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Worksheets

Lymphatics & Immunity

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which protein inhibits the viral infection of neighboring cells?

a)

Perforin

b)

Pyrogen

c)

Defensins

d)

Interferon

e)

Complement

2.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between cellular and humoral immunity?

a)

Cellular immunity attacks foreign or diseased cells whereas humoral immunity uses antibodies to defend against future exposures.

b)

Cellular immunity utilizes B lymphocytes while humoral immunity utilizes T lymphocytes.

c)

Cellular immunity directly attacks pathogens and infected cells while humoral immunity releases antibodies to do so.

d)

Neither defends against bacteria.

e)

Cellular immunity produces antibodies while humoral immunity uses perforins.

3.

Which primary lymphoid organ is the site of B cell maturation?

a)

Bursa of Fabricius

b)

Red bone marrow

c)

Tonsil

d)

Thymus

e)

Spleen

4.

Which of the following properties distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity? Check all that apply.

a)

Immunity is directed against a particular pathogen.

b)

The body reacts quickly to a pathogen to which it was previously exposed.

c)

Adaptive immunity utilizes broad-range barriers like skin and mucous membranes.

d)

When re-exposed to a pathogen, there is usually no noticeable signs or symptoms of disease from that pathogen.

e)

Adaptive immunity utilizes immune surveillance.

5.

The ability to ward off a specific infection or disease, usually as a result of prior exposure and the body's production of antibodies or lymphocytes against one pathogen, is called __________.

a)

adaptive immunity

b)

the second line of defense

c)

nonspecific defense

d)

a natural barrier

e)

the first line of defense

6.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding failures of self-tolerance? Check all that apply.

a)

Antibodies not only react against a pathogen but also against the bodies own cells.

b)

Upon exposure, antibodies may form against normal cells that blood does not usually become exposed to.

c)

Viruses may change the structure of self-antigens and cause the immune system to perceive them as foreign.

d)

During anaphylaxis, allergens mimic normal cells and 'trick' the immune system into making autoantibodies.

e)

Autoantibodies are introduced to the blood via transfusion.

7.

Which of the following is considered a lymphatic cell? Check all that apply.

a)

T lymphocytes

b)

Delta lymphocytes

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

Macrophages

e)

Natural killer cells

8.

If a person is sick with the common cold on May 1st, gets well, and then memory cells are exposed to the same virus on May 31st, what would the person's symptoms most likely be?

a)

No symptoms at all

b)

Mild common-cold symptoms

c)

Flu-like symptoms

d)

More severe symptoms as the colds "piggy back" on each other

e)

Same symptoms as on May 1st

9.

What are monocytes that migrate to the tissue and function as phagocytes called?

a)

B cells

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Macrophages

d)

T cells

e)

NK cells

10.

Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system? Check all that apply.

a)

Recover fluid from the interstium to the blood plasma

b)

Remove foreign matter from fluid before returning it to the bloodstream

c)

Secrete lipid soluble hormones

d)

Absorb dietary lipids

e)

Absorb dietary proteins

11.

All of the following processes can be activated by complement except __________.

a)

inflammation

b)

antibody production

c)

cytolysis

d)

opsonization

e)

None of these choices are correct.

12.

Which of the following is true regarding opsonization?

a)

It is a membrane attack complex lysing a bacterium by making a hole in its membrane.

b)

It is when complement causes inflammation to occur.

c)

It is when the nine complement factors cascade in order.

d)

It is the coating of a bacterium with antibody to make it more susceptible to phagocytosis.

e)

It is when a hapten binds to an antigen and causes an allergic reaction.

13.

Complement factors C5b+C6+C7+C8 make up a membrane attack complex that results in __________.

a)

enhanced phagocytosis

b)

opsonization

c)

cytolysis

d)

the release of granzymes

e)

the release of interferons

14.

Complement factors are named in the order in which they function.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

In the classical pathway of complement activation, complement attaches to an antigen-antibody complex.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following sequences for the processing of proteins produced within the cell is correct?

a)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, fuse with a Golgi vesicle containing class-II MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

b)

Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a Golgi vesicle containing class-I MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

c)

Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a Golgi vesicle containing class-II MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

d)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class-II MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane.

e)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class-I MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane.

17.

Which of the following sequences for the processing of proteins originating outside of the cell is correct?

a)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, fuse with a Golgi vesicle containing class-II MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

b)

Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a Golgi vesicle containing class-I MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

c)

Proteins are broken into fragments within a vesicle, which fuses with a Golgi vesicle containing class-II MHCs, and this complex is transported to the plasma membrane.

d)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class-II MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane.

e)

Proteins are broken into fragments, transported to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, combined with class-I MHCs, move to the Golgi apparatus, then to the plasma membrane.

18.

Foreign antigens presented on class-I MHC molecules __________.

a)

stimulate other immune-system cells to respond to the antigen

b)

stimulate macrophages to respond to the antigen

c)

stimulate cell destruction by macrophages

d)

stimulate cell destruction by activated T-cells

e)

are not recognized by the T-cells and do not stimulate cell destruction

19.

Fragments of foreign proteins are antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Viruses and self-proteins are examples of proteins produced inside of the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which of the following is true regarding antigens?

a)

They have molecular weights of around 1000.

b)

They have one antigenic determinant (epitope).

c)

They are considered normal by the immune system.

d)

They can contain many different antigenic determinants (epitopes).

e)

They are usually made of lipids.

22.

Which of the following is true regarding bacterial cells?

a)

They have one identifiable antigen that binds to antibodies.

b)

They have two epitopes per cell.

c)

They have many different epitopes which each bind to specific antibodies.

d)

They have many different epitopes which all bind to the same antibody.

e)

They are not antigenic.

23.

An individual antibody is made against __________.

a)

a whole bacterial cell

b)

one epitope of an antigen

c)

one antigen on the cell

d)

all of the combined antigenic determinants on a cell

e)

the cell's DNA

24.

Each antigen has one epitope.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Many different antibodies can be made against a single antigen.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following is true when interferon attaches to a cell?

a)

The virus can not enter the cell.

b)

The virus can enter the cell but can not replicate.

c)

The virus can replicate within a cell but can not be released.

d)

Viral replication takes place as usual.

e)

The virus is brought into the cell where it is digested by peroxisomes.

27.

When interferon from one cell attaches to a second cell, _________.

a)

the recipient cell makes enzymes that prevent cell metabolism

b)

the second cell now makes interferon and saves itself

c)

the recipient cell is able to kill bacteria

d)

the recipient cell makes enzymes that degrade mRNA and prevent viral protein synthesis

e)

the recipient cell secretes enzymes that destroy the donor cell

28.

Which of the following is true regarding interferon?

a)

Interferon is produced as a specific response to a specific virus.

b)

Interferon is produced by one cell and used to warn nearby cells of the same type.

c)

Interferon is able to save the cell that makes it.

d)

Interferon induces production of mRNA in the recipient cell.

e)

Interferon kills all bacteria nonspecifically.

29.

Which of the following statements about complement protein C1 is not true?

a)

Complement protein C1 participates in the classical pathway of complement activation.

b)

Complement protein C1 is composed of three subunits: q, r, and s.

c)

Complement protein C1 cleaves C2 into C2a and C2b.

d)

Complement protein C1 cleaves C3 into C3a and C3b.

e)

None of the choices listed are false.

30.

Arrange the following in the proper order in which they first appear in the alternative pathway of complement activation.

1. Factor B

2. Factor D

3. C3

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 1, 3

c)

2, 3, 1

d)

3, 2, 1

e)

3, 1, 2

31.

Which of the following is a C5 convertase?

a)

C4b2b

b)

C4a2a

c)

C4b3b

d)

C4b2b3b

e)

C4b2bBb

32.

In the beginning of the complement fixation test, __________.

a)

a patient's serum is heated to destroy complement, and a measured amount of complement and antigen is added

b)

a patient's serum is heated to destroy complement, and a measured amount of complement and antibody is added

c)

a patient's serum is heated to destroy antibodies, and a measured amount of complement and antibody is added

d)

the amount of complement in the patient's blood is measured as an indicator for the presence of infection

e)

a patient's serum is heated to activate the compliment system

33.

Which of the following is true regarding the complement fixation test?

a)

Red blood cells lyse if the patient has antigen being tested for.

b)

Red blood cells lyse if the patient has antibody being tested for.

c)

Red blood cells settle to the bottom if the patient has antibody being tested for.

d)

Red blood cells settle to the bottom if the patient has antigen being tested for.

e)

Red blood cells undergo hemagglutination and float to the surface.

34.

Which of the following statements is true regarding a patient's results from the complement fixation test?

a)

A patient positive for the disease will show an increase in complement in his blood and thus give a positive test.

b)

A patient positive for the disease will show a decrease in complement in his blood and thus give a positive test.

c)

All patients have equal amounts of complement in their serum.

d)

Patients differ in the amount of complement naturally found in their serum.

e)

The type of complement found in a patient can vary widely depending on their genetic background.

35.

Which of the following statements is not true of the hepatitis B vaccine?

a)

It is a recombinant vaccine.

b)

It is a form of subunit vaccine.

c)

It consists of an internal protein from the virus.

d)

It is produced in a host yeast cell.

e)

All of the statements listed are true.

36.

The vaccine used to prevent measles consists of live measles viruses. This type of vaccine is most likely __________.

a)

a killed vaccine

b)

an attenuated vaccine

c)

a subunit vaccine

d)

a recombinant vaccine

e)

a conjugated vaccine

37.

A subunit vaccine is composed of __________.

a)

microorganisms that have been killed by heat

b)

microorganisms that have been killed by chemicals

c)

microorganisms that have been weakened by radiation

d)

microorganisms that are attenuated

e)

purified parts of a microorganism

38.

People with type AB blood have __________.

a)

both type A and type B antigens on their red blood cells

b)

both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their serum

c)

the A antigen on their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in their serum

d)

The first and second choices are both correct answers.

e)

None of the choices are correct answers.

39.

When type B blood is given to a person with type A blood, __________.

a)

the B antigen from the donor reacts with anti-B antibody in the recipient

b)

the B antigen from the recipient reacts with anti-B antibody in the donor

c)

the B antigen from the donor reacts with anti-A antibody in the recipient

d)

the A antigen from the donor reacts with anti-A antibody in the recipient

e)

no reaction occurs

40.

Which type of blood may a person with type AB blood receive?

a)

Type A blood

b)

Type B blood

c)

Type AB blood

d)

Type O blood

e)

All of the choices are correct answers.

41.

Which of the following is produced by cytotoxic T cells?

a)

Class-II MHCs

b)

Self proteins

c)

Antibodies, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells

d)

Perforin, which makes holes in cell membrane of infected cells

e)

MAC complexes

42.

Which of the following is true regarding infected cells?

a)

They display peptide fragments of degraded viral proteins on their cell surface.

b)

They have class-II MHC antigens on their cell surface.

c)

They are not affected by T cells.

d)

They lyse T cells.

e)

They send out interleukins to attract eosinophils to the area.

43.

Cytotoxic T cells recognize __________.

a)

receptors on B cells

b)

fragments of self proteins of infected cells

c)

viral antigens and class-I MHC

d)

viral antigens and class-II MHC

e)

All of these choices are correct answers.

44.

On first exposure to antigen, T helper cells __________.

a)

become activated and increase in number

b)

cause inflammation

c)

cause skin lesions

d)

attract more macrophages

e)

activate natural killer cells

45.

When T helper cells are exposed for the second time to hapten-peptide on antigen presenting cells, they __________.

a)

lyse cells using perforin

b)

release cytokines which attract more macrophages

c)

make antibodies

d)

kill macrophages

e)

use granzymes to induce apotosis

46.

When do skin lesions due to hypersensitivity appear?

a)

24 hours after the first exposure to the antigen

b)

48–72 hours after the first exposure to the antigen

c)

24 hours after the second exposure to the antigen

d)

3 weeks after the second exposure to the antigen

e)

48–72 hours after the second exposure to the antigen

47.

Which viral receptor is involved in HIV attachment to the host cell?

a)

Gp41

b)

Gp120

c)

P24

d)

P17

e)

All of these choices are correct answers.

48.

In order for HIV to attach, the host cell must have a __________.

a)

CD4 antigen receptor and a cell specific co-receptor

b)

gp120 receptor

c)

CD4 receptor and a nonspecific universal receptor

d)

CD8 receptor and a specific co-receptor

e)

MHC II receptor and a nonspecific universal receptor

49.

Which of the following statements is true regarding protease enzyme?

a)

Protease enzyme makes DNA from single-stranded RNA.

b)

Protease enzyme integrates viral DNA into a host genome.

c)

Protease enzyme cleaves poly-protein into individual functional viral proteins.

d)

Protease enzyme helps the virus attach to the host cell.

e)

Protease enzyme cleaves host proteins into individual amino acids.

50.

The HIV protein that is involved in attachment of the virus to host cells is called __________.

a)

reverse transcriptase

b)

gp120

c)

CD4

d)

CCR-5

e)

CXCR-4

51.

Which HIV enzyme makes a double-stranded DNA copy of the viral genome?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Reverse transcriptase

d)

Endonuclease

e)

Gyrase

52.

The type of cells infected by HIV are __________ early in the course of an infection and __________ late in the infection.

a)

helper T cells; cytotoxic T cells

b)

helper T cells; macrophages

c)

macrophages; cytotoxic T cells

d)

macrophages; helper T cells

e)

macrophages; helper B cells

53.

Which of the following is not necessary for IgE mediated hypersensitivity?

a)

Antigen presenting cells

b)

B cells

c)

IgE antibodies

d)

Mast cells

e)

Neutrophils

54.

IgE molecules attach to __________.

a)

mast cells via their variable region

b)

mast cells by their constant region

c)

T helper cells by their variable region

d)

plasma cells by their constant region

e)

cytotoxic T cells by their TCR

55.

Histamine released by mast cells leads to all of the following symptoms except __________.

a)

capillary dilation

b)

airway constriction

c)

high fever

d)

mucus secretion

e)

itching

56.

Arrange the following events in the proper order in which they occur during an allergic response.


1 = Individual experiences symptoms

2 = Individual is sensitized to antigen

3 = IgE attaches to mast cells

4 = Antigen binds to IgE

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 3, 4, 2

c)

2, 3, 1, 4

d)

2, 3, 4, 1

e)

2, 4, 3, 1

57.

Which of the following statements is true regarding a hypersensitivity reaction?

a)

Hypersensitivity reaction takes place during the first exposure to an antigen.

b)

Hypersensitivity reaction takes place during a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.

c)

Hypersensitivity reaction takes place in individuals with diseases of the immune system.

d)

Hypersensitivity reaction takes place only in children.

e)

Hypersensitivity reaction takes place only in individuals with asthma.

58.

Which of the following is not triggered by the inflammation response?

a)

Dilation of capillaries

b)

Constriction of airways

c)

Inhibition of mucus

d)

Pain

e)

Itching

59.

Immune complexes consist of __________.

a)

antibody plus complement

b)

basophil plus complement

c)

antigen plus antibody

d)

antigen plus complement

e)

hapten plus antibody

60.

Which of the following is true regarding intermediate size complexes?

a)

They become basophils.

b)

They activate complement.

c)

They are removed by phagocytosis.

d)

They degranulate.

e)

They induce apoptosis.

61.

In the presence of activated complement, neutrophils __________.

a)

are repelled

b)

produce histamine

c)

degranulate and release enzymes that cause tissue damage

d)

cause vasodilation

e)

are easily opsonized

62.

Arrange the following in the proper sequence in which they occur during the inflammatory response.

1. Neutrophils roll along endothelium

2. Integrin activation

3. Margination

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 1, 3

c)

2, 3, 1

d)

3, 2, 1

e)

3, 1, 2

63.

During the inflammatory response __________ degranulate and release __________.

a)

endothelial cells; cytokine

b)

endothelial cells; histamine

c)

endothelial cells; chemotactine

d)

mast cells; cytokine

e)

mast cells; histamine

64.

Which of the following terms describes the migration of neutrophils from blood vessels?

a)

Degranulation

b)

Dilatation

c)

Extravasation

d)

Neutrophilisation

e)

None of these choices are correct answers.

65.

Which of the following are antigen-presenting cells?

a)

Macrophages

b)

B cells

c)

Cytotoxic T cells

d)

All of these choices are correct answers.

e)

Macrophages and B cells

66.

Helper T cells interact with target cells by recognizing __________.

a)

antigens only

b)

MHC proteins only

c)

antigen-MHC protein complexes

d)

either antigens or MHC proteins

e)

neither antigens nor MHC proteins

67.

Helper T cells secrete ________ to stimulate the proliferation of B cells.

a)

antigens

b)

antibodies

c)

cytokines

d)

agglutinins

e)

allergens

68.

Which of the following are needed for antibody production to occur with T cell dependent antigens?

a)

Antigen presenting cell

b)

T helper cell

c)

B cell and T helper cell

d)

B cell

e)

All of these choices are correct answers.

69.

An antigen presenting cell presents antigen to a T helper cell __________.

a)

inside a vesicle

b)

on its surface on a class-I MHC

c)

on its surface on a class-II MHC

d)

on its surface attached to an antibody

e)

on its CD8 receptor

70.

A T helper cell becomes activated by a(n) __________.

a)

plasma cell

b)

antigen presenting cell

c)

B cell

d)

memory cell

e)

mast cell

71.

What are the lymphatic system's main functions?

a)

Immunity, absorption of lipids, fluid recovery

b)

Immunity, absorption of proteins, fluid recovery

c)

Immunity, absorption of proteins, lipid recovery

d)

Vitamin-D synthesis, absorption of lipids, fluid recovery

e)

Absorption of vitamin-D, immunity, lipid synthesis

72.

Aggregations of lymphocytes in the connective tissues of mucous membranes are called __________.

a)

lymph organs

b)

marrow

c)

reticular tissue

d)

lymphatic tissues

e)

None of the choices are correct.

73.

What are mucosa-associated lymphatic tissues?

a)

Aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes

b)

Aggregates of macrophages located in the intestines

c)

Clusters of splenocytes located in the lamina propria of mucous membranes

d)

Clumps of mucous lining the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract

e)

Lymphatic tissues that produce mucus

74.

What is the body's largest lymphatic organ?

a)

Spleen

b)

Thymus

c)

Pharyngeal tonsil

d)

Axillary lymph node

e)

Liver

75.

What does the first line of defense against pathogens consist of?

a)

External barriers

b)

Leukocytes and macrophages

c)

Specific defenses

d)

Natural killer cells

e)

Complement and interferons

76.

Which proteins found in blood are involved in the innate immunity against pathogens?

a)

Complement

b)

Albumin

c)

Fibrin

d)

Collagen

e)

Perforin

77.

Which characteristic describes how immunity is directed against a particular pathogen, and that immunity to one pathogen usually does not confer immunity to others?

a)

Specificity

b)

Memory

c)

Immunity

d)

Plasticity

e)

Complementarity

78.

When the oil urushiol from the poison ivy plant is absorbed through the skin, it oxidizes and forms a substance called quinone. Quinone reacts with skin proteins creating a complex that now triggers an immune response. Quinone is an example of a(n) __________.

a)

hapten

b)

interleukin

c)

artificial passive response

d)

antigen-presenting cell

e)

leukotriene

79.

Which cell phagocytizes an antigen and displays fragments of it on its surface?

a)

Antigen-presenting cell

b)

Naive T lymphocyte

c)

Effector T lymphocyte

d)

Anergic cell

e)

Reticular cell

80.

Which T cell plays an integral role in both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

a)

Cytotoxic T cell

b)

Helper T cell

c)

Regulatory T cell

d)

Memory T cell

e)

Suppressor T cell

81.

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), commonly known as lupus, is a systemic disease in which the body's immune cells begin producing antibodies that attack the body's healthy tissues instead of just foreign invaders in the body. The result could be pain, inflammation, and tissue damage in various parts of the body. Which of the following T lymphocytes may be malfunctioning to trigger the events that cause a disease like lupus?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

Regulatory T cells

d)

Memory T cells

e)

None of these choices are correct.

82.

Which of the following statements is true about memory cells? Check all that apply.

a)

Memory cells are mature monocytes.

b)

Memory cells respond to antigens more rapidly than naive T cells.

c)

Upon reexposure to a pathogen, memory cells engage in the T-cell recall response, destroying the pathogen quickly.

d)

The action of memory cells is the reason why we can get some diseases more than once.

e)

There are far fewer memory cells than naive T cells.

83.

Which type of immunity is mediated by B cells and the antibodies they secrete?

a)

Humoral

b)

Cell mediated

c)

Nonspecific

d)

Complement-mediated

e)

Lymphatic

84.

Which of the following statements is true regarding memory in humoral immunity? Check all that apply.

a)

Memory lasts longer in humoral immunity than in cellular immunity.

b)

Memory B cells attack the antigen directly without the need to form plasma cells.

c)

Memory B cells are found mainly in the lymph nodes.

d)

Plasma cells form within hours, creating a response so rapid that no noticeable signs of illness appear.

e)

When memory B cells attack an antigen, it is called the "primary response".

85.

A severe and immediate local IgE reaction to an allergen within seconds of exposure is called __________.

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

type-II hypersensitivity

c)

cell-mediated immunity

d)

type-III hypersensitivity

e)

immune complex hypersensitivity

86.

What is artificial active immunity?

a)

Acquiring one's own immunity against an attenuated pathogen

b)

Acquiring one's own immunity against a naturally acquired pathogen

c)

Receiving another person's or animal's antibodies against a pathogen

d)

Receiving another person's antibodies against a naturally acquired pathogen

e)

Receiving another person's antigens against an artificial pathogen