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AUBF PRELIM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement regarding renal function is true?

a)

Glomeruli are far more permeable to H2O and salt than other capillaries

b)

The collecting tubule reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH

c)

The collecting tubule is permeable to H2O only in the presence of aldosterone

d)

The thick ascending limb is highly permeable to H2O and urea

2.

Which statement regarding normal salt and H2O handling by the nephron is correct?

a)

The ascending limb of the tubule is highly permeable to salt but not H2O

b)

The stimulus for ADH release is low arterial pressure in the afferent arteriole

c)

The descending limb of the tubule is impermeable to urea but highly permeable to salt

d)

Renin is released in response to high plasma osmolality

3.

Which statement concerning renal tubular function is true?

a)

In salt deprivation, the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium

b)

Potassium is not excreted when serum concentration is below 3.5 mmol/L

c)

No substance can be excreted into urine at a rate that exceeds the glomerular filtration rate

d)

When tubular function is lost, the specific gravity of urine will be below 1.005

4.

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine bacteriologic culture?

a)

The container must be sterile

b)

The midstream void technique must be used

c)

The collected sample must be plated within 2 hours unless refrigerated

d)

The sample may be held at 2°C–8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating

5.

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

a)

Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens

b)

Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed in deionized H2O

c)

Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours

d)

First morning voided samples are not acceptable when renal disease is suspected

6.

Which urine color is correlated correctly with the pigment-producing substance?

a)

Smoky red urine with homogentisic acid

b)

Dark amber urine with myoglobin

c)

Deep yellow urine and yellow foam with bilirubin

d)

Red-brown urine with biliverdin

7.

Which of the following substances will cause urine

to produce red fluorescence when examined with

an ultraviolet lamp (360 nm)?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Porphobilinogen (PBG)

c)

Urobilin

d)

Coproporphyrin

8.

Which of the following conditions is associated with normal urine color but produces red fluorescence when urine is examined with an ultraviolet (Wood's) lamp?

a)

Acute intermittent porphyria

b)

Lead poisoning

c)

Erythropoietic porphyria

d)

Porphyria cutanea tarda

9.

Which statement regarding porphyria is accurate?

a)

Porphyria is exclusively inherited

b)

All types cause an increase in urinary porphyrins

c)

All types are associated with anemia

d)

Serum, urine, and fecal tests may be needed for diagnosis

10.

A brown or black pigment in urine can be caused by:

a)

Gantrisin (Pyridium)

b)

Phenolsulfonphthalein

c)

Rifampin

d)

Melanin

11.

Urine that is dark red or port wine in color may be

caused by:

a)

Lead poisoning

b)

Porphyria cutanea tarda

c)

Alkaptonuria

d)

Hemolytic anemia

12.

Urine production of less than 400 mL/day is:

a)

Consistent with normal renal function and H2O balance

b)

Termed isosthenuria

c)

Defined as oliguria

d)

Associated with diabetes mellitus

13.

Which of the following contributes to SG, but not to osmolality?

a)

Protein

b)

Salt

c)

Urea

d)

Glucose

14.

Urine with an SG consistently between 1.002

and 1.003 indicates:

a)

Acute glomerulonephritis

b)

Renal tubular failure

c)

Diabetes insipidus

d)

Addison’s disease

15.

Which statement regarding methods for measuring SG is true?

a)

To correct a urinometer, subtract 0.001 per each 3°C below 15.5°C

b)

Colorimetric SG tests are falsely elevated when a large quantity of glucose is present

c)

Colorimetric SG readings are falsely elevated when pH is alkaline

d)

Refractometry should be performed before the urine is centrifuged

16.

What is the principle of the colorimetric reagent strip determination of SG in urine?

a)

Ionic strength alters the pKa of a polyelectrolyte

b)

Sodium and other cations are chelated by a ligand that changes color

c)

Anions displace a pH indicator from a mordant, making it water soluble

d)

Ionized solutes catalyze oxidation of an azo dye

17.

In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:

a)

Consistently acid

b)

Consistently alkaline

c)

Neutral

d)

Variable, depending upon diet

18.

The normal daily urine output for an adult is

approximately:

a)

0.2–0.5 L

b)

0.6–1.6 L

c)

2.7–3.0 L

d)

3.2–3.5 L

19.

The SG of the filtrate in Bowman’s space is

approximately:

a)

1.000–1.002

b)

1.004–1.006

c)

1.008–1.010

d)

1.012–1.014

20.

The normal renal threshold for glucose is:

a)

70–85 mg/dL

b)

100–115 mg/dL

c)

130–145 mg/dL

d)

165–180 mg/dL

21.

Water should always be added to acid to avoid the possibility of sudden splashing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as poisonous, corrosive, flammable, explosive, teratogenic, or carcinogenic.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

23.

No. 4 on health hazard means:

a)

Can cause serious or permanent injury

b)

can be lethal

c)

No hazard

d)

Can cause temporary incapacitation or residual injury

e)

Can cause significant irritation

24.

0 in Fire hazard means:

a)

No hazard

b)

Stable

c)

Will not burn

d)

Does not oxidize

25.

All electrical equipment must be grounded with two-pronged plugs

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

This acronym is followed when a fire broke that requires the use of fire extinguisher.

a)

RACE

b)

PASS

c)

CARE

d)

PAUSE

27.

This acronym is followed when a fire broke in a building.

a)

RACE

b)

PASS

c)

CARE

d)

PAUSE

28.

Class C fires are usually caused by

a)

Wood, paper, clothing

b)

Chemicals

c)

Metals

d)

Electrical

e)

Grease, oils and fats

29.

Combustible metals should be extinguished by:

a)

Water

b)

Halons

c)

Sand

d)

Liquid designed to prevent splashing

30.

Standard precaution includes all of the following except?

a)

Hand Hygiene

b)

Patient Care equipment

c)

Use of Gloves

d)

Occupational health and blood-borne pathogens

e)

Patient Management

31.

A major disadvantage of BSI guidelines is that they do not recommend handwashing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.

a)

TRUE

b)

FLASE

32.

This type of QC can be internal or an external component inserted into a point of care (POC) instrument.

a)

Electronic Controls

b)

Internal Quality Control

c)

External Quality Control

d)

All of the above

33.

This type of control monitors the sufficient addition of a patient specimen or reagent, the instruments/reagents interaction, and lateral flow test methods.

a)

Electronic Controls

b)

Internal Quality Control

c)

External Quality Control

d)

All of the above

34.

Proficiency testing is an example of

a)

Electronic Controls

b)

Internal Quality Control

c)

External Quality Control

d)

All of the above

35.

It is a gradual change in the mean in one direction.

a)

Trend

b)

Shift

36.

Termed as abrupt change in the mean.

a)

Trend

b)

Shift

37.

This is used to monitor the accuracy, precision, and reliability of a laboratory test in a microscopy section of the laboratory.

a)

Quality Control

b)

Internal Audit

c)

Accreditation

d)

Licensing

38.

All of the following are criteria for urine specimen rejection except?

a)

Quantity not sufficient

b)

Nonmatching labels and request forms

c)

Improperly preserved urine specimen

d)

Contaminated specimens with feces or toilet papers

e)

Label is at the body of the specimen container instead of writing on to the top

39.

He wrote the book uroscopy.

a)

Charlatans

b)

James Wright

c)

Hippocrates

d)

Frederik Dekkers

40.

The primary chemical constituents of normal

urine are:

a)

Protein, sodium, and water

b)

Urea, water, and protein

c)

Urea, chloride, and water

d)

Urea, bilirubin, and glucose

41.

A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia,

and a high urine specific gravity is exhibiting

symptoms of what disorder?

a)

Diabetes insipidus

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Urinary tract infection

d)

Uremia

42.

A negative urine pregnancy test performed on a random

specimen may need to be repeated using a:

a)

Clean-catch specimen

b)

Fasting specimen

c)

First morning specimen

d)

24-Hour specimen

43.

Three types of urine specimens that would be acceptable

for culture to diagnose a bladder infection

include all of the following except:

a)

Catheterized

b)

Midstream clean-catch

c)

Random

d)

Suprapubic aspiration

44.

A urine that turns black after standing may contain:

a)

Homogentisic acid

b)

Melanin

c)

Methemoglobin

d)

All of the above

45.

Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually

distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin

because:

a)

Hemoglobin produces a much brighter red color

b)

Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen

c)

RBCs produce a cloudy specimen

d)

RBCs are quickly converted to hemoglobin

46.

The method for determining a urine specific gravity

that is based on the principle that the frequency of a

sound wave entering a solution changes in proportion

to the density of the solution is:

a)

Colorimetric

b)

Harmonic oscillation densitometry

c)

Refractometry

d)

Urinometry

47.

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could

indicate:

a)

Ketones

b)

Normal

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Urinary tract infection

48.

Where filtration occurs and urine is formed

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Urethra

d)

Bowman's capsule

49.

The far right image is the

a)

loop of henle

b)

the nephron

c)

the glomerulus

d)

the kidney

50.

RAAS system regulates

a)

blood pressure

b)

kidney filtration

c)

osmoregulation

d)

electrolyte balance

51.

ADH (antidiuretic) hormone regulates

a)

kidney filtration

b)

urine concentration

c)

electrolyte balance

d)

acid base balance

52.

Pituitary malfunction of ADH regulation causing dysfunction of water reabsorption is known as

a)

diabetes mellitus

b)

diabetes insipidus

c)

type 2 diabetes

d)

type 1 diabetes

53.

Under normal conditions the kidney reabsorbs

a)

99% water

b)

1% water

c)

90% water

d)

10%water

54.

Glycosuria is

a)

protein in the urine

b)

glucose in the urine

c)

blood in the urine

d)

ketones in the urine

55.

Hematuria means

a)

blood in the urine

b)

ketones in the urine

c)

glucose in the urine

d)

protein in the urine

56.

A urine sample that has high concentration due to dehydration would have

a)

high specific gravity

b)

low specific gravity

c)

high pH

d)

low pH

57.
What C-shaped structure in the nephron surrounds the glomerulus?
a)
Bowman's capsule
b)
bladder
c)
renal pelvis
d)
hilum
58.
The patient is experiencing hematuria. Which process of urine formation has been ineffective?
a)
Filtration
b)
Reabsorption
c)
Secretion
d)
Excretion
59.
What are two substances that are too large to be filtered from the blood in the glomerulus? (Hint: They are not normally found in urine due to their large size.)
a)
Urea and creatinine
b)
Water and electrolytes
c)
Proteins and RBCs
d)
Water and sugar
60.

Why aren't RBC's forced into the glomerulus with the rest of the filtrate?

a)

They are too large to pass through pores of capillary membrane

b)

They are too large to pass through pores of capillary membrane

c)

They are forced into the glomerulus with the rest of the filtrate.

d)

None of the above

61.
What very important job do kidneys have?
a)
The filter urine
b)
To filter waste and excess fluid out of the blood
c)
To filter waste out of urine
d)
To produce urine
62.

Diabetes insipidus cause

a)

Body cannot concentrate urine

b)

Genetic or autoimmune

c)

causes dehydration

d)

causes electrolyte loss

e)

all of the above

63.

Cortex is the innermost section of the kidneys

a)

true

b)

false

64.

Glucose in the urine is an indicator of

a)

lack of carbohydrate consumption

b)

a dysfunction of osmoregulation

c)

diabetes insipidus

d)

diabetes mellitus

65.

Which of the following best describes reabsorption in the nephron?

a)

Substances in the blood enter the tubules

b)

Substances in the tubules are sent back to the blood

c)

Substances in the tubules remain in the tubules.

66.

The inner most portion of the kidney where urine collects before entering the ureters is the

a)

cortex

b)

medulla

c)

pelvis

67.

The medulla of the kidney contains which portion of the microscopic nephrons?

a)

Bowman's capsule

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Loop of Henle

68.

Anti-diuretic hormone is created by the _________ and released by the ____________

a)

hypothalmus; pituitary gland

b)

adrenal gland; kidney

c)

pituitary gland; adrenal gland

69.

Another name for ADH is

a)

vasopressin

b)

aldosterone

c)

oxytocin

70.

In the kidneys ADH works on cells of which nephron structure?

a)

Bowman's capsule

b)

Loop of Henle

c)

Collecting Duct

71.

The removal of urine through the collecting ducts and into the calyces is

a)

filration

b)

secretion

c)

excretion

72.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidney?

a)

Removal of nitrogen wastes

b)

Regulate water concentration in the blood

c)

Regulate ADH levels in the blood

d)

Regulate pH

73.

Which of the following may indicate dehydration?

a)

very dilute pale colored urine

b)

very dark yellow urine

c)

Red/pink urine

74.
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
a)
aldosterone
b)
bladder
c)
nephron
d)
renin
75.
The medical term for excessive urination is:
a)
incontinence
b)
nocturia
c)
oliguria
d)
polyuria
76.

Major inorganic component of urine.

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Urea

d)

Creatinine

77.

Major organic component of urine and is produced from the breakdown of protein and amino acids

a)

Sodium

b)

Chloride

c)

Urea

d)

Creatinine

78.

To obtain an accurate 24 hour timed specimen, the patient must begin and end the collection period with an empty bladder.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

79.

Why is the first-voided morning urine specimen the most desirable specimen for routine urinalysis?

a)

Most dilute specimen of the day and therefore any chemical compounds present will not exceed the detectability limits of the reagent strips

b)

Least likely to be contaminated with microorganisms because the bladder is a sterile environment

c)

Most likely to contain protein because the patient has been in the orthostatic position during the night

d)

Most concentrated specimen of the day and therefore it is more likely that abnormalities will be detected

80.

The physical characteristic of color is assessed when a routine urinalysis is performed. What substance is

normally found in urine that is principally responsible for its yellow coloration?

a)

Bilirubin

b)

Melanin

c)

Carotene

d)

Urochrome

81.

In certain malignant disorders, what substance is found in the urine that turns the urine dark brown or black on exposure of the urine to air?

a)

Urobilinogen

b)

Indican

c)

Melanin

d)

Porphyrin

82.

What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided urine specimen?

a)

Which term is defined as a urine volume in excess of 2000 mL excreted over a 24-hour period?

b)

Anuria

c)

Oliguria

d)

Polyuria

83.

How should controls be run to ensure the precision and accuracy of the reagent test strips used for the chemical analysis of urine?

a)

Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls when opening a new bottle of test strips

b)

Positive and negative controls should be run when the test strips' expiration date is passed.

c)

Positive and negative controls should be run on a daily basis

d)

Positive controls should be run on a daily basis and negative controls on a weekly basis

84.

"Isosthenuria" is a term applied to a series of urine specimens from the same patient that exhibit a

a)

Specific gravity of exactly 1.000

b)

Specific gravity less than 1.007

c)

Specific gravity greater than 1.020

d)

Fixed specific gravity of approximately 1.010

85.

Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of

a)

Alkaptone

b)

Phenylalanine

c)

5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

d)

Homogentisic acid

86.

Which of the following is true about the final concentrating of urine in the kidney?

a)

The distal convoluted tubule, through active transport, reabsorbs water

b)

Water is reabsorbed under the direct influence of angiotensin II

c)

Vasopressin controls the collecting duct reabsorption of water

d)

Water reabsorption is influenced by urine filtrate levels of potassium.

87.

Patients with diabetes insipidus tend to

produce urine _____________________ in volume with

_______________specific gravity.

a)

Increased; decreased

b)

Increased; increased

c)

Decreased; decreased

d)

Decreased; increased

88.

Nitrofurantoin causes ___________ color to the urine.

a)

Brown

b)

Blue-Green

c)

Dark Yellow

d)

Orange yellow

e)

Red

89.

Clorets gives ______ color in the urine.

a)

Brown

b)

Blue-Green

c)

Yellow

d)

Orange yellow

e)

Red

90.

Every minute approximately two to three million glomeruli filter approximately ______of water-containing low-molecular-weight substances

a)

20 mL/min

b)

100 ml/min

c)

120ml/min

d)

1200 ml/min

91.

Chloride is reabsorbed at the _____ during active transport

a)

PCT

b)

ALH

c)

DLH

d)

DCT

e)

CD

92.

During passive transport, sodium is reabsorbed at?

a)

PCT

b)

DCT

c)

DLH

d)

ALH

e)

CD

93.

During active transport, sodium is reabsorbed at?

a)

PCT

b)

DCT

c)

DLH

d)

ALH

e)

CD

94.

During passive transport, water is reabsorbed on all parts of nephron except in?

a)

PCT

b)

DCT

c)

DLH

d)

ALH

e)

CD

95.

It is considered the gold standard method for assessment of GFR.

a)

Creatinine

b)

Inulin

c)

Urea

d)

Beta2-Microglobulin

96.

Variables included in the Cockgroft and Gault formula are following except?

a)

Age

b)

Sex

c)

Body Weight

d)

Ethnicity

97.

It measures only the number of particles in a solution.

a)

Specific Gravity

b)

Osmolality

c)

PH

d)

Osmometry

98.

All of the following are true of the colligative property of a substance except?

a)

Increases Boiling point

b)

Increase osmotic pressure

c)

Decreases Freezing point

d)

Decrease Vapor pressure

e)

Increase Temperature

99.

This colligative property was the first principle incorporated into clinical osmometers.

a)

Freezing point

b)

Boiling point

c)

Vapor Pressure

d)

Osmotic Pressure

100.

Flagyl when ingested gives ______ color in the urine.

a)

Brown

b)

Blue-Green

c)

Black

d)

Orange yellow

e)

Red