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MEDL 279 Hematology Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fill in the blank: Prenatal hematopoiesis in the yolk sac occurs at ______ months.

a)

0-2

b)

2-4

c)

4-6

d)

6-8

2.

Fill in the blank: Prenatal hematopoiesis in the spleen occurs at ______ months.

a)

2-5

b)

1-2

c)

7-9

d)

10-12

3.

Fill in the blank: Prenatal hematopoiesis in the liver occurs at ______ months.

a)

2-7

b)

1-2

c)

8-10

d)

10-12

4.

Fill in the blank: Prenatal hematopoiesis in the bone marrow starts at ______ months on.

a)

5

b)

3

c)

9

d)

12

5.

Which of the following is NOT a site of adult hematopoiesis?

a)

Skull

b)

Sternum

c)

Falange's

d)

Vertebrae

6.

Which of the following is the correct order of erythroid cell maturation from youngest to most mature?

a)

A) Pronormoblast(Rubriblast), Basophilic normoblast(Prorubricyte), Polychromtaic normoblast(rubricyte), Orthochromic normoblast(metarubricyte), Polychromatic Erythrocyte, Erythrocyte

b)

B) Pronormoblast(Rubriblast), Basophilic normoblast(Prorubricyte), normoblast(rubricyte), Orthochromic normoblast(metarubricyte), Polychromatic Erythrocyte, Erythrocyte

c)

C) Polychromatic Erythrocyte, ErythrocyteBasophilic normoblast(Prorubricyte), Polychromtaic normoblast(rubricyte), Orthochromic normoblast(metarubricyte),Pronormoblast(Rubriblast)

d)

D) Erythrocyte, Polychromatic Erythrocyte, Orthochromic normoblast(metarubricyte), Polychromtaic normoblast(rubricyte), Basophilic normoblast(Prorubricyte), Pronormoblast(Rubriblast)

7.

Fill in the blank: The hematopoietic stem cell gives rise to CFU-E, which matures into ______.

a)

Erythrocyte

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Platelet

d)

Monocyte

8.

Which of the following is NOT a stage in granulocyte maturation?

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Promyelocyte

c)

Reticuloblast

d)

Band Neutrophil

9.

What protein is responsible for iron transport in the blood?

a)

Transferrin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Albumin

d)

Ferritin

10.

Which protein is the major iron storage form in the body?

a)

Ferritin

b)

Albumin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

11.

What is the H2O insoluble iron storage form called?

a)

Hemosiderin

b)

Ferritin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Hemoglobin

12.

What condition is caused by excess iron stored in tissues and body organs, leading to tissue damage?

a)

Hemochromatosis

b)

Anemia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Osteoporosis

13.

Porphyria's enzyme deficiencies cause build-up of heme precursors, resulting in what color urine?

a)

Red or port wine colored urine

b)

Green colored urine

c)

Blue colored urine

d)

Milky white urine

14.

What are the early symptoms of porphyria's enzyme deficiencies?

a)

Neuropsychiatric symptoms

b)

Skin rash

c)

Joint pain

d)

Visual disturbances

15.

What are the late symptoms of porphyria's enzyme deficiencies?

a)

Cutaneous symptoms such as photosensitivity and facial hair

b)

Severe joint pain and swelling

c)

Sudden loss of vision

d)

Persistent cough and chest pain

16.

Which of the following is NOT a heme precursor?

a)

Delta-aminolaevulinic acid

b)

Porphobilinogen

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Uroporphyrinogen

17.

What is the composition of adult hemoglobin (Hgb A)?

a)

Alpha 2 & Beta 2

b)

Alpha 2 & Gamma 2

c)

Alpha 2 & Delta 2

d)

Beta 2 & Gamma 2

18.

What is the composition of newborn hemoglobin (Hgb F)?

a)

Alpha 2 & Gamma 2

b)

Alpha 2 & Beta 2

c)

Alpha 2 & Delta 2

d)

Alpha 2 & Epsilon 2

19.

What is the normal reference range for hemoglobin in males?

a)

10 +/- 2 g/dL

b)

16 +/- 2 g/dL

c)

20 +/- 2 g/dL

d)

14 +/- 2 g/dL

20.

What is the normal reference range for hemoglobin in females?

a)

10 +/- 2 g/dL

b)

16 +/- 2 g/dL

c)

14 +/- 2 g/dL

d)

12 +/- 2 g/dL

21.

What is the normal reference range for hematocrit in males?

a)

47 +/- 5%

b)

42 +/- 5%

c)

37 +/- 5%

d)

52 +/- 5%

22.

What is the normal reference range for hematocrit in females?

a)

A) 47 +/- 5%

b)

B) 42 +/- 5%

c)

C) 37 +/- 5%

d)

D) 52 +/- 5%

23.

Which anticoagulant is used in the blue top tube for lab procedures?

a)

Heparin

b)

Sodium Citrate

c)

EDTA

d)

Potassium ferricyanide

24.

Fill in the blank: The conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin is done by potassium cyanide and _________

a)

potassium ferricyanide

b)

potassium dichromate

c)

sodium chloride

d)

magnesium sulfate

25.

Which of the following is NOT a potential error in hemoglobin measurement?

a)

A) Lipemia/icterus

b)

B) High WBC count

c)

C) Hemoglobin variants SS, SC

d)

D) Cold agglutinins

26.

Which of the following is a potential error in the microhematocrit method?

a)

Failure to seal tube

b)

Use of sodium citrate

c)

Use of potassium ferricyanide

d)

Use of 1% ammonium oxalate

27.

What is the dilution ratio for WBC/Platelet count using 1% ammonium oxalate?

a)

1:10

b)

1:100

c)

1:1000

d)

1:10000

28.

What is the reference range for WBC count according to our textbook?

a)

3.6-10.6/uL

b)

4.8-12.8/uL

c)

1.5-10.5/uL

d)

10.6-18.6/uL

29.

What is the basic reference range for platelet count according to the worksheet?

a)

150,000-450,000/uL

b)

50,000-100,000/uL

c)

500,000-700,000/uL

d)

10,000-50,000/uL

30.

The reference range for RBC in males is:

a)

4.7-6.1 million/µL

b)

3.5-5.0 million/µL

c)

6.5-8.0 million/µL

d)

2.0-4.0 million/µL

31.

The reference range for RBC in females is:

a)

3.8-5.8 million/µL

b)

4.5-6.5 million/µL

c)

2.5-4.5 million/µL

d)

5.0-7.0 million/µL

32.

The function of Neutrophils is:

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Phagocytosis of pathogens

d)

Production of antibodies

33.

The function of Lymphocytes is:

a)

Transport oxygen

b)

Humoral & Cell mediated immunity

c)

Allergic response regulator

d)

Inflammatory response mediator

34.

The function of Monocytes is:

a)

Oxygen transport

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Phagocytosis of pathogens

d)

Production of antibodies

35.

The function of Basophils is:

a)

Phagocytosis of bacteria

b)

Production of antibodies

c)

Release of histamine and heparin

d)

Transport of oxygen

36.

The function of Eosinophils is:

a)

Phagocytosis of bacteria

b)

Production of antibodies

c)

Destruction of parasitic worms and modulation of allergic responses

d)

Blood clotting

37.

What is the formula for calculating the cell count using a hemocytometer?

a)

Total Cells = # of cells X dilution factor / area X depth

b)

Total Cells = number of cells x dilution factor

c)

Total Cells = area x depth / number of cells

d)

Total Cells = dilution factor X area / # of cells X depth

38.

How many squares are counted for a WBC count in a hemocytometer?

a)

9 squares

b)

4 squares

c)

16 squares

d)

25 squares

39.

How many squares are counted for a platelet count in a hemocytometer?

a)

25 squares in center larger square

b)

16 small squares in the corner

c)

9 large squares in the entire grid

d)

5 small squares in the center

40.

What are the sources of error in Wright stain during blood smear examination?

a)

Stain red pH of buffer or stain too acidic, prolonged washing; Stain blue pH of buffer or stain too basic, prolonged staining

b)

Stain red due to excessive heat, stain blue due to insufficient drying

c)

Stain red due to high humidity, stain blue due to low humidity

d)

Stain red due to over-fixation, stain blue due to under-fixation

41.

How do you calculate the absolute value in leukocyte differential?

a)

Relative value (%) X Total WBC count

b)

Total WBC count / Relative value (%)

c)

Relative value (%) + Total WBC count

d)

Relative value (%) - Total WBC count

42.

Match the following WBC morphologies with their associated conditions:
Which of the following is associated with Hypersegmented Neutrophils?

a)

Megaloblastic anemia

b)

Myelodysplastic syndrome

c)

Bacterial infection

d)

Viral infection

43.

What is the average number of platelets per oil immersion field multiplied by to estimate platelet count?

a)

20,000

b)

10,000

c)

5,000

d)

50,000

44.

If platelets seem low during a platelet estimate, what should be done?

a)

Repeat the estimate and check for clumping

b)

Ignore the result

c)

Increase the sample volume

d)

Report immediately without verification

45.

How do you correct WBC count in the presence of NRBCs?

a)

WBC count x 100 / (100 + #NRBC) = corrected count

b)

WBC count x (100 + #NRBC) / 100 = corrected count

c)

WBC count / (100 + #NRBC) x 100 = corrected count

d)

WBC count + #NRBC x 100 = corrected count

46.

What is the MCV range for normocytic RBCs?

a)

80-100 fl

b)

60-75 fl

c)

100-120 fl

d)

50-65 fl

47.

What is the MCV value for microcytic RBCs?

a)

MCV < 80

b)

MCV > 100

c)

MCV 80-100

d)

MCV = 100

48.

What is the MCV value for macrocytic cells?

a)

MCV > 100

b)

MCV < 80

c)

MCV 80-100

d)

MCV = 100

49.

What does anisocytosis refer to?

a)

Variation in cell size

b)

Increase in cell number

c)

Decrease in cell size

d)

Change in cell shape

50.

Which of the following describes normochromic cells?

a)

MCHC of 32-36g/dL

b)

MCHC of < 32

c)

MCHC of > 36

51.

Which of the following describes hypochromic cells?

a)

MCHC of 32-36g/dL

b)

MCHC of < 32

c)

MCHC of > 36

52.

Which of the following describes RBC cells with a MCHC higher than 36g/dL?

a)

Spherocytic

b)

Hypochromic

c)

Normochromic

d)

Hyperchromic

53.

What is polychromasia?

a)

Blue color in the RBC

b)

Increase in WBC count

c)

Decrease in platelet count

d)

Yellow color in the plasma

54.

What is poikilocytosis?

a)

Variation in cell shape

b)

Increase in cell number

c)

Decrease in cell size

d)

Presence of immature cells

55.

Which crystal is bar shaped?

a)

HbC

b)

HbSC

c)

HbA

d)

HbF

56.

Which crystal is described as 'Hand in glove' or 'Washington monument morphology'?

a)

HbC

b)

HbSC

c)

HbA

d)

HbF

57.

Pernicious anemia is:

a)

A deficiency of vitamin B12 due to lack of intrinsic factor

b)

A type of iron deficiency anemia

c)

Anemia caused by chronic blood loss

d)

Anemia due to folic acid deficiency

58.

Red Cell Inclusions: What is the composition of Howell-jolly bodies?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Iron

d)

Hemoglobin

59.

Red Cell Inclusions: Which stain is used for Basophilic stippling?

a)

Wright/New Methylene blue

b)

Sudan Black B

c)

Prussian Blue

d)

Periodic Acid-Schiff (PAS)

60.

Red Cell Inclusions: What is the indication for the presence of Pappenheimer bodies?

a)

Sideroblastic anemia, Hemoglobinopathies

b)

Iron deficiency anemia

c)

Hereditary spherocytosis

d)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

61.

Red Cell Inclusions: Heinz Bodies are composed of what?

a)

Denatured precipitated hemoglobin

b)

Aggregated ribosomal RNA

c)

Iron granules (siderotic granules)

d)

Nuclear remnants (Howell-Jolly bodies)

62.

Red Cell Inclusions: Cabot Ring is an inclusion composed of remnants of what?

a)

Remnants of mitotic spindle

b)

Remnants of ribosomal RNA

c)

Remnants of nuclear envelope

d)

Remnants of hemoglobin

63.

Red Cell Inclusions: Which inclusion is associated with parasitic infection?

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Heinz bodies

d)

Pappenheimer bodies

64.

Which stain is used to identify Pappenheimer bodies?

a)

Prussian blue

b)

Giemsa stain

c)

Sudan Black B

d)

Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)

65.

Which red cell inclusion is an indication of G6PD deficiency or Thalassemia?

a)

Heinz Bodies

b)

Howell-Jolly bodies

c)

Basophilic stippling

d)

Pappenheimer bodies

66.

What is the Rule of Three in hematology?

a)

Hb x 3 = Hct +/- 3%

b)

RBC x 3 = Hb +/- 3%

c)

WBC x 3 = Platelets +/- 3%

d)

MCV x 3 = MCH +/- 3%

67.

Which of the following is NOT a source of error in the Rule of Three?

a)

Clotted sample

b)

Cold agglutinin

c)

Normal sample

d)

Lipemic, icteric, or grossly hemolyzed sample

68.

What does ESR measure?

a)

The rate of fall of RBCs through plasma.

b)

The amount of hemoglobin in blood.

c)

The number of white blood cells.

d)

The clotting time of blood.

69.

What is the basic reference range for ESR in males?

a)

0-15 mm/hr

b)

0-20 mm/hr

c)

15-30 mm/hr

d)

5-25 mm/hr

70.

What is the basic reference range for ESR in females?

a)

0-20 mm/hr

b)

0-10 mm/hr

c)

20-40 mm/hr

d)

10-30 mm/hr

71.

Which of the following is a potential error that can increase ESR?

a)

Decrease in temperature

b)

Increase in tilting tube, standing too long, increase in temperatures, excess EDTA ratio

c)

QNS specimens

d)

None of the above

72.

Which stains are used for retic count?

a)

New methylene blue

b)

Brilliant cresyl blue

c)

Brom cresol green

d)

None of the above

73.

What is the formula for calculating % retic?

a)

# retics in 1000 RBC's / 10

b)

# retics in 100 RBC's / 10

c)

# retics in 1000 RBC's x 10

d)

# retics in 100 RBC's x 100

74.

What is the basic reference range for retic count?

a)

0.5-1.5%

b)

2.0-3.0%

c)

5.0-10.0%

d)

<0.1%

75.

What is the reference range for megakaryocytes in bone marrow preps?

a)

5/lpf

b)

0.5/lpf

c)

50/lpf

d)

20/lpf

76.

What is the myeloid:erythroid ratio in bone marrow preps?

a)

3:1 – 4:1

b)

1:1 – 2:1

c)

5:1 – 6:1

d)

10:1 – 12:1

77.

In hemoglobin electrophoresis using cellulose acetate at pH 8.6, what is the order of migration from cathode to anode?

a)

C > S > F > A

b)

A > F > S > C

c)

F > A > S > C

d)

S > C > A > F

78.

In hemoglobin electrophoresis using citrate agar at pH 6.2, what is the order of migration?

a)

F > A > S > C

b)

A > F > S > C

c)

S > F > A > C

d)

C > S > A > F

79.

Which hemoglobin variant is associated with sickle cell disease?

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Hemoglobin A

c)

Hemoglobin C

d)

Hemoglobin F

80.

Which hemoglobin variant may show bar-shaped crystals and target cells on smear?

a)

Hemoglobin C

b)

Hemoglobin S

c)

Hemoglobin E

d)

Hemoglobin F

81.

Which method is used to confirm hemoglobin types by electrophoresis?

a)

Cellulose acetate

b)

Paper chromatography

c)

Gel filtration

d)

Immunoassay

82.

On citrate agar electrophoresis, which hemoglobin type separates from the others?

a)

A

b)

S

c)

C

d)

F

83.

Beta thalassemia is characterized by a decrease or absent production of which chains?

a)

Beta chains

b)

Alpha chains

c)

Gamma chains

d)

Delta chains

84.

Alpha thalassemia with 3 deleted genes ( - / - / - alpha ) is associated with which disease?

a)

Hemoglobin H disease

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Beta thalassemia major

d)

Hereditary spherocytosis

85.

What is the result of 4 deleted alpha genes ( - / - / - / - ) in alpha thalassemia?

a)

Hydrops fetalis or nonviable fetus

b)

Mild anemia with microcytosis

c)

Beta thalassemia major

d)

Sickle cell disease

86.

Erythrocytosis is defined as an increase in the number of which cells?

a)

Red blood cells (RBCs)

b)

White blood cells (WBCs)

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma cells

87.

Which White Cell Disease State is associated with increased mucopolysaccharides?

a)

Alder-Reilly

b)

Chediak-Higashi

c)

May-Hegglin

88.

Which White Cell Disease State is associated with albinism and increased susceptibility to infection?

a)

Alder-Reilly

b)

Chediak-Higashi

c)

May-Hegglin

89.

Which of the following is associated with Dohle bodies in SEGS, monos, and lymphs?

a)

Pelger-Huet

b)

Hyposegmented SEGS

c)

Normal Function

90.

What is the WBC function in Pelger-Huet anomaly?

a)

Abnormal Function

b)

Normal Function

c)

Increased Function

91.

Which myelodysplastic syndrome is characterized by <5% blasts and ringed sideroblasts?

a)

Refractory anemia with sideroblasts (RARS)

b)

Refractory anemia with excess blasts (RAEB)

c)

Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia (CMML)

d)

Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia (RCMD)