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WorksheetsASSESSMENT EXAM MODULE 4-8 IS
Total questions: 91
Worksheet time: 42mins
Key reactants in Type 4 Hypersensitivity.
Mast cells and Basophils
CD8 T cells
CD4 T cells
IgE
Effector cells in Type I hypersensitivity
IgG and IgM
IgE
Basophils and Mast cells
CD4 T cells
The least expensive and most specific type of hypersensitivity testing is?
In Vivo
In Vitro
Microarray testing
All of the above
It involves measurement of either total IgE or antigen specific IgE.
In Vivo
In Vitro
Microarray testing
Skin testing
It serves as a screening test to determine total IgE present in case of hypersensitivity.
Microarray testing
Radioimmunosorbent test
Radioallergosorbent test
Cutaneous testing
Which of the following is a general characteristic of hypersensitivity reactions?
Immune responsiveness is depressed.
Antibody is involved in all reactions
Either self-antigen or heterologous antigen may be
involved.
The antigen triggering the reaction is a harmful
one.
Which of the following is associated with an increase in IgE production?
Transfusion reaction
Activation of Th1 cells
Reaction to poison ivy
HDN
Which of the following would cause a positive DAT test?
Presence of IgG on red cells
Presence of C3b or C3d on red cells
A transfusion reaction due to preformed
antibody
Any of the above
All of the following are associated with type of hypersensitivity except
release of preformed mediators from mast cells.
activation of complement
cell-bound antibody bridged by antigen
an inherited tendency to respond to allergens
Which newly synthesized mediator has a mode of action similar to that of histamine?
LTB4
Heparin
ECF-A
PGD2
Which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis?
Buildup of IgE on mast cells
Activation of complement
Increase in cytotoxic T cells
Large amount of circulating IgG
To determine if a patient is allergic to rye grass, the best test to perform is
total IgE testing
skin prick test
DAT
complement fixation
Which condition would result in HDN?
Buildup of IgE on mother’s cells
Sensitization of cytotoxic T cells
Exposure to antigen found on both mother and
baby red cells
Prior exposure to foreign red cell antigen
What is the immune mechanism involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions
Cellular antigens are involved
Deposition of immune complexes occurs in antibody
excess.
Only heterologous antigens are involved
Tissue damage results from exocytosis
What is the immune phenomenon associated with the Arthus reaction?
Tissue destruction by cytotoxic T cells
Removal of antibody-coated red blood cells
Deposition of immune complexes in blood vessels
Release of histamine from mast cells
Contact dermatitis can be characterized by all of the following except
formation of antigen–antibody complexes
generation of sensitized T cells
Langerhans cells acting as antigen-presenting cells
complexing of a hapten to self-antigen
Which of the following explains the difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity reactions?
Type II involves cellular antigens
Type III involves IgE
IgG is involved only in type III reactions
Type II reactions involve no antibody
All of the following may contribute to autoimmunity
except
clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells
molecular mimicry
new expression of class II MHC antigens
polyclonal activation of B cells
Which of the following would be considered an organ specific autoimmune disease?
SLE
RA
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Goodpasture’s syndrome
SLE can be distinguished from RA on the basis of which
of the following?
Joint pain
Presence of antinuclear antibodies
Immune complex formation with activation of complement
Presence of anti-ds DNA antibodies
Which of the following would support a diagnosis of
drug-induced lupus?
Antihistone antibodies
Antibodies to Smith antigen
Presence of RF
Antibodies to SS-A and SS-B antigens
Which of the following is characteristic of RA?
Association with certain HLA-DR genes
Joint involvement that is symmetric
Presence of antibody against IgG
All of the above
None of the above
A homogeneous pattern of staining of the nucleus on IIF
may be caused by which of the following antibodies?
Anti-Sm antibody
Anti-SSA/Ro antibody
Antihistone antibody
Anti–double-stranded DNA
Which of the following best describes the slide agglutination test for RF?
It is specific for RA
negative test rules out the possibility of RA.
It is a sensitive screening tool
It detects IgG made against IgM.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can best be differentiated from
Graves’ disease on the basis of which of the following?
Decrease in thyroid hormone levels
Presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies
Enlargement of the thyroid
Presence of lymphocytes in the thyroid
Which of the following would be considered a significant
finding in Graves’ disease?
Increased TSH levels
Antibody to TSHR
Decreased T3 and T4
Antithyroglobulin antibody
Immunologic findings in type I diabetes mellitus include all of the following except
presence of CD8 T cells in the islets of
Langerhans
antibody to colloid
antibody to insulin
antibody to GAD
Destruction of the myelin sheath of axons caused by the
presence of antibody is characteristic of which disease?
Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia Gravis
Graves’ disease
Goodpasture’s syndrome
Blood was drawn from a 25-year-old woman with suspected SLE. A FANA screen was performed, and a
speckled pattern resulted. Which of the following
actions should be taken next?
Report out as diagnostic for SLE
Report out as drug-induced lupus
Perform an antibody profile
Repeat the test
It is a marked deficiency of all classes of immunoglobulins is detected after about 6 months of age.
(a)
Hyyper IgM syndrome occurs due to defect in (a) on T helper cells that prevents class switching from IgM to IgG , IgA or IgE.
A disorder wherein patients has small amount or absence of serum and secretory IgA.
(a)
Medical term that refers to a neurological sign consisting of lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements.
(a)
A condition in which widened venules cause threadlike red lines or patterns on the skin.
(a)
Also known as 22 q 11 2 deletion syndrome where thymus develops abnormally during embryogenes.
(a)
It is a group of disease, with different causes, that affect T
and B cell function.
(a)
Which conditions causes beta-gamma bridging during serum electrophoresis?
Chronic Myelogeneous leukemia
Acute Hepatitis
Alcoholic Cirrhosis
Multiple Myeloma
Which protein is found on the urine of patient with multiple myeloma?
(a)
It is an uncontrolled proliferation of a clone B cells that
synthesize a homogenous IgM.
Multiple Myeloma
Lymphoma
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
SLE
It is the process of eliminating any developing T or B lymphocytes that are reactive to self.
Peripheral tolerance
Central Tolerance
Immune Surveillance
Polyclonal surveillance
All of the following are risk mechanisms that contribute to autoimmunity except?
Hormones
Environment
Release of sequestered antigen
Normal Central Tolerance
Major Histocompatability Complex
Uncontrolled cell multiplication cause
Cell growth
Cell development
Cancer growth
Cell death
Lymphoma proliferate as
Solid tumors
Cancer
Immunity
Cell death
What does the Romanian Orthodox Church about organ donation?
They totally agree with it. People are encouraged to donate their organs for the benefit of the donor.
They partially agree with it. The Church states that no human life should be terminated in order to save another.
I did not pay attention.
Both Romanian and Greek Churches entirely support organ transplantation.
When was the first successful kidney transplant performed?
1934
1954
1989
2000
What does an isograft involve?
It is a transplant of an organ or tissue between two genetically non-identical members of the same species.
Organs or tissues are transplanted from a donor to a genetically identical recipient (such as an identical twin).
It is the transplant of tissue to the same person.
It is a transplant of organs or tissue from one species to another.
What does a xenotransplantation involve?
It is a transplant of organs or tissue from one species to another.
Organs or tissues are transplanted from a donor to a genetically identical recipient (such as an identical twin).
It is a transplant of an organ or tissue between two genetically non-identical members of the same species.
It is the transplant of tissue to the same person
Which type of hypersensitivity involves T cells?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
"Immune complexes" is related to which type of hypersensitivity?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which type of hypersensitivity involves IgG & IgM?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which types of hypersensitivity involves the mechanism of sensitization and activation?
Type I & II
Type II & III
Type III & IV
Type IV & I
Which type of hypersensitivity also known as allergy?
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Which of the following is not preformed mediators?
Leukotriene
Heparin
Histamine
Serotonin
Which of the following are the examples of Type 1 Anaphylactic Hypersensitivity ?
Allergic rhinitis
Poly arteritis nodosa
Tuberculin hypersensitivity
Atopic dermatitis
Contact dermatitis
The persistence of the immune complex and their deposition in tissue can trigger an acute inflammatory response resulting in immunological reaction .
This best describe for which type of sensitivity ?
Type 1
Type 2
Type 3
Type 4
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction will lead to release of pharmacologically active mediators ?
Immune complex hypersensitivity
Cell-mediated (Delayed) hypersensitivity
Anaphylactic (Immediate) hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Which hypersensitivity reaction will cause granuloma formation when the antigen cannot be destroy?
Immune complex hypersensitivity
Cell-mediated (Delayed) hypersensitivity
Anaphylactic (Immediate) hypersensitivity
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
This refers to the fact that many individual viral or bacterial agents contain antigens that closely resemble self antigens.
(a)
In this disease, there is there is a strong association with HLA DR and DQ especially in whites.
RA
SLE
Sjogren Syndrome
Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia Gravis
In this disease, there is there is a strong association with HLA DR4 allelles.
RA
SLE
Sjogren Syndrome
Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia Gravis
All of the following are specific symptoms of RA except?
subcutaneous nodules
swelling of the soft tissue around three or more joints
morning stiffness around the joints lasting at least 1 hour
butterfly rash on the face
radiographic evidence of erosions in the joints of the hands, the
wrists, or both
Autoantibody for Primary Biliary Cirrhosis
(a)
Ankylosing Spondylitis
HLA DR3
HLA DR4
HLA B27
HLA DR DQ
Dermatitis Herpetiformis
HLA DR3
HLA DR4
HLA B27
HLA DR DQ
Found in all nucleated cells
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
MHC Class III
None of the above
Mainly bind exogenous peptides, which are antigens taken from the outside of the cell and then degraded by the cell
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
MHC Class III
None of the above
Include complement components, C2, C4a, C4b, factor B and cytokines such as TNF
MHC Class I
MHC Class II
MHC Class III
None of the above
It is the largest immunologic barrier to successful allogeneic organ transplantation.
HLA
ABO
Rh
Other major blood group system
It is the transfer of cells or tissues between identical twins
Autograft
Syngeneic graft
Allograft
Xenograft
It is the transfer of cells or tissues between two individuals of the same species.
Autograft
Syngeneic graft
Allograft
Xenograft
On this process, recipient T cells bind and respond directly to foreign HLA proteins on graft cells
Direct allorecognition
Indirect allorecognition
Central allorecognition
Peripheral allorecognition
Which of the following organs is the most immunogenic when transplanted?
Heart
Kidney
Bone Liver
It is an antibody-mediated rejection that takes place over several days.
Hyperacute rejection
Accelerated Rejection
Acute Rejections
Delayed Rejections
These antigens are unique to tumor cells.
Oncofetal antigens
Tumor associated antigens
Tumor specific antigens
All of the above
These are antigens present in the tumor tissue in higher amounts than in normal tissue
Oncofetal antigens
Tumor associated antigens
Tumor specific antigens
All of the above
Marker for ovarian cancer.
Her 2-neu
CA 15-3
CA 19-9
CA 125
Marker for colon cancer
BRACA 1
CA 15-3
CA 19-9
CEA
Specific marker for prostate cancer
ACP
PSA
hCG
CA 15-3
Marker for hepatocellular carcinoma
BRACA 1
Her 2-neu
CA 15-3
CEA
AFP
Serves as marker for medullary thyroid carcinoma
hcG
PSA
AFP
CEA
Calcitonin
Marker for pancreatic cancer
CA 19-9
Her 2-neu
CA 15-3
CEA
AFP
Cells are malignant and tries to invade normal tissues
Induction phase
In situ phase
Invasion phase
Dissemination phase
When neoplastic cells have formed but are confined to the tissue of origin.
(a)
Identify the disorder: Antibodies to TSH receptors
(a)
Identify the disorder: Anti-myelin sheath antibody
(a)
Identify the disorder: Anti-acetylcholine receptor
(a)
Identify the disorder: anti-parietal cell antibody
(a)
Identify the disorder: Anti-mithochondrial antibodies
(a)
It is the lead marker for detection of RA.
(a)
Identify the disorder: Anti-smooth muscle
(a)
List at least 10 organs that can be transplanted.
