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Pharm 2 Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Buspirone (Buspar) differs from benzodiazepines in that it:

a)

Does not cause sedation or muscle relaxation

b)

Is used for alcohol withdrawal

c)

Is recommended for PRN use

d)

Acts as a GABA agonist

2.

A nurse is teaching a patient about antidepressant therapy with SSRIs. Which statements are appropriate?

a)

Take the medication in the morning to avoid insomnia.

b)

Report any signs of serotonin syndrome such as agitation, hallucinations, or hyperreflexia.

c)

Use caution when engaging in hazardous activities if experiencing dizziness.

d)

Avoid alcohol to prevent increased bleeding risk.

e)

Expect immediate relief of symptoms within 48 hours.

3.

Which medication class is most likely to cause anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, and urinary retention?

a)

MAOIs

b)

TCAs

c)

SSRIs

d)

SNRIs

4.

A critical safety measure after starting an antidepressant is:

a)

Monitoring for suicidal ideation

b)

Increasing the dose rapidly

c)

Stopping the medication abruptly

d)

Avoiding all physical activity

5.

Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action for a patient with depression who is prescribed an antidepressant?

a)

Advise the patient to ignore any thoughts of suicide.

b)

Tell the patient to stop the medication if they feel worse.

c)

Only monitor the patient if they are feeling anxious.

d)

Ensure the patient understands to contact their provider immediately if they have thoughts of harming themselves.

6.

A client with depression is prescribed amitriptyline (TCA). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

a)

Dry mouth and blurred vision

b)

Urinary retention

c)

Irregular heartbeat on ECG

d)

Drowsiness during daytime

7.

A nurse is providing education to a patient starting phenelzine (MAOI). Which instructions should be included?

a)

Increase intake of caffeine to counteract potential hypotension.

b)

Avoid foods high in tyramine, such as aged cheese and cured meats.

c)

Take the medication with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

d)

Report sudden headache or palpitations immediately.

e)

Avoid sudden changes in position to prevent orthostatic hypotension.

8.

Which of the following substances can increase the effects of Buspirone?

a)

Valerian

b)

Kava

c)

St. John’s wort

d)

Ashwagandha

9.

Which of the following are precautions for using benzodiazepines? Select all that apply.

a)

A. Patients with hypertension

b)

B. Patients with a history of substance abuse

c)

C. Patients with organic brain disease

d)

D. Patients with sleep apnea

e)

E. Patients with respiratory depression

10.

A patient is prescribed zolpidem for insomnia. Which instruction should the nurse include?

a)

“Take the medication with a high-fat meal to improve absorption.”

b)

“Allow at least 8 hours of sleep after taking this medication.”

c)

“Take the medication only when you feel anxious.”

d)

“Avoid activities requiring alertness for 2 hours after taking the medication.”

11.

Melatonin receptor agonists like ramelteon are effective for maintaining sleep throughout the night.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

A patient with a history of sleep apnea is prescribed a benzodiazepine. What should the nurse do?

a)

Administer the medication as prescribed, monitoring for effectiveness

b)

Give the medication with food to minimize respiratory effects

c)

Advise the patient to take an extra dose for better sleep

d)

Question the prescription and notify the healthcare provider

13.

A patient reports daytime drowsiness after taking ramelteon. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

a)

Instruct the patient to take the medication earlier in the evening

b)

Discontinue the medication immediately

c)

Educate the patient to avoid activities requiring alertness if sleepiness occurs

d)

Advise the patient to take the medication with high-fat meals

14.

Which herbs or supplements may be used to promote sleep?

a)

Lemon balm

b)

Valerian

c)

Melatonin

d)

Chamomile

e)

Ashwagandha

15.

A patient has been prescribed ramelteon for sleep. Which statement suggests the patient needs further education?

a)

I can take this medication with a high-fat meal to improve absorption.

b)

I will take this medication 30 minutes before bedtime on an empty stomach.

c)

I should avoid activities requiring alertness if I feel sleepy.

d)

This medication does not help with staying asleep once I wake up during the night.

16.

A patient reports hallucinations and confusion after starting a new insomnia medication. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Document the adverse effects and continue medication as prescribed

b)

Advise the patient to rest and monitor symptoms at home

c)

Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the healthcare provider

d)

Increase the dose to overcome tolerance

17.

A patient using herbal supplements for insomnia asks about safety. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate?

a)

You should stop herbal supplements once your sleep improves.

b)

Herbal supplements are safe for everyone.

c)

Herbs like valerian and chamomile are not effective for sleep.

d)

Always discuss herbal supplement use with your healthcare provider.

18.

A nurse is educating a client newly prescribed pramipexole. Which of the following should the nurse include?

a)

Take this medication on an empty stomach to increase absorption.

b)

You may experience increased urination while on this drug.

c)

This medication may make you sleepy during the day.

d)

Discontinue the medication immediately if you feel nauseated.

19.

A nurse is caring for a patient prescribed selegiline. Which food choice by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

a)

Bananas

b)

Aged cheddar cheese

c)

Yogurt

d)

Grilled chicken breast

20.

What is the mechanism of action of amantadine in treating Parkinson’s disease?

a)

Inhibits dopamine synthesis

b)

Prevents dopamine breakdown

c)

Prevents dopamine reuptake and promotes its release

d)

Blocks cholinergic receptors only

21.

What is a visible side effect of carbidopa/levodopa?

a)

Skin rash

b)

Bruising

c)

Discoloration of sweat and urine

d)

Alopecia

22.

A client taking levodopa/carbidopa reports brown discoloration in urine. What should the nurse do next?

a)

Notify the provider immediately

b)

Instruct the client to stop taking the drug

c)

Document the finding as expected

d)

Recommend a high-protein diet

23.

A nurse is providing education to a client prescribed carbidopa/levodopa. Which of the following should be included?

a)

Avoid foods high in vitamin B6

b)

You may experience discoloration of your urine

c)

This medication works immediately after the first dose

d)

Take the medication with food to avoid nausea

e)

Report any muscle twitching or facial grimacing to your provider

24.

Which of the following are side effects of dopamine agonists like ropinirole?

a)

Daytime sleepiness

b)

Psychosis

c)

Hypotension

d)

Liver failure

e)

Impulse control disorder

25.

A client is taking entacapone. The nurse should monitor for which complications?

a)

Yellow-orange urine

b)

Constipation

c)

Rhabdomyolysis

d)

Dry mouth

e)

Liver failure

26.

Patient education for benztropine should include which of the following?

a)

Chew sugarless gum to reduce dry mouth

b)

Stop medication if sedation occurs

c)

Increase fluid intake to 2–3 L/day

d)

Avoid alertness-requiring activities

e)

Schedule regular eye exams

27.

Which medications are contraindicated in patients with urinary retention or benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Bromocriptine

c)

Benztropine

d)

Trihexyphenidyl

e)

Rasagiline

28.

What statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about the signs/symptoms of beta-2 agonists?

a)

Vasodilation

b)

Bronchodilation

c)

Mydriasis

d)

Increased glyconeogenesis

29.

A patient has a new prescription for tamsulosin, an alpha 1 adrenergic blocker, when would you administer the medication?

a)

Before they go to sleep

b)

In the morning with food

c)

Only as needed

d)

In the morning before meals

30.

Which statement by the patient indicates that they have an understanding on how to use a metered-dose inhaler?

a)

I do not need to shake the inhaler before inhaling the medication

b)

I should hold the inhaler about 1-2 cm away from the mouth

c)

I should tilt my head forward before pressing the inhaler

d)

I should hold my breath for 10 seconds to allow the medication to deposit

31.

Which complication would you expect from adrenergic agonists?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypertensive Crisis

d)

Miosis

32.

A patient recently started taking labetalol, what pre-existing condition would be less likely to put them at risk for a complication?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hypotension

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Hypothyroidism

33.

Which of the following is an expected finding of a centrally acting alpha 2 agonist such as clonidine?

a)

Increased inhibition of norepinephrine release

b)

Increased sympathetic outflow

c)

Increased cardiac output

d)

Rise in blood pressure

34.

What would happen if we antagonize an alpha-1 receptor?

a)

Mydriasis

b)

Increased bladder closure

c)

Increased blood pressure

d)

Constricted pupils

35.

A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse report immediately?

a)

Fine hand tremors

b)

Mild thirst

c)

Nausea and abdominal pain

d)

Coarse tremors and mental confusion

36.

A nurse is reinforcing education to a client starting lamotrigine. Which instruction is most important to include?

a)

Take it with milk to reduce nausea.

b)

Report any rash to your provider immediately.

c)

Avoid grapefruit juice while on this medication.

d)

Use a soft toothbrush and report gum bleeding.

37.

Which of the following medication combinations requires the nurse to question the order due to a risk for lithium toxicity?

a)

Lithium and sertraline

b)

Lithium and acetaminophen

c)

Lithium and hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Lithium and lamotrigine

38.

A nurse is teaching a female client about carbamazepine. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

a)

I will use another form of birth control while on this medication.

b)

I'll take the medication at bedtime to avoid drowsiness.

c)

If I develop a rash, I’ll keep taking the medication and see if it goes away.

d)

I won’t drink grapefruit juice while taking this medication.

39.

A client taking valproic acid reports nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain. Which of the following is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Administer an antiemetic as prescribed

b)

Evaluate for possible pancreatitis

c)

Monitor the client's intake and output

d)

Notify the provider and prepare for liver function tests

40.

A nurse is caring for a client on valproic acid who develops bruising and bleeding gums. Which lab value should the nurse assess first?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

INR

c)

Platelet count

d)

White blood cell count

41.

Which of the following instructions is most important for the nurse to include when educating a client beginning valproic acid?

a)

If you miss a dose, double up next time.

b)

Avoid dairy products while on this medication.

c)

Report symptoms such as vomiting or unusual tiredness to your provider.

d)

You can stop the medication once your mood is stable.

42.

What is the primary mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

a)

Increase dopamine release in the CNS

b)

Block reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine

c)

Inhibit MAO enzyme activity

d)

Stimulate alpha-2 adrenergic receptors

43.

Which of the following are common side effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Blurred vision

d)

Urinary retentino

e)

Sedation

44.

A patient prescribed nortriptyline reports increased sweating and confusion after also taking St. John’s Wort. What is the most likely concern?

a)

Anticholinergic toxicity

b)

Serotonin syndrome

c)

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

d)

Rebound hypertension

45.

It is safe for patients with recent myocardial infarction (MI) to take imipramine for ADHD.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which patient education point is most appropriate for someone starting a TCA like amitriptyline?

a)

Expect to see effects within 2–3 days

b)

Stop taking the drug immediately if dry mouth occurs

c)

Increase fluid intake to 2–3 L/day

d)

Avoid all fiber-rich foods

47.

Which of the following should the nurse include when educating a patient starting Clonidine for ADHD?

a)

Take the larger dose in the morning to stay alert

b)

Do not stop taking abruptly

c)

Chew sugarless gum for dry mouth

d)

Use caution with activities requiring mental alertness

e)

Expect weight gain as a common side effect

48.

Which condition is a contraindication for centrally acting alpha-2 agonists like guanfacine?

a)

Hyperthyroidism

b)

COPD

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus

49.

The transdermal patch form of Clonidine should be removed immediately and replaced if it falls off.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which interaction should the nurse be most concerned about in a patient taking amoxapine and MAOIs concurrently?

a)

Increased CNS depression

b)

Decreased heart rate

c)

Hypertensive crisis

d)

Rebound hypertension

51.

Which of the following medications may increase CNS depression when taken with TCAs?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Pseudoephedrine

d)

Opioids

e)

Antihistamines

52.

Which of the following conditions would cause you to question the administration of a skeletal muscle relaxant?

a)

Liver Disease

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes Mellitus

d)

Pulmonary Embolism

53.

What are muscle spasms?

a)

Involuntary muscle contractions with constant pain

b)

Permanent contracture of muscles located at the joints

c)

Involuntary muscle contractions with intermittent pain

d)

Shaking of extremities with movement

54.

What education would you give to patients taking skeletal muscle relaxants?

a)

Do not suddenly stop taking medication

b)

Take medication with a full glass of water

c)

Take in the morning to prevent insomnia

d)

Avoid activities that require alertness

55.

Which of these medication classes would a skeletal muscle relaxant interact with? (Select all that apply)

a)

Opioid analgesic

b)

Benzodiazepine

c)

Pseudoephedrine

d)

Sumatriptan

56.

Which of these muscle relaxants could cause a patient to develop a physical dependence?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Cyclobenzaprine

c)

Tizanadine

d)

Methocarbamol

57.

What is the mechanism of action of a skeletal muscle relaxant?

a)

Blocks GABA receptors in the brain and spinal cord

b)

Stimulates GABA receptors in the brain and spinal cord

c)

Stimulates dopamine receptors in the brain and spinal cord

d)

Decreases intracellular calcium concentration

58.

Which antiepileptic medication is indicated for absence seizures?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Phenobarbital

59.

Which antiepileptic drug is associated with weight gain and peripheral edema?

a)

Lamotrigine

b)

Pregabalin

c)

Topiramate

d)

Ethosuximide

60.

Which of the following are complications of phenytoin?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Ethosuximide

d)

Phenobarbital

61.

A nurse is providing instructions to a client prescribed carbamazepine. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

a)

I should avoid grapefruit juice.

b)

I can safely take this medication with other antiepileptics.

c)

This medication is safe for pregnancy.

d)

I should expect increased bruising or bleeding.

62.

Which antiepileptic medication may cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome and requires the client to report any skin rash?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Lamotrigine

d)

Gabapentin

63.

Which antiepileptic drugs are indicated for simple partial seizures?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Gabapentin

e)

Ethosuximide

64.

Which antiepileptic drugs can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Oxcarbazepine

c)

Phenobarbital

d)

Lamotrigine

65.

A 16 month old toddler is being admitted for a minor surgical procedure that requires a local anesthetic. The anesthesiologist orders a topical benzocaine for the procedure. What is the child at risk for?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Respiratory depression

c)

Methemoglobinemia

d)

Peripheral edema

66.

Which of the following is a potential adverse effect of nitroprusside therapy?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypercalcemia

c)

Methemoglobinemia

d)

Peripheral edema

67.

A patient is being admitted for a brain surgery that requires them to remain conscious without feeling discomfort. What medication is likely to be ordered for this procedure?

a)

Ketamine

b)

Dantrolene

c)

Procaine

d)

Midazolam

68.

Neostigmine is the reversal agent for which type of drugs?

a)

Conscious Sedatives

b)

Neuromuscular Blockers

c)

Antispasmodics

d)

Local Anesthesia

69.

During a procedure, a patient is given Succinylcholine, but begins to display adverse reactions of muscle rigidity, increase heart rate, high body temperature, a drop in O2 saturation, and mottled skin. What type of adverse reaction is occurring?

a)

Malignant Hyperthermia

b)

Anaphylaxis

c)

Sjogren’s Syndrome

d)

Overdose of Succinylcholine

70.

What is the mechanism of action for Dantrolene?

a)

Inhibition of muscle contraction by preventing release of calcium

b)

Loss of consciousness and elimination of response to painful stimuli

c)

Allows the patient to stay awake without feeling discomfort

d)

Decreases pain by blocking conduction of pain impulses in a specific area

71.

Local Anesthetics have interactions with…. (SATA)

a)

Echinacea

b)

St. John's Wart

c)

Gingo, Garlic, Ginseng

d)

Vitamin E

e)

Antihypertensives

72.

A 17 year old patient was brought into the emergency department by his mother. She states that he is extremely confused, believes he is hallucinating, and found a syringe on his dresser. What drug did he likely inject himself with?

a)
Fentanyl
b)

Ketamine

c)

Isoflurane

d)

Lidocaine

73.

Which of these medications are used to treat Alzheimer's? SATA

a)

Ketorolac

b)

Donepezil

c)

Galantamine

d)

Rivastigmine

74.

What medication is used for anticholinergic toxicity?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Pyridostigmine

c)

Physostigmine

d)

Rivastigmine

75.

A 65 year old man who is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor and is experiencing excessive drool, eyes are watery, peeing frequently, complains of sweating all the time, has GI cramping, and is experiencing vomiting and diarrhea. What is he most likely experiencing?

a)

Hemolytic reaction

b)

Anaphylaxis Reaction

c)

Cholinergic Crisis

d)

Complications from myasthenia gravis

e)

Anticholinergic effects

76.

A 25 year old woman just gave birth to a baby boy that weighs 7lbs 9oz. The pregnancy was uncomplicated. This is her first pregnancy. She is currently in her room feeding her baby. The nurse comes in to check on her and asks her if she has voided yet. The patient says no. Bladder scan shows 100ml of urine. Ultrasound shows no obstruction What medication is the nurse anticipating the provider to prescribe?

a)

Bethanechol

b)

Pilocarpine

c)

Cevimeline

d)

Carbachol

77.

Why do we question administering muscarinic agonists in a patient with asthma?

a)

Muscarinic agonists cause bronchospasms therefore making it more difficult to breathe.

b)

We don’t question it. It will not be an issue.

c)

They cause a release of epinephrine causing an increase in respiration rate.

d)

Contraction of skeletal muscles making it more difficult for the diaphragm to work.

e)
  1. Because they decrease heart rate.

78.

How does cholinesterase inhibitors work (MOA)?

a)

The enzyme cholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine making it inactive.

b)

Prevents the enzyme cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine therefore increases the amount of Ach available at the receptor sites.

c)

Block the action of Ach, inhibiting nerve impulses responsible for involuntary muscle movements and various bodily functions.

d)

Stimulate muscarinic receptors therefore increasing heart rate.

79.

Which anticholinergic medications are used to treat asthma? SATA

a)

Oxybutynin

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Tiotropium

d)

Ipratropium

e)

Benztropine

80.

A nurse has just finished giving education to her patient about muscarinic antagonists. Which statement indicates a need for further education?

a)

“I should increase my fluids and fiber to prevent constipation.”

b)

“I will use sunglasses when going outside”

c)

“I should put my scopolamine patch on different limbs each time I apply it”

d)

“I will avoid driving or other hazardous activities if I am experiencing drowsiness”

81.

True/False: When administering eye drops you should hold the dropper 3-4 cm above the conjunctival sac.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

What counteracts the effects of cholinesterase inhibitors?

a)

Atropine

b)

Scopolamine

c)

Benztropine

d)

Dicyclomine