Free Printable Basic Principals - Antibiotics

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Basic Principals - Antibiotics

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

What are antibiotics used to treat?

a)

Viral infections

b)

Fungal infections

c)

Bacterial infections

d)

Parasitic infections

2.

Before beginning antibiotic therapy, what should ideally be done to the suspected areas of infection?

a)

Start antibiotics immediately

b)

Culture the areas to identify the causative organism and potential antibiotic susceptibilities

c)

Ignore the infection

d)

Prescribe painkillers only

3.

Empiric treatment is given until ______ results are back (Usually 48-72 hrs.).

a)

culture

b)

biopsy

c)

x-ray

d)

CBC

4.

What does 'culture and sensitivity' determine?

a)

The patient's age

b)

Which bacteria and which medication

c)

The duration of illness

d)

The cost of treatment

5.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the treatment of an infection before specific culture information has been reported or obtained.

a)

Empiric therapy

b)

Definitive therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

Supportive therapy

6.

Fill in the blank: ________ is antibiotic therapy tailored to treat organism identified with cultures (narrow spectrum).

a)

Definitive therapy

b)

Empiric therapy

c)

Prophylactic therapy

d)

Adjunctive therapy

7.

Fill in the blank: ________ is the treatment with antibiotics to prevent an infection, as in intraabdominal surgery or after trauma.

a)

Prophylactic therapy

b)

Curative therapy

c)

Palliative therapy

d)

Supportive therapy

8.

Which of the following describes a therapeutic response to antibiotic therapy?

a)

Signs and symptoms of infection do not improve

b)

Decrease in specific signs and symptoms of infection are noted (fever, elevated WBC, redness, inflammation, drainage, pain)

c)

Treatment before specific culture information is obtained

d)

Treatment to prevent an infection

9.

Fill in the blank: ________ is when signs and symptoms of infection do not improve after antibiotic therapy.

a)

Subtherapeutic response

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Therapeutic response

d)

Toxicity

10.

How can we prevent antibiotic resistance?

a)

Stop over-prescribing antibiotics

b)

Use aseptic technique

c)

Prescribe specific medications as opposed to broad-spectrum ones

d)

All of the above

11.

Which type of resistance occurs without previous exposure to the antibiotics?

a)

Inherent

b)

Acquired

c)

Healthcare-acquired

d)

Cross resistance

12.

Fill in the blank: ________ resistance occurs because of previous exposure to antibiotics.

a)

Acquired

b)

Natural

c)

Passive

d)

Innate

13.

Healthcare-acquired resistance occurs as a result of being hospitalized and being exposed to a bacteria that is ________.

a)

resistant

b)

harmless

c)

beneficial

d)

dormant

14.

Cross resistance occurs as a result of antibiotics having similar actions and ________.

a)

structures

b)

colors

c)

dosages

d)

brands

15.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Superinfection

b)

Improved immunity

c)

Enhanced metabolism

d)

Increased appetite

16.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Pseudomembranous colitis

b)

Weight gain

c)

Hair growth

d)

Improved vision

17.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Secondary infection

b)

Muscle growth

c)

Bone strengthening

d)

Increased energy

18.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Resistance

b)

Decreased blood pressure

c)

Improved digestion

d)

Enhanced memory

19.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Food-drug interactions

b)

Increased height

c)

Better sleep

d)

Improved concentration

20.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

A) Host factors

b)

B) Increased intelligence

c)

C) Enhanced taste

d)

D) Improved skin tone

21.

Which of the following is a possible problem with the use of antibiotics?

a)

Allergic reactions

b)

Increased muscle mass

c)

Improved flexibility

d)

Enhanced vision

22.

Which organ is mostly affected by organ toxicity due to the use of antibiotics?

a)

A) Kidneys

b)

B) Heart

c)

C) Lungs

d)

D) Brain

23.

Which color do Gram Positive bacteria stain?

a)

Pink

b)

Purple/Red

c)

Blue

d)

Green

24.

Which type of bacteria has a thick peptidoglycan layer?

a)

Gram Positive

b)

Gram Negative

25.

Do Gram Positive bacteria have an extra layer?

a)

Yes

b)

No

26.

Which type of bacteria does not stain (appears pink)?

a)

Gram Positive

b)

Gram Negative

27.

Name one example of a Gram Negative bacterium mentioned in the chart.

a)

Pseudomonas or Klebsiella

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Bacillus

d)

Streptococcus

28.

Which type of bacteria is hardest to treat?

a)

A) Gram Positive

b)

B) Gram Negative

29.

Fill in the blank: Interference with cellular ________ is an antibacterial action.

a)

metabolism

b)

division

c)

adhesion

d)

replication

30.

According to the drug selection algorithm, the drug that should be chosen is:

a)

The drug recommended by the algorithm

b)

Any available drug

c)

The most expensive drug

d)

A drug not listed in the algorithm

31.

According to the drug selection algorithm, what are the steps to identify the pathogen?

a)

1. What is it? 2. Where is it? 3. Gram -/+?

b)

1. What is it? 2. How old is it? 3. Is it viral?

c)

1. Where is it? 2. What is the treatment? 3. Is it resistant?

d)

1. What is it? 2. Is it aerobic? 3. What is the dose?

32.

According to the drug selection algorithm, what should you determine about the pathogen's susceptibility?

a)

What the pathogen is susceptible to.

b)

What the pathogen looks like under a microscope.

c)

What the pathogen's genetic code is.

d)

What the pathogen's origin is.

33.

According to the drug selection algorithm, what should you assess about the drug's spectrum?

a)

Whether the pathogen is sensitive, intermediate, or resistant to the drug.

b)

Whether the drug is available in tablet form only.

c)

Whether the drug is the most expensive option.

d)

Whether the drug has the longest shelf life.

34.

According to the drug selection algorithm, how long will it take for the drug to work?

a)

The time required for the drug to take effect, which varies depending on the drug and infection.

b)

Exactly 24 hours for all drugs.

c)

It always works instantly.

d)

It takes at least one week for every drug.

35.

According to the drug selection algorithm, should the benefits of the drug outweigh the risks?

a)

Yes, the benefits should outweigh the risks.

b)

No, the risks should always outweigh the benefits.

c)

The benefits and risks should be equal.

d)

Risks are not considered in the algorithm.

36.

What does 'Bactericidal' mean?

a)

kill bacteria

b)

produce bacteria

c)

feed on bacteria

d)

protect bacteria

37.

What does 'Bacteriostatic' mean?

a)

Inhibit growth of susceptible bacteria, rather than killing them immediately; will eventually lead to bacterial death

b)

Completely destroy all forms of microbial life, including spores

c)

Cause immediate lysis of bacterial cells

d)

Promote the growth of bacteria in a controlled environment

38.

Fill in the blank: Penicillin and Cephalosporins are examples of ________ antibiotics.

a)

Beta-lactams

b)

Macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Aminoglycosides

39.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Beta-lactams

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

40.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

41.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

42.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Aminoglycosides

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

43.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Quinolones

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

44.

Which of the following is a class of antibiotics?

a)

Sulfonamides

b)

Antivirals

c)

Antifungals

d)

Antiparasitics

45.

Which of the following is a type of Beta-Lactam Antibiotic?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Macrolides

d)

Aminoglycosides

46.

Which structure is common to all Beta-Lactam Antibiotics?

a)

Beta-lactam ring

b)

Pyridine ring

c)

Imidazole ring

d)

Sulfonamide group

47.

All Beta-Lactam Antibiotics have the same structure in their genetic make up called the ________.

a)

beta lactam ring

b)

alpha helix

c)

peptide bond

d)

sulfur bridge

48.

Which of the following is significant for allergies?

a)

Beta-lactam ring

b)

Amino group

c)

Hydroxyl group

d)

Benzene ring

49.

Which of the following is NOT a Beta-Lactam Antibiotic?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Carbapenems

c)

Monobactams

d)

Macrolides

50.

Which of the following is a natural penicillin used for strep throat and syphilis?

a)

Dicloxacillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ampicillin

51.

Which penicillin is used for staph infection?

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Dicloxacillin

c)

Penicillin V

d)

Pirapicillin

52.

Name one extended spectrum penicillin used in hospitals.

a)

Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) or Pirapicillin/Tezobactam (Zosyn)

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Ceftriaxone

53.

Aminopenicillins are commonly used for which type of surgery?

a)

Tooth surgery

b)

Heart surgery

c)

Eye surgery

d)

Brain surgery

54.

Which of the following is NOT an aminopenicillin?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Penicillin V

d)

penicillin family that are structural analogs of ampicillin

55.

Penicillin V is classified as which type of penicillin?

a)

Natural penicillin

b)

Antistaphylococcal penicillin

c)

Extended spectrum penicillin

d)

Aminopenicillin

56.

Fill in the blank: ________ is an antistaphylococcal penicillin used for staph infection.

a)

Dicloxacillin or oxacillin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Vancomycin

57.

Which combination is known as Augmentin?

a)

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

b)

Pirapicillin/Tezobactam

c)

Dicloxacillin/oxacillin

d)

Penicillin G/penicillin V

58.

Penicillins enter the bacteria via the cell wall and bind to penicillin-binding protein to disrupt cell wall synthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Penicillins do NOT kill other cells in the body.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What type of bacteria are penicillins primarily indicated for?

a)

Gram-positive bacteria, including Streptococcus spp., Enterococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp.

b)

Gram-negative bacteria, including Escherichia coli, Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis

d)

Anaerobic protozoa, such as Entamoeba histolytica

61.

Name two drug classes that have interactions with penicillins.

a)

NSAIDs, Oral contraceptives, Warfarin, Others

b)

Antacids, Statins, Beta-blockers, Diuretics

c)

Calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, Nitrates, Digoxin

d)

Antihistamines, Proton pump inhibitors, Antiemetics, Laxatives

62.

Which of the following is NOT listed as an interaction with penicillins?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Oral contraceptives

c)

Warfarin

d)

Insulin

63.

What is the percentage range of allergic reactions to Penicillins in treatment courses?

a)

0.1% to 1%

b)

0.7% to 4%

c)

5% to 10%

d)

10% to 20%

64.

Which of the following are symptoms of allergic reactions to Penicillins?

a)

Urticaria

b)

Pruritus

c)

Angioedema

d)

All of the above

65.

Those allergic to Penicillins have an increased risk of allergy to _______.

a)

beta-lactam antibiotics

b)

macrolide antibiotics

c)

aminoglycoside antibiotics

d)

tetracycline antibiotics

66.

Only patients with a history of throat swelling or hives from penicillin should not receive which class of antibiotics?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Macrolides

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Fluoroquinolones

67.

Common adverse effects of Penicillins include:

a)

Nausea

b)

Vomiting

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Abdominal pain

e)

All of the above

68.

When used for Strep throat, Penicillin needs to be taken completely to avoid which complications?

a)

Rheumatic fever, valvular disease, and glomerulonephritis

b)

Diabetes mellitus and hypertension

c)

Asthma and allergic rhinitis

d)

Osteoporosis and arthritis

69.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Penicillin?

a)

GI distress

b)

Oral or vaginal candidiasis

c)

Generalized rash

d)

Hypertension

70.

Cephalosporins have how many generations?

a)

Five generations

b)

Three generations

c)

Six generations

d)

Two generations

71.

Cephalosporins are:

a)

Natural antibiotics

b)

Semisynthetic antibiotics

c)

Antivirals

d)

Antifungals

72.

Cephalosporins are structurally and pharmacologically related to which class of antibiotics?

a)

Penicillins

b)

Tetracyclines

c)

Macrolides

d)

Aminoglycosides

73.

What type of action do cephalosporins have?

a)

Bactericidal action

b)

Antiviral action

c)

Antifungal action

d)

Antiprotozoal action

74.

Cephalosporins are:

a)

Narrow spectrum

b)

Broad spectrum

c)

No spectrum

d)

Limited spectrum

75.

Cephalosporins are divided into groups according to their antimicrobial activity.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which type of bacterial coverage do first-generation cephalosporins have?

a)

Good gram-negative coverage

b)

Good gram-positive coverage

c)

Poor gram-positive coverage

d)

Poor fungal coverage

77.

First-generation cephalosporins have ______ gram-negative coverage.

a)

Poor

b)

Excellent

c)

Moderate

d)

Extensive

78.

What are first-generation cephalosporins used for?

a)

Viral infections

b)

Surgical prophylaxis and susceptible staphylococcal infections

c)

Fungal infections

d)

Parasitic infections

79.

Which of the following is an example of a first-generation cephalosporin?

a)

cefadroxil (Duricef, Ultracef)

b)

ceftriaxone

c)

cefepime

d)

ceftazidime

80.

Fill in the blank: ______ (Keflex) is a first-generation cephalosporin.

a)

cephalexin

b)

amoxicillin

c)

ciprofloxacin

d)

azithromycin

81.

Which of the following is NOT a first-generation cephalosporin?

a)

cephalexin (Keflex)

b)

cefazolin (Ancef)

c)

cephradine (Velosef)

d)

ceftriaxone

82.

Which type of bacterial coverage is provided by second-generation cephalosporins?

a)

Poor gram-positive coverage

b)

Good gram-positive coverage

c)

No gram-negative coverage

d)

Only anaerobic coverage

83.

Second-generation cephalosporins have better gram-negative coverage than which generation?

a)

First generation

b)

Third generation

c)

Fourth generation

d)

Fifth generation

84.

Fill in the blank: An example of a second-generation cephalosporin is ________.

a)

cefaclor

b)

cephalexin

c)

penicillin

d)

vancomycin

85.

Fill in the blank: ________ (Cefzil) is a second-generation cephalosporin.

a)

cefprozil

b)

cephalexin

c)

ceftriaxone

d)

ceftazidime

86.

Fill in the blank: Cefoxitin is also known as ________.

a)

Mefoxin

b)

Cefotaxime

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Cefazolin

87.

Which of the following is the brand name for cefuroxime?

a)

Ceclor

b)

Cefzil

c)

Zinacef

d)

Cefotan

88.

Which type of bacteria are third-generation cephalosporins excellent for?

a)

Gram-positive bacteria

b)

Gram-negative bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Viruses

89.

Third-generation cephalosporins are less active against which type of bacteria?

a)

Gram-negative bacteria

b)

Gram-positive bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Viruses

90.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a third-generation cephalosporin?

a)

Cefotaxime (Claforan)

b)

Ceftazidime (Fortaz)

c)

Cefdinir (Omnicef)

d)

Amoxicillin

100 %

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