Free Printable Patho: Bacteria part 2, slide 42

1.

What are the 5 major genera of gram + rods (bacilli)?

a)

bacillus

b)

clostridium

c)

cornyebacterium

d)

listeria

e)

gardnerella

2.

Which bacilli bacteria is the only one with anaerobic growth?

a)

bacillus

b)

clostridium

c)

cornyebacterium

d)

listeria

e)

gardnerella

3.

Which two bacilli bacteria form spores?

a)

bacillus

b)

clostridium

c)

cornyebacterium

d)

listeria

e)

gardnerella

4.

Bacillus cereus:

Large or small? (a) with (b) ends.

(c) form spores.

Mobility: (d)

Choose from the below words

Large rods

blunt

sharp

small rods

Can

Cannot

motile with flagella

non-motile

5.

Bacillus cereus is a ___ pathogen.

a)

opportunistic

b)

primary

6.

Bacillus cereus:

Hemolysis: (a)

metabolism: (b)

Catalase (c)

Oxidase (d)

Choose from the below words

B-hemolytic

facultative anaerobe

aerobic

a-hemolytic

(+)

(-)

7.

Bacillus cereus causes...

a)

gastroenteritis (food poisoning)

b)

ocular infections

8.

Bacillus cereus produces 2 enterotoxins:

a)

emetic toxin

b)

diarrheal toxin

9.

Bacillus cereus enterotoxins:

heat stable (a)

heat labile (b)

Causes "fried rice syndrome" (c)

Choose from the below words

emetic toxin

diarrheal toxin

10.

Which gram + bacillus bacteria causes "fried rice syndrome"?

a)

Clostridium perfringens

b)

Bacillus cereus

c)

Clostridium difficile

11.

Clostridium perfringens:

Gram (a)

Shape: (b)

Metabolism: (c)

Mobility: (d)

Spores: (e)

Choose from the below words

(+)

bacilli

coccus

obligate anaerobe

facultative anaerobe

aerobic

non-motile

motile with flagella

spore forming

non-spore forming

12.

Clostridium perfringens is a microbiota found in....

a)

human respiratory tract

b)

GI tract of humans

c)

GI tract of animals

13.

Clostridium perfringens is....

a)

a-hemolytic

b)

B-hemolytic

c)

y-hemolytic

14.

Clostridium perfringens is spread by....

a)

vehicles (contaminated food)

b)

fecal-oral transmission

15.

What are virulence factors produced by clostridium perfringens?

a)

Enzymes

b)

cytotoxin

c)

enterotoxin

d)

fermentation products

16.

What enzymes are made by Clostridium perfringens?

a)

collagenase

b)

protease

c)

hyaluronidase

17.

Virulence factors of Clostridium perfringens:

Collagenase, proteases, hyaluronidase (a)

Damages intestinal cells (b)

Can cause food poisoning (c)

Cause build up of acids and gas causing tissue necrosis and gas gangrene of muscle tissue (d)

1

Choose from the below words

enzymes

Cytotoxin

Enterotoxin

Fermentation

18.

Clostridium difficile:

Metabolism: (a)

Spores: (b)

Mobility: (c)

gram (d)

Shape: (e)

Choose from the below words

obligate anaerobe

aerobe

spore forming

non-spore forming

mobile

(+)

rods (bacilli)

19.

Clostridium difficile is an opportunistic pathogen of the....

a)

respiratory tract

b)

GU tract

c)

GI tract

d)

skin

20.

Use of broad-spectrium antibiotics can give what gram + bacillus bacteria an advantage to colonize the gut?

a)

C. perfringens

b)

C. difficile

c)

Bacillus cereus

21.

Which is a more severe infection of Clostridium difficile?

a)

C. diff-associated diarrhea (CDAD)

b)

Pseudomembranous colitis (PMC)

22.

Clostridium difficile can cause a severe complication that results in extreme dilation of the colon due to inflammation that can lead to toxicity and shock. What is this phenomenon called?

a)

CDAD

b)

PMC

c)

Toxic megacolon

23.

What are the 2 enterotoxins produced by Clostridium difficile?

a)

Toxin A

b)

Toxin B

24.

Clostridium difficile:

Excessive fluid secretion (a)

Causes enterocyte death and inflammation (b)

enterotoxin (c)

Cytotoxin (d)

Choose from the below words

Toxin A

Toxin B

25.

Toxins from clostridium difficile are used for identification by ___ in fecal samples.

a)

ELISA

b)

not this

26.

Listeria monocytogenes:

Shape: (a)

Size: (b)

Mobility: (c)

Catalase (d)

Gram (e)

Choose from the below words

bacillus (rod)

small bacillus

tumbling motility

(+)

27.

Listeria monocytogenes is ___ hemolytic.

a)

a-hemolytic

b)

B-hemolytic

c)

y-hemolytic

28.

Lysteria monocytogenes is ___

a)

aerobic

b)

facultative anaerobe

c)

obligate anaerobe

29.

Listeria survives...

a)

proteolytic enzymes

b)

stomach acid

c)

bile salts

d)

salt tolerant

e)

cold tolerant at freezing temps

30.

Listeria causes....

a)

listeriosis (foodborne illness)

b)

meningitis

31.

Listeria infections are more common in ___

a)

sexually active females

b)

elderly

c)

pregnant females

d)

neonates

e)

IC individuals

32.

Listeria (a) cross the placenta. Also known as (b)

Choose from the below words

can

vertical transmission

cannot

33.

Listeria is a ___

a)

small bacilli

b)

large bacilli

34.

Listeria is a/an (a) anaerobic, (b) pathogen

Choose from the below words

Facultative

intracellular

obligate

extracellular

35.

Listeria adheres to enterocytes by Listeria adhesion proteins ___ and ___

a)

Internalin A

b)

Internalin B

36.

How does Listeria move from cell to cell?

a)

multiplies in the cytosol

b)

moves to cell membrane

c)

manipulates host actin cytoskeleton

d)

uses cytoskeleton to propel itself into other cells

1)

2)

3)

4)

37.

Listeria (a) survive phagocytosis.

Choose from the below words

can

cannot

38.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae:

Shape: (a)

Size: (b)

Motility: (c)

Oxygen: (d)

Choose from the below words

bacilli (club shaped)

small bacilli

non-motile

facultative anaerobes

cocci

large bacilli

motile

aerobic

39.

Cornebacterium diphtheriae is transmitted by ...

a)

respiratory drops

b)

direct contact with skin ulcers

c)

fomites

40.

Cornebacterium diphtheriae causes what 2 diseases?

a)

diphtheria (upper resp disease)

b)

SSTI (causes grey membrane covered skin ulcers)

41.

Corynebacterium diphtheriae releases (a) which is an (b) that is a potent inhibitor of host (c)

Choose from the below words

diphtheria toxin

exotoxin

protein synthesis

42.

What vaccine is given to prevent infection of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

a)

DTaP

b)

Tdap

43.

Nocardia:

Gram (a)

Shape: (b)

Other stains: (c)

Features: (d)

Choose from the below words

+

bacilli

partially acid fast

filamentous rods

44.

Select all that is true of the gram + bacilli bacterium, Nocardia

a)

filamentous

b)

rod shaped

c)

sometimes confused as fungi (resembles mold)

d)

contains mycolic acid

e)

partially acid fast

45.

Nocardia:

Oxygen: (a)

catalase (b)

SOD (c)

Growth rate: (d)

Choose from the below words

obligate aerobic

+

slow growing

-

fast growing

facultative anaerobe

46.

Nocardia is a/an (a) pathogen in IC patients that affects (b)

Choose from the below words

opportunistic

lungs, skin, and brain

47.

Inhaling Nocardia leads to ...

a)

pulmonary disease

b)

bronchitis

c)

pneumonia

d)

lung abscesses

48.

Nocardia, a gram + bacilli bacteria, can (a) and (b) in macrophages by blocking the acidification of the lysosome.

Choose from the below words

survive

replicate

49.

Which gram + bacillus bacteria can survive inside of macrophage lysosomes by blocking the lysosome's acidification?

a)

Listeria

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

Nocardia

50.

Neisseria:

Gram (a)

Shape: (b)

Oxygen: (c)

Oxidase: (d)

catalase (e)

Choose from the below words

-

cocci

obligate aerobe

+

51.

What are the pathogenic forms of the gram - cocci bacterium, Neisseria?

a)

Neisseria meningitides

b)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

52.

What are the virulence factors of the Gram - cocci, Neisseria?

a)

lipooligosaccharide (LOS, endotoxin)

b)

antigen variation

c)

encapsulated

d)

IgA proteases

e)

covered in pili to allow for adhesion

53.

Which form of the gram - cocci bacterium, Neisseria colonizes asymptomatic carriers (reservoirs) in the nasopharynx.

a)

N. gonorrhoeae

b)

N. meningitides

54.

Select all that is true of Neisseria.

a)

gram -

b)

cocci shaped

c)

diplococci

d)

coffee been appearance

55.

What vaccine is used to protect against Neisseria meningitides?

a)

meningococcal vaccine

b)

TDaP

c)

pneumunococcal

56.

the gram - cocci bacteria N. gonorrhoeae has (a) transmission by direct (b) . It also has (c) transmission during childbirth that leads to (d)

Choose from the below words

horizontal

sexual contact

vertical

neonatal conjunctivitis

57.

When testing for N. gonorrhoeae, (a) in dishcarge are examined by microscopy for intraccellular (b)

Choose from the below words

Neutrophils

gram - diplococci

58.

Moraxella catarrhalis:

Gram (a)

Shape: (b)

Oxidase: (c)

Catalase: (d)

Motility (e)

Choose from the below words

-

coccobacilli

+

non-motile

motile

bacilli

59.

Moraxella catarrhalis contain ___ for adherence.

a)

fimbriae

b)

flagella

c)

pilli

60.

Moraxella catarrhalis is a part of the microbiota of the ___

a)

GI tract

b)

upper resp tract

c)

GU tract

d)

skin

61.

What are the virulence factors for the gram - coccibacilli bacterium, Moraxella catarrhalis?

a)

LPS-endotoxin

b)

produces B-lactamases (inactivates B-lac antibiotics)

c)

produces neuraminidase (degrades mucin allowing for colonization of resp tract)

62.

Moraxella catarrhalis causes...

a)

bronchial infections

b)

otitis media in children

c)

seen in daycares and households

63.

Haemophilus influenzae:

Gram (a)

shape: (b)

Enteric or non-enteric (c)

Oxygen: (d)

oxidase (e)

catalase +

Choose from the below words

-

coccobacilli

non-enteric

facultative anaerobes

+

64.

Haemophilus influenzae requires ___ agar

a)

mannitol salt

b)

high salt

c)

chocolate

65.

H. influenzae can be invasive or noninvasive:

pneumonia, meningitis, epiglottitis, and cellulitis (a)

sinusitis, otitis media, and conjunctivitis (b)

Choose from the below words

invasive disease

non-invasive disease

66.

There (a) a vaccine for H. influenzae.

Choose from the below words

is

is not

67.

Aeromonas species:

Gram (a)

Shape: (b)

Oxygen: (c)

Can ferment (d)

Catalase (e)

oxidase +

Choose from the below words

-

bacilli

facultative anaerobes

lactose

+

68.

Where is Aeromonas found?

a)

fresh water

b)

brackish water

c)

soil

69.

What diseases does Aeromonas cause?

a)

diarrheal disease in health people

b)

wound infections and UTIs in IC pts

70.

What are the virulence factors of Aeromonas?

a)

flagella

b)

adhesins (flagella or pili)

c)

hemolysins

d)

siderophores

e)

endotoxins, enterotoxins, MDR, shiga-like toxin

71.

What are the 3 Aeromonas bacteria?

a)

A. hydrophila

b)

A. caviae

c)

A. veronii

72.

Vibrio:

Gram (a)

Shape (b)

Motility: (c)

Oxidase (d)

Ferments (e)

Choose from the below words

-

bacilli

motile, flagellum

+

lactose

73.

What Vibrio pathogen causes cholerae?

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

not this

74.

What toxin does vibrio cholerae produce?

a)

cholera toxin

b)

not this

75.

Vibrio cholerae toxins:

Cholera toxin:

toxin that binds to the GI epithelial cells (a)

Toxin that enters cells to increase cAMP levels leading to electrolyte imbalance and fluid secretion (b)

Choose from the below words

B part

A part

76.

E. coli:

Gram (a)

shape: (b)

Oxygen: (c)

oxidase (d)

catalase (e)

Choose from the below words

-

bacilli

facultative anaerobe

+

77.

E. coli ferments ___

a)

glucose

b)

lactose

78.

When E. coli ferments glucose and lactose, what are the products?

a)

lactic acid

b)

coliform gas

79.

Lactose fermenter will give what color of colonies?

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

pink

80.

E. coli strains differ based on (a) of the (b) endotoxin.

Choose from the below words

O antigen

LPS

81.

What are the E. coli strains?

a)

Uropathogenic (UPEC)

b)

Entero toxigenic (ETEC)

c)

Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)

82.

E. coli strains:

Causes UTIs (a)

Causes watery diarrhea (b)

Causes destruction of intestinal lining, kidney failure, hemolytic uremic syndrome (c)

Choose from the below words

UPEC

ETEC

EHEC

83.

Which E. coli strain produces a shiga toxin and causes bloody diarrhea?

a)

UPEC

b)

ETEC

c)

EHEC

84.

Which E. coli strain causes traveler's diarrhea?

a)

UPEC

b)

ETEC

c)

EHEC

85.

Klebsiella:

Gram (a)

Oxygen: (b)

Oxidase: (c)

Motility: (d)

Ferments: (e)

Urease +

Choose from the below words

-

facultative anaerobe

non-motile

lactose

86.

Klebsiella is Urease ___

a)

+

b)

-

87.

Klebsiella is a component of the microbiota of the ____

a)

respiratory tract

b)

GU tract

c)

GI tract

d)

skin

88.

What are the virulence factors for Klebsiella?

a)

fimbriae

b)

siderophores

89.

What form of Klebsiella pneumoniae causes disease?

a)

encapsulated form

b)

nonencapsulated form

90.

Enterobacter:

Gram (a)

Oxygen: (b)

oxidase (c)

ferments: (d)

Motility: motile

Urease (e)

Choose from the below words

-

facultative anaerobe

lactose

+

91.

Enterobactor gram - bacilli

a)

component of the GI microbiota

b)

Nosocomial infections many types

92.

What type of transmission for enterobactore?

a)

horizontal transmission (patient to patient)

b)

vehicle transmission (catheters, tubing, wound dressings)

93.

Virulence factors of Enterobacteria.

a)

fimbriae

b)

adhesins

c)

LPS

d)

capsule and biofilms

e)

hemolysins, siderophores

Patho: Bacteria part 2, slide 42

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

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