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Chapter 6 Review Assignment

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which image (a, b, or c) shows the sea urchin as a mature multicellular organism?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

2.

What process is being illustrated in these images?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Division

c)

Respiration

3.

A sexually reproducing organism begins as a ______.

a)

zygote

b)

gamete

c)

embryo

d)

spore

4.

Through trillions of controlled cell divisions, the ______ develops into a complex organism.

a)

zygote

b)

mitochondrion

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

5.

All body cells originate from a single cell and carry the ______, the complete set of DNA.

a)

genome

b)

chromosome

c)

enzyme

d)

membrane

6.

The cell cycle is the orderly sequence of stages a cell goes through to ______ and ______.

a)

grow and divide

b)

shrink and disappear

c)

rest and sleep

d)

move and jump

7.

The cell cycle ensures

a)
The storage of genetic information in the nucleus.
b)
The proper division and replication of cells.
c)
The synthesis of proteins in the cytoplasm.
d)
The growth of tissues in plants.
8.

The cell cycle includes which of the following phases?

a)

G1, S, G2, and M phases

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

c)

Interphase, Cytokinesis, Apoptosis

d)

G0, G1, S, and Z phases

9.

Cancer arises when the cell cycle is ______, leading to uncontrolled cell growth.

a)

disrupted

b)

regulated

c)

shortened

d)

completed

10.

Mutations in genes regulating the cell cycle (like tumor suppressors or proto-oncogenes) can lead to ______ formation.

a)

tumor

b)

enzyme

c)

hormone

d)

membrane

11.

The process by which cancer cells divide rapidly and invade other tissues is called:

a)

Metastasis

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Fermentation

12.

Prokaryotes (e.g., bacteria) divide using ______, a simpler process than mitosis.

a)

binary fission

b)

meiosis

c)

budding

d)

fragmentation

13.

In binary fission, the circular DNA replicates, and the cell splits into two ______ identical cells.

a)

genetically

b)

physically

c)

chemically

d)

mechanically

14.

Binary fission is used for ______ reproduction in single-celled organisms.

a)

asexual

b)

sexual

c)

vegetative

d)

spore

15.

Which of the following best describes the cell cycle?

a)

A random process of cell growth

b)

An orderly sequence of events from one cell division to the next

c)

A process unique to animals

d)

A process that only occurs in plants

16.

The process of the cell cycle is highly conserved across which types of eukaryotic life?

a)

Only plants and animals

b)

Only plants

c)

Protists, plants, fungi, and animals

d)

Only fungi

17.

How many pairs of homologous chromosomes are there in a female human somatic cell?

a)

23 pairs

b)

22 pairs

c)

46 pairs

d)

21 pairs

18.

What is the definition of a genome?

a)

A cell’s full complement of DNA.

b)

A type of protein found in cells.

c)

The process of cell division.

d)

A segment of RNA in the nucleus.

19.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic genomes?

a)

Single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule

b)

Located in the nucleoid

c)

Composed of multiple linear DNA molecules

d)

May contain plasmids

20.

Where is the DNA located in prokaryotic cells?

a)

In the nucleoid.

b)

In the mitochondria.

c)

In the nucleus.

d)

In the endoplasmic reticulum.

21.

What are plasmids?

a)

Small, non-essential DNA loops found in prokaryotic genomes.

b)

Large, essential chromosomes found in eukaryotic cells.

c)

Proteins that catalyze metabolic reactions.

d)

Organelles responsible for energy production.

22.

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic genomes is TRUE?

a)

DNA is single and circular

b)

DNA is bound with proteins to form chromosomes

c)

DNA is located in the nucleoid

d)

Eukaryotic genomes may contain plasmids

23.

How many chromosomes do humans have in their somatic cells?

a)

46 chromosomes.

b)

23 chromosomes.

c)

92 chromosomes.

d)

44 chromosomes.

24.

Somatic cells are ______ (2n) — two sets of chromosomes.

a)

diploid

b)

haploid

c)

polyploid

d)

monoploid

25.

Gametes (egg and sperm) are ______ (n) — one set of 23 chromosomes.

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

polyploid

d)

triploid

26.

What is the result of the cell cycle?

a)

Two genetically different daughter cells

b)

Two genetically identical daughter cells

c)

Four genetically identical daughter cells

d)

Four genetically different daughter cells

27.

The two main phases of the cell cycle are:

a)

Prophase and Metaphase

b)

Interphase and Mitotic phase

c)

Anaphase and Telophase

d)

Cytokinesis and S phase

28.

The cell cycle is a regulated series of stages that result in the formation of two ________ identical daughter cells.

a)

genetically

b)

physically

c)

chemically

d)

structurally

29.

Which phase of the cell cycle involves DNA replication?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

Mitosis

30.

During which process is the cytoplasm divided to form two daughter cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase

d)

DNA synthesis

31.

According to the diagram, which phase comes immediately after G2?

a)

S phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

Mitotic phase

d)

Cytokinesis

32.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of Interphase?

a)

G1 phase

b)

S phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

Mitosis

33.

What essential process occurs during S phase of Interphase (before mitosis)?

a)
Protein synthesis occurs.
b)
Cell division begins.
c)
Chromosome condensation happens.
d)
DNA replication occurs.
34.

What happens during the G2 phase of Interphase?

a)

The cell grows and performs normal functions

b)

DNA is replicated

c)

The cell prepares for mitosis, making final preparations for division

d)

Chromosomes are separated

35.

After the S-phase, each chromosome is made of two ______.

a)

sister chromatids (duplicated chromosomes)

b)

centromeres

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

telomeres

36.

What is the function of centrioles during cell division?

a)

They replicate DNA

b)

They help organize cell division

c)

They synthesize proteins

d)

They form the nuclear envelope

37.

Centrioles are not present in the centrosomes of many eukaryotic species, such as ______ and most fungi.

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

bacteria

d)

protists

38.

What are the two parts into which the M-phase is divided?

a)

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase and Telophase

c)

Interphase and Metaphase

d)

Anaphase and S phase

39.

Which of the following is the correct order of progression through mitosis?

a)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Prometaphase

b)

Prophase, Prometaphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

c)

Prometaphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

d)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Prometaphase, Telophase

40.

What is the division of the cytoplasm and its contents called?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Karyokinesis

41.

During which phase does DNA synthesis occur?

a)

S phase (during Interphase)

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

M phase

42.

Mitosis is the division of the cytoplasm and its contents.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which stage of mitosis is characterized by chromosomes condensing and becoming visible, spindle fibers emerging from the centrosomes, nuclear envelope breaking down, and centrosomes moving toward opposite poles?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

44.

During which stage of mitosis do kinetochores appear at the centromeres and mitotic spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores?

a)

Prometaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

45.

In _______, chromosomes are lined up in the middle of the cell.

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

prophase

46.

Which stage of mitosis involves centromeres splitting in two and sister chromatids being pulled toward opposite poles?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

47.

During telophase, the nuclear envelope material surrounds each set of chromosomes and the mitotic spindle breaks down.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

In animal cells, what structure separates the daughter cells during cytokinesis?

a)

A cleavage furrow

b)

A cell plate

c)

A spindle fiber

d)

A nucleolus

49.

During prophase, the _______ begins to dissolve by breaking into small vesicles.

a)

nuclear envelope

b)

cell membrane

c)

mitochondria

d)

Golgi apparatus

50.

What begins forming during prophase?

a)

Cell wall

b)

Mitotic spindle

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Ribosomes

51.

What happens to the nuclear envelope during prometaphase?

a)

It thickens

b)

It disappears completely

c)

It divides into two

d)

It becomes more visible

52.

During prometaphase, the mitotic spindle continues to develop. What forms and stretches across the cell?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Microtubules

c)

Centromeres

d)

Nuclei

53.

During prometaphase, chromosomes condense further and become more _______.

a)
invisible
b)
disorganized
c)
unstructured
d)
visible
54.

Each sister chromatid attaches to spindle microtubules during prometaphase. Where does this attachment occur?

a)

Telomere

b)

Centromere

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosome

55.

What is the name of the protein complex that attaches sister chromatids to spindle microtubules during prometaphase?

a)

Centrosome

b)

Kinetochore

c)

Ribosome

d)

Lysosome

56.

During prometaphase, kinetochores appear at the centromeres.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which of the following occurs during metaphase?

a)

Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (equatorial plane)

b)

Chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles

c)

Nuclear envelope reforms

d)

DNA replicates

58.

During metaphase, sister chromatids remain ______ attached.

a)

tightly

b)

loosely

c)

rarely

d)

barely

59.

Chromosomes are maximally condensed during metaphase.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is the function of spindle fibers during metaphase?

a)

They attach to each sister chromatid from opposite poles

b)

They dissolve the nuclear envelope

c)

They replicate DNA

d)

They condense the chromosomes

61.

During anaphase, what happens to the sister chromatids at the centromeres?

a)

They stay together

b)

They separate at centromeres

c)

They disappear

d)

They form new nuclei

62.

In anaphase, chromosomes are pulled toward ________ centrosomes.

a)

opposite

b)

adjacent

c)

same

d)

central

63.

During anaphase, the cell elongates as non-kinetochore microtubules slide past each other.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What are sister chromatids considered after they separate at the centromere during anaphase?

a)

Still chromatids

b)

Individual chromosomes

c)

Centrosomes

d)

Spindle fibers

65.

During telophase, chromosomes reach ________ poles.

a)

opposite

b)

adjacent

c)

central

d)

same

66.

What happens to chromosomes during telophase?

a)

They condense further

b)

They begin to decondense (unravel)

c)

They break apart

d)

They disappear

67.

The mitotic spindle disassembles during telophase.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

What happens to the nuclear envelope during telophase?

a)

It dissolves

b)

It reforms around each set of chromosomes

c)

It breaks into pieces

d)

It merges with the cell membrane

69.

The components of the mitotic spindle are reused for the cytoskeleton in daughter cells during telophase.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

What is the second part of the mitotic phase called?

a)

Prophase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

71.

Cytokinesis completes cell division by physically separating cytoplasmic components.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The process of cytokinesis varies between animal and plant cells due to the presence or absence of ________.

a)

cell walls

b)

nuclei

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

73.

In animal cells, cytokinesis begins after the onset of ________.

a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telophase
74.

What is the contractile ring in animal cell cytokinesis composed of?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Actin filaments

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Myosin

75.

In animal cells, a ________ separates the daughter cells, while in plant cells, a ________ separates the daughter cells.

a)

cleavage furrow; cell plate

b)

cell plate; cleavage furrow

c)

nucleus; mitochondria

d)

spindle fiber; chloroplast

76.

Why can't a cleavage furrow form during cytokinesis in plant cells?

a)

Due to the presence of a contractile ring

b)

Due to rigid cell wall

c)

Due to lack of Golgi apparatus

d)

Due to absence of microtubules

77.

What is required for the separation of daughter cells in plant cell cytokinesis?

a)

Formation of a new cell wall between daughter cells is required.

b)

Breakdown of the nuclear membrane is required.

c)

Fusion of the two daughter nuclei is required.

d)

Disintegration of the plasma membrane is required.

78.

During telophase in plant cell cytokinesis, what structure forms as Golgi vesicles move along microtubules to the metaphase plate?

a)

Cell plate

b)

Cleavage furrow

c)

Spindle fiber

d)

Centrosome

79.

Vesicles fuse from the center outward during the formation of the _______ in plant cell cytokinesis.

a)

cell plate

b)

spindle fiber

c)

nuclear envelope

d)

centrosome

80.

What is the G₀ phase in the cell cycle?

a)

A phase where cells are actively dividing

b)

A quiescent (inactive) state where cells exit the cycle and do not prepare to divide

c)

The phase where DNA is replicated

d)

The phase where cells undergo mitosis

81.

Cells in the G₀ phase are not actively preparing to _______.

a)

divide

b)

grow

c)

differentiate

d)

die

82.

Which of the following cell types is most likely to remain in G₀ permanently?

a)

Skin cells

b)

Mature cardiac muscle cells

c)

Liver cells

d)

Epithelial cells

83.
  1. Which of the following statements are typical for cancer cells?

a)

They tend to be unspecialized.

b)

They undergo apoptosis.

c)

They may form tumors that metastasize.

d)

They have defective genes.

84.

Cells spend most of their lives in which phase?

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

85.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
86.

Use the illustration above to identify the anaphase.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

What is the role of tumor suppressor genes in the regulation of the cancer cell cycle?

a)

They form the mitotic spindle

b)

They synthesize proteins for mitosis

c)

They repair DNA damage and inhibit cell cycle progression if errors are detected

d)

They promote cell division

88.

What is the primary function of the p53 protein in cells?

a)

Formation of the mitotic spindle

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Regulation of the cell cycle and induction of apoptosis

89.

Which of the following is a key difference between normal cells and cancer cells regarding cell division?

a)

Normal cells divide uncontrollably, while cancer cells divide in a regulated manner.

b)

Neither cancer nor normal cells divide.

c)

Cancer cells divide uncontrollably, while normal cells divide in a regulated manner.

d)

Both cancer and normal cells divide uncontrollably.

90.

Unregulated cell division in cancer is often caused by mutations in which type of genes?

a)

Transporter genes

b)

Ribosomal genes

c)

Oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes

d)

Photosynthesis genes