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Audit and Assurance Quiz

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

There are two types of assurance engagement: reasonable assurance engagements and limited assurance engagements, There are two types of assurance conclusion: Positive and Negative.

For limited assurance engagement, select the appropriate conclusion given?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

2.

In the context of a statutory audit which THREE of the following are examples of the expectation gap? The belief that:

a)

The auditor's report certifies the financial statements as correct

b)

The auditor's principal duty is to detect fraud

c)

The auditor is employed by the directors

d)

The auditor checks all transactions

3.

For reasonable assurance engagement, select the appropriate conclusion given?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

4.

For each of the following statements select whether they are true or false. A negative assurance conclusion gives a limited level of assurance

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Which one of the following best describes the concept of assurance?

a)

An assurance firm's high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

b)

An assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

c)

A user's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party

d)

An assurance firm's limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

6.

Which two of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

a)

Assurance work is carried out by people independent of the entity

b)

Sampling is used in assurance work

c)

Client systems have inherent limitations

d)

Unqualified staff may be used on assurance engagements

7.

The statement: "Suitable criteria can only be identified for assurance engagements relating to financial statements" is true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

8.

For each of the following statements select whether they are true or false. Reasonable assurance is absolute assurance of the correctness of the subject matter

a)

True

b)

False

9.

For Report on profit and cash flow forecasts, select what level of assurance you would expect to be given:

a)

Reasonable

b)

Limited

10.

For Review of financial information, select what level of assurance you would expect to be given:

a)

Reasonable

b)

Limited

11.

Which one of the following is NOT a benefit of an assurance report on Financial information? An assurance report

a)

Enhances the credibility of the information being reported upon

b)

Reduces the risk of management bias in the information being reported upon

c)

Attests to the correctness of the information being reported upon

d)

Draws the attention of the user to deficiencies in the information being reported upon

12.

Which three of the following describe aspects of the expectations gap with respect to the external audit

a)

Users do not understand the meaning of the audit opinion

b)

Users are not aware of the limitations of the audit process

c)

Users do not appreciate that reasonable assurance is a low level of assurance

d)

Users do not understand what the audit process involves

13.

In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: The responsible party, the practitioner and the user. In respect of given subject matter state which party gathers evidence on the subject matter?

a)

Responsible party

b)

Practitioner

c)

User

14.

Which three of the following are key elements of a general assurance engagement?

a)

A user

b)

A subject matter

c)

Suitable criteria

d)

An assurance file

15.

In any assurance engagement there are three parties involved: The responsible party, the practitioner and the user. In respect of given subject matter state which party prepares the subject matter

a)

Responsible party

b)

Practitioner

c)

User

16.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the external audit?

a)

The external audit is an exercise carried out by auditors in order to give an opinion on whether the financial statements of a company are materially misstated.

b)

The external audit is an exercise carried out in order to give an opinion on the effectiveness of a company's internal control system.

c)

The external audit is performed by management to identify areas of deficiency within a company and to make recommendations to mitigate those deficiencies.

d)

The external audit provides negative assurance on the truth and fairness of a company's financial statements

17.

Is the following statement regarding stewardship true or false? Directors are stewards of the investment made by shareholders in a company.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which two of the following are elements of an assurance engagement?

a)

(1) A three-party relationship

b)

(2) Suitable criteria

c)

(3) Determination of materiality

d)

(4) An engagement letter

19.

Who normally appoints the external auditors of a company?

a)

Directors

b)

Shareholders

c)

Audit committee

d)

Senior management

20.

The level of assurance provided by an external audit is absolute. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Limited assurance engagements give what sort of assurance?

a)

Moderate

b)

Low

22.

Which of the following is NOT the element of assurance service?

a)

Sufficient appropriate audit evidence

b)

Suitable criteria

c)

A written report in the appropriate form

d)

A three party relationship consisting of the responsible party, users, and subject matter

23.

Which of the following is NOT a level of assurance provided by an assurance engagement?

a)

Absolute assurance

b)

Negative assurance

c)

Limited assurance

d)

Reasonable assurance

24.

The following conclusions have been reported on two engagements: “The insurance claim presents a true and fair estimate of the amount of inventory lost in the warehouse fire" “The cash flow forecast contains no assumptions that appear unreasonable" Which of the following describes the level of assurance expressed in these conclusions:

a)

(1) negative assurance; (2) No assurance

b)

(1) Positive assurance; (2) No assurance

c)

(1) negative assurance; (2) Negative assurance

d)

(1) Positive assurance; (2) Negative assurance

25.

Is the following statement true or false? “Assurance engagements can relate only to financial measures and results"

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following is the correct definition of an audit?

a)

The independent examination of and expression of opinion on the financial statements of an entity by a duly appointed auditor in pursuit of that appointment

b)

The process by which the director can state that the FS show a true and fair view.

c)

The examination and certification of opinion on the FS of an entity by a duly appointed auditor in pursuit of that appointment

d)

The process that produces a report stating that nothing has been found wrong in the financial statements.

27.

"Based on our review, nothing has come to our attention that causes us to believe that the accompanying financial statements do not present fairly, in all material respects... in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards." Which of the following BEST describes the type of assurance provided by this statement?

a)

Positive assurance expressed negatively

b)

Negative assurance expressed positively

c)

High level of assurance expressed negatively

d)

Limited level of assurance expressed negatively

28.

The level of assurance given by an assurance engagement will depend on the type of engagement. Assurance levels are often described as being either: 1. Absolute 2. Reasonable 3. Limited 4-Zero What level of assurance would normally be given to an audit of financial statements?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

29.

Which of the following best describes professional skepticism?

a)

To disbelieve management professional scepticisms = questioning

b)

To not believe anything that management asserts, without obtaining supporting evidence

c)

To apply a questioning mind to information and evidence

d)

To be prudent and always assume the worst outcome in the case of uncertainty

30.

Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the annual financial statements of a listed company are prepared in accordance with IFRS and relevant legislation?

a)

The auditor

b)

The board of directors

c)

The company secretary

d)

The listing exchange

31.

What is the objective of an audit of financial statements of a company?

a)

To protect the interests of minority shareholders

b)

To detect fraud and other irregularities

c)

To assess the effectiveness of the company's performance

d)

To provide assurance on credibility of the financial statements

32.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the external audit?

a)

The external audit is an exercise carried out by auditors in order to give an opinion on whether the financial statements of a company are materially misstated.

b)

The external audit is an exercise carried out in order to give an opinion on the effectiveness of a company's internal control system.

c)

The external audit is performed by management to identify areas of deficiency within a company and to make recommendations to mitigate those deficiencies.

d)

The external audit provides negative assurance on the truth and fairness of a company's financial statements

33.

Directors are stewards of the investment made by shareholders in a company. True or false?

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which two of the following are elements of an assurance engagement?

(1) A three-party relationship

(2) Suitable criteria

(3) Determination of materiality

(4) An engagement letter

a)

A (1) and (2) only

b)

B (1) and (3) only

c)

C (2) and (3) only

d)

D (1) and (4) only

35.

Which of the following are the responsibilities of the external auditor in auditing financial statements?

(1) Maintaining internal controls and preparing financial report;

(2) Providing internal assurance on internal control and financial reports;

(3) Providing internal oversight of the reporting process

a)

A. All of the above

b)

B. None of the above

c)

C. (1) and (2)

d)

D. (2) and (3)

36.

Which THREE of the following are key elements of a general assurance engagement?

a)

Subject matter

b)

Sufficient appropriate evidence

c)

An assurance file

d)

Written report

37.

Which one of the following best describe the concept of assurance?

a)

Assurance refer to an assurance firm’s high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

b)

Assurance refer to an assurance firm’s satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

c)

Assurance refer to a user’s satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party

d)

Assurance refer to an assurance firm’s limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

38.

Which of the following body is responsible for setting International Standard on Auditing?

a)

IASB

b)

FRC

c)

IAASB

d)

ACCA

39.

Which of the following is a general principle for the auditor to follow?: (1) Compliance with applicable ethical principles; (2) Compliance with International Standard on Auditing; (3) Keeping an attitude of professional skepticism when planning and performing the audit

a)

(1) and (2)

b)

(1) and (3)

c)

(2) and (3)

d)

(1) and (2) and (3)

40.

Which of the following could cause ADVOCACY?

a)

Audit team to be offered a balloon flight entertainment

b)

Tax fee to be based on a percentage of tax saved

c)

Firm to represent Stark in a dispute with the tax authorities

41.

You are an audit manager of Ali & Co and have just been assigned the audit of Stark Co (Stark). In an initial meeting with the finance director of Stark, you learn that the audit team will not be entertained on Stark's yacht this year, instead, he has arranged a balloon flight costing less than one-tenth of the expense of using the yacht and hopes this will be acceptable.

Which of the following actions should be taken to ensure the firm complies with ACCA’s Code of Ethics and Conduct?

a)

The gift may be accepted as Stark has taken appropriate measures to reduce the value of the gift compared to previous years.

b)

The value of the gift should be assessed to determine whether it is of material value to the financial statements.

c)

The gift should only be accepted if its value is trivial and inconsequential to the recipients.

d)

Only the audit partner and audit manager should accept the gift.

42.

You are the audit manager of Jones & Co and you are planning the audit of LV Fones Co, a listed company, which has been an audit client for four years and specializes in manufacturing luxury mobile phones. The employees of LV Fones Co are entitled to purchase smartphones at a discount of 10%. The audit team has in previous years been offered the same level of staff discount.

Which of the following options best identifies the valid potential threats to independence in the audit of LV Fones and allocates the threat to the most appropriate category?

a)

Familiarity

b)

self-interest

c)

Self-review

d)

intimidation

43.

The audit team being offered a 10% discount on mobile phones of the client.

Which of the following statements is true in accordance with ACCA's Code of Ethics and Conduct?

a)

The audit team can accept the discount as it is on the same terms as that offered to staff

b)

Junior members of the audit team are allowed to accept the discount, but the audit manager and audit partner should not

c)

Unless the value of the discount is trivial and inconsequential to the audit team members, the offer should be declined

d)

The audit team is only allowed to accept a discount of up to 5%

44.

1 Objectivity

2 Independence

3 Confidentiality

4 Professional skepticism

Which TWO of the following are fundamental principles as stated in the ACCA’s Code of Ethics and Conduct?

a)

A 1 and 4

b)

B 1 and 2

c)

C 2 and 3

d)

D 1 and 3

45.

Which of the following are recognised threats to independence and objectivity as identified in ACCA's Code of Ethics and Conduct?

(1) Familiarity (2) Self-interest (3) Integrity (4) Advocacy

a)

(1), (2), (3) and (4)

b)

(1), (2) and (4)

c)

2), (3) and (4)

d)

(2) and (4) only

46.

In which of the following situations would the auditor be able to disclose confidential information about a client?

(1) Disclosure is required by law.

(2) Disclosure is permitted by law but the auditor has not requested the client's permission.

(3) The auditor suspects that the client has committed money-laundering offences

a)

(1) and (2) only

b)

(1) and (3) only

c)

(2) and (3) only

d)

(1), (2) and (3)

47.

Andrew Jones has been the key audit partner of X Co, a public interest entity, for seven years. For how long must he be rotated off the audit as a minimum to comply with ACCA's Code of Ethics and Conduct?

a)

1 year

b)

2 years

c)

3 years

d)

4 years

48.

Who is ultimately responsible for a company's system of internal controls?

a)

External auditors

b)

Board of directors

c)

Internal auditors

d)

Audit committee

49.

AB & Co audits DEF Co. In accordance with ACCA Code of Ethics and Conduct which two of the following circumstances would constitute a threat to objectivity?

team

(1) An employee of AB & Co owns shares in DEF Co but is not part of the audit

(2) The best friend of the engagement partner owns a significant indirect financial interest in DEF Co

(3) The audit manager of DEF Co owns a small number of shares in DEF Co

(4) The husband of the audit partner owns shares in DEF Co

a)

(1) and (2)

b)

(1) and (4)

c)

(2) and (3)

d)

(3) and (4)

50.

Which two of the following are fundamental principles as stated in the ACCA's Code of Ethics and Conduct?

(1) Objectivity

(2) Independence

(3) Confidentiality

(4) Professional skepticism

a)

(1) and (4)

b)

(1) and (2)

c)

(2) and (3)

d)

(1) and (3)

51.

Which of the following principles of ACCA’s code of ethics does this statement mention? “Auditor should not allow bias, conflicts of interest or undue influence of others to override professional or business judgements”

a)

Integrity

b)

Objectivity

c)

Professional competence and due care

d)

Confidentiality

e)

Professional behaviour

52.

Which of the following statement explain for “self-interest” threat?

a)

The auditor’s own personal interest in client which could influence the auditor’s independence

b)

Auditors review work that their own firm has undertaken previously during the audit, e.g. preparing accounts or making a valuation

c)

If the auditors get involved in disputes concerning the client, they may end up acting for or against the client, which undermine the appearance of objectivity

d)

The auditors may be intimidated by a dominant or aggressive atmosphere at the client

53.

In Which of the following situations would the auditor has duty to disclose confidential information about a client?

a)

Disclosure is not required by law

b)

The auditor suspects that the client has committed money-laundering offences

c)

Disclosure is necessary for the public interest

54.

Which of the following threats does this situation create You are senior auditor of Smartwear Ltd. The director of Smartwear have requested you to assist them with the preparation of the statutory financial statements

a)

Self-interest

b)

Self-review

c)

Familiarity

d)

Intimidation

55.

Which THREE of the following are stated fundamental principles of the IESBA code?

a)

Independence

b)

Confidentiality

c)

Objectivity

d)

Integrity

56.

“Auditors have a continuing duty to maintain professional knowledge and skill at the level required and should act diligently and in accordance with applicable technical and professional standards”. Which of the following principles of ACCA’s code of ethics does this statement mention to?

a)

Integrity

b)

Objectivity

c)

Professional competence and due care

d)

Professional behaviour

57.

When gaining an understanding of the specific business operations of an audit client which of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client's business

b)

Acquisitions or disposals of the client's business activities

c)

Leasing of property, plant or equipment for use in the client's business

d)

Products or services and markets of the client's business

58.

Which of the following procedures must the auditor use to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment in accordance with ISA 315 Identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement through understanding the entity and its environment?

(1) Analytical procedures

(2) Inquiry

(3) Confirmation

(4) Reperformance

a)

A (1), (2) and (3)

b)

B (1) and (2)

c)

C (2), (3) and (4)

59.

What are the two elements of the risk of material misstatement at the assertion level?

a)

Inherent risk and detection risk

b)

Audit risk and detection risk

c)

Inherent risk and control risk

d)

Detection risk and control

60.

'Audit risk' represents the risk that the auditor will give an inappropriate opinion on the financial statements when the financial statements are materially misstated. Which of the following categories of risk can be controlled by the auditor? Category of risk:

(1) Control risk (2) Detection risk (3) Sampling risk

a)

A (1) and (2)

b)

B (2) only

c)

C (1) and (3)

d)

D (2) and (3)

61.

The definition of the risk of material misstatement is 'Inherent Risk × Control Risk × Detection Risk'. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following statements about materiality are correct?

(1) Information is material if its omission or misstatement could influence the economic decisions of users of the financial statements.

(2) Materiality is based on the auditor's experience and judgment.

(3) Materiality is always based on revenue.

(4) Materiality should only be calculated at the planning stage of the audit.

a)

A (1), (2) and (3)

b)

B (1), (3) and (4)

c)

C (1) and (2)

d)

D (2) and (4)

63.

Performance materiality levels are less than the materiality for the financial statements as a whole. Is this statement true or false?

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Is the following statement regarding the interim audit true or false? The higher the risk of material misstatement the more likely it is that the auditor will decide to perform substantive procedures during the interim audit rather than at the period end.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Who is responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud?

a)

Internal auditors

b)

External auditors

c)

Those charged with governance and management

d)

The audit committee

66.

The auditor of A Co wishes to reduce audit risk. Which of the following actions could the auditor take to achieve this?

(1) Increase sample sizes

(2) Reduce control risk

(3) Assign more experienced staff to the engagement team

a)

A (1) only

b)

B (2) only

c)

C (1) and (3)

d)

D (2) and (3)

67.

Which of the following example illustrates Inherent Risk?

a)

Director’s pay related to company’s profitability

b)

The company has a high turnover staff in the accounting department

c)

Senior management regularly override the internal control system

d)

Audit staff are inexperienced

68.

Which of the following example illustrates Control Risk?

a)

The financial statements include complex transactions

b)

The company has recently listed on the local stock exchange with high profit expectations from analysts

c)

Senior management regularly override the internal control system

d)

Sample sizes have been calculated incorrectly by the auditor and are too small

69.

Which of the following case could lead to the assessment that inherent risk is lower than normal?

a)

The company operates in a profit-related pay scheme

b)

The business of the company is cash-based

c)

Financial statements contain balances with straightforward financial accounting

70.

For each of the following statements about materiality, Which ONE of the following statement is true?

a)

Materiality only depends on the size of the error in the context of its omission or misstatement.

b)

Materiality should be considered when planning audit procedures and when evaluating discovered misstatements.

c)

Materiality must be expressed as a proportion of asset

d)

Materiality will not influence the audit opinion given

71.

Which of the following is true regarding Materiality?

a)

Materiality is always expressed as a proportion of profits

b)

Materiality is always expressed as a proportion of revenue

c)

Materiality should be considered when planning audit procedures and when evaluating discovered misstatements

72.

For each of the following statements about concept of materiality, Which ONE of the following statement is false?

a)

Materiality should be calculated at the planning stage of all audits

b)

Materiality can be expressed as a proportion of asset

c)

Materiality will influence the audit opinion given

d)

Once established, the materiality level initially set cannot be revised during the course of the audit

73.

Which of the following is NOT a reason for obtaining an understanding about the entity and its environment?

a)

To identify and assess the risks of material misstatement in the financial statements

b)

To enable the auditor to design and perform further audit procedures

c)

To provide a frame of reference for exercising audit judgement, for example, when setting audit materiality

d)

To identify the relevant internal control and test its operating effectiveness

74.

Two types of procedures used in gathering evidence are tests of controls and substantive procedures. Sometimes, a specific procedure can serve as both a test of control and substantive procedure. If sales for the year are compared to the budget, which ONE of the type of procedures is used to illustrate?

a)

Test of control

b)

Substantive procedure

c)

Both a test of control and a substantive procedure

d)

Neither a test of control nor a substantive procedure

75.

Which TWO of the following would be classified as substantive procedures?

a)

Analytical procedures

b)

Tests of control

c)

Walk-through tests

d)

Tests of details.

76.

Which THREE of the following are procedures that could be used by auditors to provide evidence relating to a balance in the financial statements?

a)

Analytical procedures

b)

Tests of control

c)

Walk-through tests

d)

Tests of details

77.

Which of the following would normally be included in the audit plan?

a)

Reporting objectives

b)

Industry-specific financial reporting requirements

c)

Nature, timing, and the extent of planned risk assessment procedures

78.

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the relationship between the audit plan and the audit strategy for an external audit engagement?

(1) The audit plan should be developed before the audit strategy is established.

(2) The audit plan and the audit strategy should be established and developed at the same time.

(3) The overall audit strategy should be more detailed than the audit plan.

(4) The audit strategy should be established before the audit plan is developed.

a)

A (1) and (3)

b)

B (2) only

c)

C (3) and (4)

d)

D (4) only

79.

What are the purposes of planning the audit?

(1) To ensure appropriate attention is devoted to different areas of the audit (2) To identify potential problem areas

(3) To facilitate delegation of work to audit team members

(4) To ensure the audit is completed within budget and time restraints

a)

A (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b)

B (1), (3) and (4)

c)

C (1), (2) and (3)

d)

D (2) and (3)

80.

Which of the following factors influence the form and content of audit working papers?

(1) Risks of material misstatement

(2) Exceptions identified

(3) Nature of the package used for documentation

(4) Cost to the audit

a)

A (1), (2) and (4)

b)

B (1), (3) and (4)

c)

C (1) and (2)

d)

D (2) and (4)

81.

Is the following statement regarding audit evidence true or false? Appropriateness is the measure of the quality of audit evidence.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Which of the following is assertions used by auditor about class of transaction?

a)

Existence

b)

Cut-off

c)

Right and obligation

83.

Which of the following assertions are NOT relevant to the audit of tangible non-current assets?

a)

Existence

b)

Occurrence

c)

Classification

d)

Presentation

e)

Right and obligation

84.

The following test are carried out by an auditor: “Tracing non-current asset which have been observed in use back to the non-current asset register”

a)

Existence

b)

Completeness

c)

Classification

d)

Right and obligation

85.

Which of the following is NOT objective of audit planning?

a)

To determine the scope of the engagement and sign the engagement letter

b)

To identify and resolve potential problems on a timely basis.

c)

To ensure appropriate attention to important areas of the audit

d)

To select appropriate team members and assign work to them

86.

Which of the following is NOT the reason why auditor need to record their work in working papers?

a)

To confirm the terms of the engagement

b)

To help the audit team to plan and perform the audit

c)

To retain a record of matters of continuing significance to the engagement

d)

To enable the conduct of quality control reviews and inspections

87.

Which of the following is likely to be kept on a permanent audit file?

a)

Supporting documents to demonstrate the audit adjustment

b)

Audit manager’s review notes

c)

Previous year’s signed financial statements

d)

This year’s trial balances, accounting ledgers

88.

Which of the below factors influence the auditor's judgement regarding the reliability of the evidence obtained?

a)

The source of audit evidence

b)

The materiality of the account

c)

The volume of audit evidence obtained

d)

The size of the account

89.

In respect of an audit engagement, which of the following is the least persuasive method of gathering evidence?

a)

Inspection of a supplier’s invoice

b)

A receivables confirmation letter sent directly from the customers to the auditor

c)

Recalculation of depreciation

d)

Inspection of a sales invoice

90.

Which of the following is true regarding audit evidence?

a)

Audit evidence from internal sources is more reliable than that obtained from external sources

b)

A sales invoice is more reliable than a purchase invoices as it is internally generated

c)

Original documents are more reliable than copies

d)

A bank statement is less reliable than the cash at bank nominal ledger account as it is generated by third party

91.

Which one of the following assertions is the auditor LEAST concerned with when testing a non-current asset balance?

a)

Existence

b)

Rights and Obligations

c)

Completeness

d)

Cut-off

92.

Which of the following procedures would provide evidence of Rights and Obligations of motor vehicles?

a)

Vouching a sample of motor vehicles in the asset register to registration documents

b)

Physical inspection of motor vehicles

c)

Recalculation of the depreciation of motor vehicles charge in the period

d)

Recalculation of gain or loss from disposal of motor vehicles during the year

93.

What is the purpose the following procedures will provide appropriate audit evidence in respect of the completeness of non-current assets?

a)

For a sample of non-current assets listed on the non-current assets register, physically inspect the asset.

b)

For a sample of assets on the assets register, recalculate the net book values in accordance with the entity's accounting policies

c)

For a sample of assets on the assets register, inspect relevant purchase invoices or deeds

d)

For a sample of assets selected by physical inspection, agree that they are listed on the non-current assets register

94.

Auditors obtain evidence using procedures set out in ISA (UK) 500, Audit Evidence. The auditor examines a title deed to confirm that the company has ownership of a plot of land. Which ONE of the following procedures is being used?

a)

Inspection

b)

Observation

c)

. Inquiry

d)

Re-performance

95.

The auditor of Mondays Ltd is performing a test to ensure that there are no omissions from the non- current asset register. In respect of which ONE of the following assertions will this procedure provide audit evidence?

a)

Existence

b)

Accuracy, valuation and allocation

c)

Completeness

d)

Classificatio

96.

Which of the following is NOT an inherent limitation of internal control systems?

a)

Insufficient segregation of duties

b)

Possibility that employees may collude together fraudulently

c)

Possibility of human error in undertaking tasks

97.

Which of the following controls of a sales system ensure that all goods despatched are completely and accurately invoiced?

a)

Good despatched notes are matched to sales invoices

b)

Sales invoices are sequentially numbered

c)

Sales invoices are matched to customer orders

98.

ISA 315 Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through Understanding the Entity and Its Environment sets out the five components of internal control. Which of the following is NOT set out as a component of internal control within ISA 315?

a)

Control environment

b)

The information system relevant to financial reporting

c)

Human resource policies and practices

99.

Which of the following procedures are TESTS OF CONTROL an auditor should perform in testing the inventory cycle of their client whilst attending the inventory count?

(1) Observe whether the client’s staff are following the inventory count instructions

(2) Review inventory present in the warehouse for evidence of damage or obsolescence (3) Obtain a sample of the last goods received notes and goods despatched notes and follow through to ensure inclusion in the correct accounting period

(4) Inspect and review management’s inventory count instructions

a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 4

c)

1 and 2

d)

3 and 4

100.

Is the following statement regarding the assurance provided by an internal control system true or false? An effective internal control system provides the auditor with absolute assurance that control objectives have been achieved.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which of the following methods of recording an accounting and controls system is a series of questions used to determine whether controls exist which meet specific control objectives?

a)

Internal control questionnaire

b)

Internal control evaluation questionnaire

c)

Flowchart

102.

One of the control objectives of the sales system of B Co is to ensure that goods and services are sold to credit-worthy customers. Which of the following control activities would assist B Co in achieving this objective?

a)

All sales orders are based on authorized price lists.

b)

Credit limits are checked before sales orders are accepted.

c)

Overdue debts are chased each month by the credit controller.

d)

The aged-debt listing is reviewed by the finance director on a monthly basis

103.

Which of the following controls helps to ensure that payroll payments are only made to bona fide employees?

(1) Personnel records maintained for all employees

(2) Comparison of bank transfer listing with payroll

(3) Segregation of duties between staff involved in human resources and payroll functions

(4) Reperformance of the calculation of a sample of payroll deductions

a)

A. (1) and (2)

b)

B. (1) and (3)

c)

C. (2) and (4)

d)

D. (3) and (4)

104.

B Co maintains perpetual inventory records. Which of the following control activities would contribute to the auditor's confidence that inventory recorded in the financial statements exists?

(1) Procedures to identify obsolete and damaged inventory

(2) Physical safeguards to protect inventory from theft

(3) Sequential numbering of goods dispatched notes

(4) Reconciliation of inventory records to results of inventory counts

a)

A. (1) and (2)

b)

B. (1) and (3)

c)

C. (2) and (3)

d)

D. (2) and (4)

105.

Which of the following is not a test of control?

a)

Inspection of purchase order documentation to confirm that it has been authorised

b)

Review of monthly bank reconciliations performed by the audit client

c)

Examination of purchase invoices for evidence of mathematical accuracy checks

d)

Agreement of the cost of non-current asset additions to purchase documentation

106.

ISA 315 Identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement through understanding the entity and its environment sets out the five components of internal control. Which of the following is not set out as a component of internal control. Which of the following is not set out as a component of internal control within ISA 315?

a)

A. Control environment

b)

B. The information system relevant to financial reporting

c)

C. Human resource policies and practices

107.

Which of the following is NOT a component of internal control?

a)

A. Control risk

b)

B. The entity’s risk assessment procedures

c)

C. Control activities

d)

D. Control environment

108.

2. Which of the following is NOT a control activity?

a)

A. Physical control

b)

B. The control environment

c)

C. Reconciliations and comparisons

d)

D. Authorization

109.

Which of the following represent inherent limitations of a system of internal controls?

a)

Lack of controls over the purchase system

b)

Lack of staff to ensure segregation of duties

c)

The possibility that staff members will collude in fraud

110.

Which of the following is true regarding to internal control system in small entities?

a)

Smaller companies are more likely to be successful in the implementation of segregation of duties controls.

b)

Management override is more likely to take place in smaller companies

c)

Smaller companies usually maintain internal audit function

111.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding limitation of any system of internal controls?

a)

The cost of implementing controls may be more expensive than the cost of any potential risk arising.

b)

The effectiveness of many controls rely on the integrity of those applying them

c)

Internal controls are only applied to material items.

d)

Standard controls may not be designed to deal with unusual transactions