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Exam 3 (MedSurg): Upper GI Part 1

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the feeling of discomfort in the epigastric area with an urge to vomit called?

a)

Nausea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Hematemesis

2.

What is the forceful ejection of partially digested food and secretions known as?

a)

Vomiting

b)

Regurgitation

c)

Indigestion

d)

Flatulence

3.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of nausea and vomiting?

a)

CNS disorders, CVD

b)

Endocrine/metabolic disorders

c)

Bone fracture

d)

GI disorders or infections

e)

Pregnancy

4.

SATA: The vomiting reflex is initiated by stimuli from which of the following organs?

a)

GI tract

b)

Kidneys

c)

Heart

d)

Brain

e)

Lungs

5.

The chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) in the brainstem responds to stimuli from drugs, toxins, and motion.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which autonomic nervous system response is associated with tachycardia, tachypnea, and diaphoresis during vomiting?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

7.

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of prolonged nausea and vomiting?

a)

Dehydration

b)

F/E imbalance

c)

Metabolic acidosis or alkalosis

d)

All of the above

8.

Acidosis is the loss of HCl acid with vomiting of ________ contents (less common than alkalosis).

a)

small intestine

b)

stomach

c)

esophageal

d)

oral

9.

What is alkalosis in the context of vomiting? Alkalosis is the loss of ________ HCl.

a)

gastric

b)

pancreatic

c)

biliary

d)

intestinal

10.

Which of the following is NOT a goal in the care of nausea and vomiting (N/V)?

a)

Identify underlying cause

b)

Treat cause and any complications

c)

Symptom relief

d)

Increase plasma volume

11.

The use of drugs in the care of N/V depends on the cause.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

What does bright red blood in emesis indicate? Fill in the blank: Bright red blood in emesis indicates ________ bleeding.

a)

active

b)

chronic

c)

venous

d)

old

13.

Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of which condition?

a)

Gastric bleeding

b)

Active bleeding

c)

Emotional stress

d)

Pregnancy

14.

Regurgitation is best described as:

a)

Forceful expulsion of stomach contents

b)

Effortless and slow backflow of stomach contents

c)

Vomiting with debilitating nausea

d)

Profuse bleeding from esophageal ulcers

15.

Projectile vomiting is common with ________ and spinal cord tumors.

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

kidney

d)

lung

16.

Emesis during or right after eating is commonly associated with ________ stress.

a)

emotional

b)

physical

c)

nutritional

d)

environmental

17.

What is the syndrome characterized by recurring episodes of nausea/vomiting (N/V) and fatigue lasting from a few hours up to 10 days?

a)

cyclic vomiting syndrome

b)

irritable bowel syndrome

c)

migraine with aura

d)

gastroesophageal reflux disease

18.

Which of the following is part of the implementation plan for acute care in N/V?

a)

NPO

b)

IV fluids

c)

NGT

d)

All of the above

19.

What should be monitored to assess for dehydration in patients with N/V?

a)

I/Os

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Liver enzymes

d)

ECG changes

20.

SATA: What positions should a patient be placed in as an aspiration precaution during N/V care?

a)

semi-Fowlers position

b)

prone position

c)

supine position

d)

Trendelenburg position

e)

side-lying position

21.

Which of the following is recommended for nutrition therapy in N/V?

a)

IV fluids until oral intake is tolerated

b)

Clear liquids every 15-20 minutes

c)

Non-carbonated, room temp beverages

d)

All of the above

22.

Patients with N/V should eat quickly to avoid over distention.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the most common upper GI problem?

a)

GERD

b)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

c)

Gastric Cancer

d)

Achalasia

24.

What does GERD stand for?

a)

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

b)

Gastric Esophageal Reflux Disorder

c)

Gastrointestinal Esophageal Reflux Disease

d)

Gastric Esophageal Reflux Disease

25.

What is the primary factor in the pathophysiology of GERD?

a)

Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter

b)

Increased gastric emptying

c)

Hyperactive esophageal peristalsis

d)

Excessive saliva production

26.

Which of the following is a medication that can induce esophagitis?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Antibiotics

d)

Antacids

27.

List one non-drug intervention for managing or preventing nausea and vomiting (N/V).

a)

Ingestion of ginger and peppermint

b)

Increasing caffeine intake

c)

Consuming high-fat foods

d)

Reducing fluid intake

28.

Environmental comfort measures for N/V include avoiding sudden position changes and stopping intake until acute episodes subside.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the most common symptom of GERD?

a)

Heartburn

b)

Abdominal bloating

c)

Constipation

d)

Frequent urination

30.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of GERD?

a)

Esophagitis

b)

Barrett’s Esophagus

c)

Diabetes

d)

Dental erosion

31.

Fill in the blank: Burning, tight sensation under lower sternum that spreads into the throat or jaw and mimics angina but is relieved with antacids is called ________.

a)

Pyrosis

b)

Pericarditis

c)

Costochondritis

d)

Esophageal spasm

32.

Which diagnostic test for GERD involves swallowing a contrast material to visualize the esophagus?

a)

Esophagram

b)

Esophageal manometry

c)

pH monitoring

d)

Endoscopic ultrasound

33.

Regurgitation in GERD is described as hot, bitter, or sour liquid in the mouth or throat.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Which of the following is a management strategy for GERD?

a)

Lifestyle modifications

b)

High-fat diet

c)

Increased alcohol intake

d)

Smoking

35.

What is the term for the metaplasia of cells in the esophagus that increases the risk for cancer in GERD patients?

a)

Barrett’s Esophagus

b)

Achalasia

c)

Zenker’s Diverticulum

d)

Esophageal Varices

36.

Which of the following is recommended for managing reflux?

a)

High-fat diet, large meals

b)

Low-fat diet, small meals

c)

Skipping meals

d)

High-protein diet

37.

Which substances should be avoided to help manage reflux?

a)

Alcohol, caffeine, and smoking

b)

Water and juice

c)

Fruits and vegetables

d)

Dairy products

38.

For patients with GERD: After meals, it is recommended to remain in an upright position for _____ hours and avoid tight clothing at the waist or bending over after eating.

a)

2-3

b)

1-2

c)

5-6

d)

10-12

39.

It is recommended to avoid eating 3 hours before bed to help manage reflux with GERD.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following is NOT a recommended lifestyle modification for reflux management?

a)

Coping with stress

b)

Weight management

c)

Increased physical activity

d)

Skipping breakfast

41.

Drug therapy for reflux aims to:

a)

Increase volume and acidity of reflux

b)

Decrease volume and acidity of reflux

c)

Increase appetite

d)

Decrease esophageal clearance

42.

SATA: Which drug classes are most common and effective for reflux management?

a)

proton pump inhibitors

b)

histamine receptor blockers

c)

opioids

d)

tricyclic antidepressants

e)

antitussives

43.

Fill in the blank: PPIs are most effective for healing esophagitis and decreasing incidence of strictures. They should be taken ________.

a)

BEFORE FIRST MEAL

b)

AFTER DINNER

c)

WITH LUNCH

d)

AT BEDTIME

44.

One complication associated with long-term use of PPIs is:

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Asthma

45.

Fill in the blank: Prokinetics increase ______ pressure and improve gastric emptying.

a)

LES

b)

intracranial

c)

venous

d)

intraocular

46.

Prokinetics should be used ONLY as a treatment for GERD if the patient has delayed gastric emptying.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Fill in the blank: Antacids neutralize acids and provide quick relief for ______ and intermittent heartburn.

a)

mild

b)

severe

c)

chronic

d)

acute

48.

How long after meals should antacids be taken?

a)

Immediately

b)

1-3 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

Only before meals

49.

Fill in the blank: Continuous use of antacids with older adults and in patients with CVD should be monitored due to increased ______.

a)

Na+

b)

K+

c)

Ca2+

d)

Mg2+

50.

Which of the following should be avoided to decrease LES pressure according to nutritional therapy?

a)

Chocolate

b)

Fatty foods

c)

Coffee

d)

All of the above

51.

Nutritional therapy for GERD recommends avoiding irritating foods and soda such as ______, orange juice, cola, and red wine.

a)

tomato-based products

b)

whole grain bread

c)

steamed broccoli

d)

plain yogurt

52.

Weight reduction is recommended if indicated as part of nutritional therapy for gastrointestinal disorders.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What is the purpose of the LINX reflux management system?

a)

To enhance MRI imaging of esophageal strictures

b)

To prevent reflux by keeping the LES closed when not eating or drinking

c)

To increase stomach acid density and volume

d)

To eliminate all reflux by removing the entire esophagus

54.

What is the most common abnormality found on x-rays of the upper GI tract?

a)

Gastric ulcer

b)

Hiatal hernia

c)

Esophageal cancer

d)

Gallstones

55.

Fill in the blank: The two types of hiatal hernia are ______ and rolling.

a)

sliding

b)

direct

c)

indirect

d)

paraesophageal

56.

Which type of hiatal hernia is most common and occurs when the patient is supine, withdrawing when the patient is standing?

a)

Rolling HH

b)

Sliding HH

c)

Paraesophageal HH

d)

None of the above

57.

Paraesophageal or rolling hiatal hernia is less common, more cause for concern, and does not change with position.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What is a medical emergency in the context of a paraesophageal/rolling hiatal hernia?

a)

If the stomach becomes 'strangulated' or has its blood supply cut off.

b)

If the patient experiences mild heartburn after eating.

c)

If the hernia is asymptomatic and discovered incidentally.

d)

If the patient has occasional hiccups.

59.

What structural change contributes to the pathophysiology of hiatal hernias?

a)

Weakened muscle in diaphragm and esophagogastric opening occur with aging.

b)

Increased secretion of gastric acid in the stomach lining.

c)

Thickening of the esophageal wall due to chronic inflammation.

d)

Formation of ulcers in the lower esophagus.

60.

What is one endoscopic alternative to surgery for reflux management?

a)

Nissen fundoplication

b)

Mucosal resection

c)

LINX system

d)

Open surgery

61.

What are the clinical manifestations of Hiatal Hernia? Clinical manifestations include heartburn/pyrosis, dyspepsia, regurgitation, respiratory symptoms, and _________.

a)

chest pain

b)

abdominal rash

c)

joint swelling

d)

blurred vision

62.

Which of the following is NOT a complication of Hiatal Hernia?

a)

GERD

b)

Esophagitis

c)

Ulcers

d)

Diabetes

e)

Strangulation

63.

What diagnostic methods are used for Hiatal Hernia? Fill in the blank: Diagnostics are the same as GERD, ________ swallow or endoscopy.

a)

barium

b)

saline

c)

glucose

d)

iodine

64.

A Nissen Fundoplication is when the fundus of the stomach is wrapped around the distal _________, then the fundus is sutured to itself.

a)

esophagus

b)

duodenum

c)

jejunum

d)

trachea

65.

The incidence of GERD and Hiatal Hernia increases with age.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Which of the following drugs may decrease LES pressure in older adults?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antacids

d)

Insulin

67.

What is a possible first sign of GERD or Hiatal Hernia in older adults? Fill in the blank: The first sign may be SEVERE _________ bleeding or respiratory complications related to aspiration.

a)

esophageal

b)

gastric

c)

intestinal

d)

nasal

68.

Which of the following is NOT a food trigger for Eosinophilic Esophagitis?

a)

Milk

b)

Eggs

c)

Wheat

d)

Chicken

e)

Rye

69.

Environmental allergens such as pollens, molds, cats/dogs, and dust mite allergens can trigger Eosinophilic Esophagitis.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

SATA: What are some shared clinical manifestations of esophageal disorders?

a)

weight loss

b)

severe heartburn

c)

N/V

d)

difficulty swallowing

e)

food impaction in esophagus

71.

Fill in the blank: Treatment for esophageal disorders includes avoiding known/identified _________.

a)

food allergies

b)

exercise routines

c)

medications for pain

d)

vitamin supplements

72.

PPIs and corticosteroids are used in the treatment of esophageal disorders.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

What is a possible complication of esophageal diverticula? Fill in the blank: Malnutrition, aspiration, _________?

a)

perforation

b)

hypertension

c)

fundoplication

d)

stoma

74.

Which age group is most often affected by esophageal diverticula?

a)

Children under 10

b)

Persons older than 60

c)

Teenagers

d)

Adults aged 20-40

75.

Fill in the blank: Diagnosis of esophageal diverticula is done by endoscopy and ________ studies.

a)

barium

b)

ultrasound

c)

CT

d)

MRI

76.

Choose the BEST answer: Which of the following is a common cause of esophageal strictures?

a)

GERD

b)

IBS

c)

Crohn's

d)

Ulcerative Colitis

77.

What is absent in the lower 2/3 of the esophagus in Achalasia?

a)

Peristalsis

b)

Mucus production

c)

Acid secretion

d)

Blood flow

78.

Achalasia is a rare, chronic disorder with an unknown etiology.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Fill in the blank: Achalasia is characterized by slow onset, increased LES pressure with incomplete _________

a)

relaxation

b)

contraction

c)

peristalsis

d)

closure

80.

Which of the following is NOT a manifestation of Achalasia?

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Nighttime regurgitation

c)

Halitosis

d)

Increased appetite

81.

Which diagnostic methods are used for Achalasia?

a)

Barium swallow, manometry, and endoscopy

b)

Colonoscopy, stool culture, and urinalysis

c)

Chest X-ray, ECG, and spirometry

d)

MRI, CT scan, and EEG

82.

What is the main goal of treatment for Achalasia?

a)

Cure the disease

b)

Symptom management

c)

Increase acid production

d)

Reduce blood pressure

83.

Which of the following is a treatment option for Achalasia?

a)

Endoscopic dilation of LES

b)

Surgical removal of the LES

c)

Mechanical constriction of the LES

d)

Chemotherapy

84.

Fill in the blank: Heller myotomy is a procedure to cut the ______ muscle laparoscopically.

a)

lower esophageal sphincter

b)

pyloric esophageal

c)

cricopharyngeal

d)

obturator esophageal sphincter

85.

Fill in the blank: Medication therapy is ______ effective than invasive procedures for esophageal varices.

a)

LESS

b)

MORE

c)

EQUALLY

d)

SIGNIFICANTLY

86.

SATA: Which of the following is a medication therapy for esophageal varices?

a)

Botulinum toxin injection

b)

Nitrates

c)

Sublingual calcium channel blockers

d)

IM ACE inhibitors

e)

Ceftriaxone

87.

Fill in the blank: Patient is able to resume usual activities in ______ weeks after anti-reflux surgery.

a)

1-2

b)

3-4

c)

5-6

d)

7-8

88.

Esophageal varices are _____, tortuous veins occurring in the lower esophagus.

a)

dilated

b)

constricted

c)

thin

d)

backflowing

89.

Fill in the blank: Esophageal varices are due to partial ______, a complication of cirrhosis.

a)

hypertension

b)

hypotension

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

hypoxemia

90.

There is high mortality with variceal bleeding in esophageal varices.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Regurgitation is always proceeded by gagging and/or retching.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

SATA: Proton pump inhibitors should be given at the LOWEST dose possible for the SHORTEST duration possible due to which long-term complications?

a)

decreased bone density

b)

kidney disease

c)

vitamin B12 and magnesium deficiencies

d)

increased risk for hip, waist, and spine fractures

e)

increased risk of esophagitis and strictures

93.

It is recommended that a patient with a LINX reflux management system should schedule an MRI a few weeks postoperatively to confirm placement.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Heartburn and pyrosis are the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What is the definition of esophageal diverticula?

a)

Saclike outpouchings of 1 or more layers that occur in 1 of 3 main areas of the esophagus

b)

Absent peristalsis in lower ⅔ of esophagus

c)

Narrowing of esophagus, most often from GERD

d)

Herniation of part of the stomach into the esophagus through and opening (hiatus) in the diaphragm