

c)

The MDGs had more goals than the SDGs

d)

The SDGs focus only on poverty eradication

10.

What is a major challenge in implementing the SDGs effectively?

a)
  1. Governments may focus only on goals aligned with their existing agenda

b)
  1. The SDGs do not cover all aspects of sustainability

c)
  1. The SDGs lack global support

d)
  1. The SDGs focus only on environmental issues

11.

How do the SDGs differ from the MDGs in terms of scope?

a)
  1. The SDGs have fewer goals than the MDGs

b)
  1. The SDGs apply only to developing countries

c)
  1. The SDGs focus only on environmental issues

d)
  1. The SDGs are more comprehensive, covering peace, stability, and governance

12.

Which of the following is a major shift in the SDGs compared to the MDGs?

a)
  1. The SDGs focus on achieving "zero" goals instead of "halfway" targets

b)
  1. The SDGs focus only on poverty eradication

c)
  1. The SDGs reduce the number of development goals

d)
  1. The SDGs eliminate the need for financial aid

13.

How did the SDGs improve upon the MDGs in terms of data collection?

a)
  1. The SDGs removed the need for data reporting

b)
  1. The SDGs rely solely on self-reporting by governments

c)
  1. The SDGs reduced the number of indicators to track progress

d)
  1. The SDGs introduced a strong emphasis on data disaggregation and monitoring

14.

What is the primary goal of the Paris Agreement?

a)
  1. To eliminate all greenhouse gas emissions by 2050

b)
  1. To limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C and strive for 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels

c)
  1. To impose carbon taxes on all industrialized nations

d)
  1. To create a global carbon trading system

15.

When was the Paris Agreement adopted?

a)

2012

b)

2013

c)

2014

d)

2015

16.

How many countries have endorsed the Paris Agreement?

a)

197

b)

196

c)

195

d)

194

17.

What is the mechanism by which countries submit their emission reduction plans?

a)

Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs)

b)

Greenhouse Gas Reduction Mandates (GGRMs)

c)

Carbon Neutrality Plans (CNPs)

d)

Sustainable Development Targets (SDTs)

18.

What financial commitment was made under the Paris Agreement to support developing countries?

a)
  1. $50 billion annually

b)
  1. $100 billion annually from 2020 to 2025

c)
  1. $500 billion over a decade

d)
  1. No specific financial commitments were made

19.

Which of the following is NOT a legally binding requirement of the Paris Agreement?

a)
  1. Countries must set and update their climate targets

b)
  1. Developed countries must provide financial support to developing nations

c)
  1. Every country must reduce emissions by the same percentage

d)
  1. Countries must report their progress transparently

20.

According to the Paris Agreement, by what year must greenhouse gas emissions peak to limit warming to 1.5°C?

a)

2025

b)

2030

c)

2045

d)

2050

21.

What are Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)?

a)

Actions countries pledge to take to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to climate change

b)

Financial contributions made by developed countries to developing nations

c)

A set of penalties for countries failing to meet climate targets

d)

Agreements between corporations to limit carbon footprints

22.

What are the three dimensions of the Triple Bottom Line (TBL) of sustainability?

a)

Environmental, and Technological

b)

Economic, Social, and Technological

c)

Social, Political, and Environmental
Political,

d)

Economic, Social, and Environmental

23.

What is the primary focus of the food-water-energy nexus?

a)

To increase agricultural output through genetic modification

b)

To replace fossil fuels with renewable energy sources

c)

To understand the interconnected nature of food, water, and energy systems

d)

To study the effects of population growth on food security

24.

How does sustainability drive innovation in businesses?

a)

By encouraging new product designs and efficient processes

b)

y reducing technological advancements

c)

By discouraging research and development

d)

By maintaining traditional production methods without change

25.

ESG factors help stakeholders evaluate a company's impact on which of the following?

a)

Environmental, social, and corporate governance structure

b)

Economic, technological, and sustainability issues

c)

Social, ethical, and technological advancements

d)

Environmental, financial, and legal aspects

26.

What is the Social Pillar of ESG primarily concerned with?

a)

Corporate leadership structures

b)

Supply chain labor standards and community impact

c)

Water and energy usage

d)

Shareholder voting rights

27.

Which of the following falls under the Governance Pillar of ESG?

a)

Renewable energy investments

b)

Carbon footprint reduction

c)

Board diversity and anti-corruption policies

d)

Fair labor wages

28.

What are the two most commonly used ESG reporting frameworks?

a)

World Trade Organization (WTO) and World Health Organization (WHO)

b)

Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) and Sustainable Accounting Standards Board (SASB)

c)

United Nations Development Goals (UNDG) and International Monetary Fund (IMF)

d)

European Central Bank (ECB) and Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

29.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of sustainability criteria in the context of sustainable products and production?

a)

To impose regulatory restrictions on international trade

b)

To limit government intervention in sustainability certification

c)

o increase production efficiency without regard for environmental impact

d)

To ensure long-term sustainability by assessing economic, environmental, and social dimensions

30.

which of the following is NOT a recommended characteristic of a well-functioning sustainability indicator?

a)

It should be accurately reflective of the process or function it represents

b)

It should be feasible to measure in terms of time, cost, and skills

c)

It should be understandable and relevant for end users

d)

It should be complex and require high technical expertise for interpretation

31.

How do core and supplementary indicators differ in the context of sustainability assessment?

a)

Core indicators are mandatory for all companies, whereas supplementary indicators are optional and industry-specific

b)

Supplementary indicators replace core indicators when sustainability goals change

c)

Core indicators focus solely on economic aspects, while supplementary indicators cover social and environmental dimensions

d)

Core indicators are more detailed than supplementary indicators in sustainability evaluations

32.

Which sustainability metric measures the total area of productive land and water ecosystems required to sustain a given population’s resource use and waste assimilation?

a)

Emergy

b)

Ecological footprint (EF)

c)

Exergy

d)

Net National Product (NNP)

33.

What is the main challenge in transforming and operationalizing the concepts of sustainable development and sustainability?

a)

The lack of international consensus on sustainability policies

b)

The excessive costs associated with sustainability certification

c)

The resistance of corporations to adopt sustainability standards

d)

The difficulty in defining clear and universally accepted sustainability criteria

34.

The Index of Sustainable Economic Welfare (ISEW) is an example of which type of sustainability measure?

a)

Ecological Measure

b)

Economic Measure

c)

Physical Measure

d)

Social Measure

35.

Which concept is used in Physical Measures of sustainability to assess the maximum useful work that can be extracted from a system?

a)

Emergy

b)

Exergy

c)

Carbon Footprint

d)

Greenhouse Gas Emissions

36.

Which of the following best defines development from the perspective of the United Nations Development Program (UNDP)?

a)

The increase in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and industrial output

b)

A country's ability to sustain economic growth over a long period

c)

Achieving national self-sufficiency in production and consumption

d)

Ensuring that people have long and healthy lives, access to knowledge, resources, and community participation

37.

Which of the following is NOT a fundamental characteristic of a good development plan?

a)

It should be politically acceptable to ensure funding and implementation

b)

It should be comprehensive, covering both rural and urban areas

c)

It should focus exclusively on economic growth without considering social factors

d)

It should have a clear sequence of priorities to maximize resource allocation

38.

What is one of the major challenges in development planning due to inadequate and unreliable statistical data?

a)

Overestimation of financial resources

b)

Excessive focus on foreign aid

c)

Rapid execution of plans

d)

Incorrect identification of objectives and poor evaluation

39.

What is the first step in FCRA compliance for an NGO?

a)

Open an FCRA account at the SBI Parliament Street Branch

b)

Obtain a DARPAN ID from NITI Aayog’s Darpan Portal

c)

Seed Aadhaar details of office bearers

d)

Submit Form FC-2 for foreign hospitality

40.

According to Oakley et al. (1991), how does participation enhance efficiency?

a)

By relying on external funding agencies

b)

By ensuring effective utilization of available resources with accountability

c)

By increasing government control over projects

d)

By limiting the number of beneficiaries

41.

How does participation contribute to the effectiveness of development projects?

a)

By limiting local people's involvement in decision-making

b)

By increasing bureaucratic processes in development planning

c)

By ensuring that people have a say in setting objectives and implementing strategies

d)

By reducing the importance of local knowledge

42.

Why is participation considered essential for the sustainability of development interventions?

a)

It ensures continuous dependence on foreign aid

b)

It reduces the need for monitoring and evaluation

c)

It increases external control over projects

d)

It creates a sense of ownership among local people

43.

Which of the following is a commonly used participatory method in program planning?

a)

Randomized Control Trials (RCTs)

b)

Participatory Rural Appraisal (PRA)

c)

Government-led Policy Framework (GPF)

d)

Centralized Planning Method (CPM)

44.

What is one of the primary advantages of Rapid Rural Appraisal (RRA) in development planning?

a)

It involves local people in quick assessments for effective planning

b)

It eliminates the need for local participation

c)

It relies exclusively on external expert evaluations

d)

It ensures centralized decision-making

45.

What is one key objective of PRA?

a)

Excluding local people from the planning process

b)

Replacing traditional knowledge with scientific theories

c)

Reducing community involvement in decision-making

d)

Generating information and collecting data for future use

46.

Which of the following is NOT a major difference between PRA and RRA?

a)

PRA focuses on long-term participation, while RRA is more extractive

b)

RRA is mainly expert-driven, while PRA encourages local facilitation

c)

PRA aims at sustainable development, while RRA only collects data

d)

Both PRA and RRA require no community involvement

47.

What is a key advantage of PRA over RRA?

a)

It emphasizes community empowerment and ownership

b)

It relies entirely on external experts

c)

It provides quick, one-time data collection

d)

It does not require local participation

48.

Which of the following is TRUE about PRA but NOT about RRA?

a)

It is primarily extractive in nature

b)

It focuses on top-down decision-making

c)

It allows local people to take control of planning and development

d)

It is conducted mainly by external experts

49.

What is the primary objective of the FCRA?

a)

To promote foreign funding in India

b)

To regulate and monitor foreign contributions and hospitality

c)

To encourage NGOs to seek foreign donations freely

d)

To increase foreign direct investment (FDI)

50.

Which of the following sectors can benefit from foreign contributions under FCRA for sustainable development?

a)

Education and healthcare

b)

Rural development and poverty alleviation

c)

Environmental conservation and climate action

d)

All of the above