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College Biology Unit 3 Review

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 23hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following processes is responsible for extracting energy from sugars in cells?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Bioluminescence

d)

Thermodynamics

2.

According to the first law of thermodynamics energy...

a)

Can be destroyed

b)

Can be created and destroyed

c)

Cannot be transformed

d)

Can be transformed but can not be created or destroyed

3.

Enzymes speed up metabolic reactions by...

a)

Raising the activation energy

b)

Lowering the activation energy

c)

Eliminating the need for energy

d)

Increasing the temperature of reactions

4.

Which of the following describes competitive inhibition of an enzyme?

a)

The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site

b)

The inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active sit

c)

The enzyme's active site is modified by heat

d)

The reaction reaches its maximum rate immediately

5.

Which of the following describes noncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme?

a)

The inhibitor binds to a site other than the active site

b)

The inhibitor competes with the substrate for the active sit

c)

The enzyme's active site is modified by heat

d)

The reaction reaches its maximum rate immediately

6.

Which type of inhibitor binds at the allosteric site rather than the active site?

a)

Competitive inhibitor

b)

Noncompetitive inhibitor

c)

Substrate inhibitor

d)

Feedback inhibitor

7.

Which of the following best describes feedback inhibition?

a)

The end product of a pathway speeds up the reaction

b)

The end product of a pathway inhibits a key enzyme

c)

The reactants increase the rate of the pathway

d)

The pathway proceeds until all products are formed

8.

What happens to an enzyme if the temperature is too high?

a)

The enzyme becomes denatured

b)

The enzyme activity increases

c)

The enzyme remains unaffected

d)

The enzyme binds to more substrates

9.

How does an induced fit enhance enzyme activity?

a)

By slowing down the reaction

b)

By allowing the substrate to leave the active site

c)

By changing the enzyme’s shape for better substrate binding

d)

By breaking down the enzyme’s structure

10.

Which of the following best explains why a reaction in a closed system eventually reaches equilibrium?

a)

The reaction stops because all substrates are used up

b)

There is no free energy change (ΔG) to drive further reactions

c)

The enzymes denature at equilibrium

d)

Competitive inhibitors block further reactions

11.

Why is a phosphorylated intermediate important in ATP-mediated energy coupling?

a)

It lowers the energy of activation of the reaction

b)

It acts as a stable molecule that stores energy for long periods

c)

It increases the ΔG of the reaction, making it spontaneous

d)

It is more reactive, allowing the coupled exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic one

12.

What would most likely happen to cellular metabolism if the concentration of ADP suddenly increased?

a)

The rate of ATP synthesis would decrease

b)

The rate of exergonic reactions would decrease

c)

The regeneration of ATP would increase

d)

The enzymes would become inactive

13.

In what way does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the activity of an enzyme?

a)

It binds directly to the active site and prevents substrate binding

b)

It binds to the enzyme away from the active site, altering the enzyme’s shape

c)

It competes with the substrate for binding to the allosteric site

d)

It reduces the enzyme’s affinity for cofactors

14.

Which of the following is a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics in biological systems?

a)

Organisms create ordered structures from less organized forms

b)

All reactions in biological systems release heat as a byproduct

c)

Energy transformations decrease the entropy of the universe

d)

The maintenance of cellular organization requires an input of energy

15.

If the free energy change (ΔG) of a reaction is positive, which of the following is true?

a)

The reaction is spontaneous and will proceed without energy input

b)

The reaction is exergonic and releases free energy

c)

The reaction is endergonic and requires energy input to proceed

d)

The reaction is at equilibrium and cannot perform work

16.

How does feedback inhibition regulate metabolic pathways?

a)

It increases enzyme activity by allowing more substrate to bind

b)

It binds to the active site of enzymes to prevent competitive inhibition

c)

The end product of the pathway inhibits an earlier enzyme in the pathway

d)

It denatures enzymes, halting metabolic reactions permanently

17.

Why can cells never reach metabolic equilibrium?

a)

Reactions in the cell are irreversible

b)

Cells are open systems with a constant flow of materials

c)

The enzymes are constantly inhibited by feedback mechanisms

d)

Cells store too much energy to ever achieve equilibrium

18.

In the context of enzyme kinetics, what does a lower Michaelis constant (Km) indicate about an enzyme's affinity for its substrate?

a)

The enzyme has a lower affinity for its substrate

b)

The enzyme requires more substrate to reach half of V(max)

c)

The enzyme has a higher affinity for its substrate

d)

The enzyme's reaction rate is lower at high substrate concentrations

19.

Which of the following is most directly responsible for the catalytic activity of enzymes?

a)

The number of amino acids in the enzyme's primary structure

b)

The specific folding of the enzyme into its three-dimensional shape

c)

The enzyme’s ability to absorb thermal energy from its surroundings

d)

The concentration of cofactors in the enzyme's environment

20.

Enzymes that catalyze consecutive steps in a metabolic pathway often cluster together in a cell.

a)

The cell can be affected by toxic intermediates

b)

The enzymes in a pathway do not have enough reaction substrate to function efficiently

c)

Pathway intermediates are prevented from entering alternative metabolic pathways

d)

Enzyme crowding decreases the efficiency of each enzyme in the pathway

21.

Glycolysis is responsible for breaking glucose down into what?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

2 Pyruvic Acids

22.

True or False: This is the cellular respiration equation:

C6H12O6 + O2 ------> CO2 + H2O

a)

True

b)

False

23.

During which phase of cellular respiration is the most ATP harvested?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

24.

In each phase of cellular respiration there is a certain amount of chemical energy harvested in the form of ATP. On a perfect day, with everything running at 100% efficiency, how many molecules of ATP can we harvest from 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

38

b)

23

c)

4

d)

2

25.

When an organism is in a low oxygen situation, such as running sprints, cellular respiration ceases and the organism must use a different metabolic pathway for creating energy without oxygen. What do we call this process?

a)

Acidification

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

26.

During the Krebs cycle, pyruvic acid molecules are broken down to harvest 2 ATPs. What is created and released as a byproduct of that reaction?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Neither of these

d)

Both of these

27.

Many electrons are excited during the first two phases of cellular respiration. These electrons hitch a ride on special electron carriers and are dropped off at the Electron Transport Chain. These electrons travel down the ETC and eventually get oxidized. Once this happens, O2 gets converted into…

a)

C6H12O6

b)

H2O

c)

CO2

d)

O2

28.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
29.
If the delta G of a reaction is negative, which response shows the best conclusion for that reaction? 
a)
The reaction will release more energy than was needed to form the reaction.
b)
Energy from the reaction can be used to do work. 
c)
Energy is absorbed by the reaction which then can be used to power other reactions. 
d)
Energy is absorbed within the reaction and distributed unevenly throughout the molecule. 
30.
If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction? 
a)
ADP is forming into ATP
b)
ADP is becoming AMP
c)
ADP is being used to power other reactions
d)
ADP is being created by the reaction
31.
After 5 glucose molecules have been broken down in the cell, which pH value would most likely present the in matrix of the mitochondria. 
a)
6
b)
2
c)
4
d)
7
32.
When NADH is reduced and oxidized, which response best describes what is lost or gained? 
a)
only Electrons 
b)
2 stable Hydrogen atoms 
c)
Pair of electrons 
d)
2 ATP 
33.
Pyruvate Oxidation creates a specific numbered carbon molecule at the end of it's process. What is the number of carbons for this molecule? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
6
d)
1
34.

What are the net products of photosynthesis?

a)

6 CO2, 6 H2O, Energy

b)

6 O2 and 6 H2O

c)

C6H12O6 and 6 O2

d)

6 CO2 and C6H12O6

35.

What are the products of the light reaction directly needed by the Calvin cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

H ions and carbon dioxide

b)

Photons absorbed by chlorophyll

c)

FADH2 and Oxygen

d)

ATP and NADPH

36.

When will lactic acid build up in animal cells?

a)

When there is excess carbon dioxide

b)

When the cells produce too much ATP

c)

When there is not enough oxygen to fuel the mitochondria

d)

When the cells need to remove excess oxygen to avoid damaging their components.

37.

What is the only component of aerobic respiration that requires oxygen?

a)

The Electron Transport Chain

b)

Pyruvate Oxidation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Glycolysis

38.

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain/chemiosmosis
      pathway and what compound is formed as a result of this process?

a)

O2; H2O

b)

H2O; Acetyl CoA

c)

NAD+; NADH

d)

Pyruvate; Glucose

39.

There is a group of enzymes that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to another molecule or vice-versa.

a)

Isomerases

b)

Dehydrogenases

c)

Aldolases

d)

Kinases

40.

Which of the following best describes the role of chlorophyll in the light reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

Chlorophyll directly participates in the Calvin cycle to produce glucose.

b)

Chlorophyll absorbs light energy, initiating the transfer of electrons and H+ ions to NADP+.

c)
  • Chlorophyll acts as a catalyst in the regeneration of RuBP.

d)

Chlorophyll transports CO₂ directly to the Calvin cycle.

41.

Which statement correctly differentiates between cyclic and linear electron flow in photosynthesis?

a)
  • Linear electron flow uses only photosystem II, whereas cyclic electron flow uses only photosystem I.

b)
  • Linear electron flow produces both ATP and NADPH, while cyclic electron flow produces only NADPH.

c)

Cyclic electron flow involves photosystem I only, and does not produce NADPH, only ATP.

d)

Cyclic electron flow occurs in the Calvin cycle, while linear electron flow occurs in the light reactions

42.

What is the function of RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate) in the Calvin cycle?

a)

RuBP acts as the primary electron acceptor in the light reactions.

b)

RuBP is regenerated in the final phase of the Calvin cycle to continue carbon fixation.

c)
  • RuBP transfers H+ ions across the thylakoid membrane during the Calvin cycle.

d)

RuBP reduces NADP+ to NADPH during the light-dependent reactions.

43.

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between photorespiration and photosynthesis?

a)

Photorespiration enhances the photosynthetic output by adding more CO₂ to the Calvin cycle.

b)

Photorespiration reduces the efficiency of photosynthesis by using ATP and releasing CO₂.

c)

Photorespiration produces sugar by utilizing excess oxygen in plant cells.

d)

Photorespiration occurs in C4 plants to increase CO₂ fixation efficiency.

44.

Photorespiration occurs in C4 plants to increase CO₂ fixation efficiency.

a)

C4 plants store CO₂ in the form of malate in bundle-sheath cells, while C3 plants directly use CO₂ in the Calvin cycle.

b)

C4 plants capture CO₂ through photorespiration, whereas C3 plants use NADPH as the main electron carrier.

c)

C4 plants are incapable of photosynthesis under low light, unlike C3 plants.

d)
  • C4 plants perform cellular respiration in bundle-sheath cells instead of mesophyll cells.

45.

Which of the following best explains the purpose of light absorption by pigments in chloroplasts?

a)

To break down glucose and produce CO₂.

b)

To reduce CO₂ into sugars during the Calvin cycle.

c)

To absorb specific wavelengths of light energy, facilitating electron excitation for ATP and NADPH production.

d)

To bind with chlorophyll a and b for more efficient light capture.

46.

Which part of the leaf is primarily responsible for gas exchange and allows CO₂ to enter while releasing O₂?

a)

Cuticle

b)

Mesophyll

c)

Stomata

d)

Phloem

47.

What is the main function of the cuticle in a leaf?

a)

Conducts water and minerals from roots to leaves

b)

Contains chlorophyll and captures light for photosynthesis

c)

Protects the leaf and prevents excessive water loss

d)

Allows CO₂ and O₂ to diffuse into and out of the leaf

48.

In which part of the leaf does the majority of photosynthesis occur?

a)

Spongy mesophyll

b)

Palisade mesophyll

c)

Lower epidermis

d)

Xylem

49.

Which layer of the leaf contains air pockets that facilitate gas exchange?

a)

Cuticle

b)

Upper epidermis

c)

Palisade mesophyll

d)

Spongy mesophyll

50.

RuBisCO catalyzes the joining of carbon dioxide with RuBP during carbon fixation. In an experiment, researchers apply a toxin to a plant cell that inhibits RuBisCO. Which of the following explains the most likely effect this toxin will have on the Calvin cycle?

a)

ATP synthase will not catalyze the formation of ATP on the thylakoid membrane

b)

Carbon and oxygen will not be released after the breakdown of CO2

c)

Excited electrons will not be transferred across the electron transport cgain

d)

Carbon dioxide will not be converted into carbohydrates.

51.

The cytochrome b6f complex is an integral thylakoid membrane protein that forms an electrochemical gradient by pumping protons. In an experiment, researchers apply a toxin to a plant cell that inhibits the cytochrome b6f complex.

Which of the following explains the most likely effect of this toxin on the light reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

H+ ions will move across the thylakoid membrane using simple diffusion

b)

NADP+ will be reduced to NADPH

c)

ATP synthesis will not occur

d)

Carbohydrates will not be produced in the stroma

52.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between autotrophs and heterotrophs?

a)

Autotrophs produce their organic molecules from CO2 and other inorganic molecules, whereas heterotrophs obtain their molecules from compounds

b)

Both autotrophs and heterotrophs produce some of their organic molecules from CO2 and other inorganic molecules

c)

Heterotrophs produce their organic molecules from CO2 and other inorganic molecules, whereas autotrophs obtain their organic compounds produced by other organisms

d)

Heterotrophs are considered the producers of the biosphere, whereas autotrophs are consumers

53.
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the conditions under which the Calvin cycle and cellular respiration occurs in plants?

a)
  1. The Calvin cycle and cellular respiration both occur in the dark and the light.

b)
  1. The Calvin cycle occurs only in the dark, and cellular respiration occurs in both the dark and the light.

c)
  1. The Calvin cycle and cellular respiration both occur only in the light.

d)

The Calvin cycle occurs only in the light, and cellular respiration occurs only in the dark.

54.
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)
  1. Photosynthesis occurs only in plants; cellular respiration occurs only in animals.

b)
  1. Cellular respiration runs the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis in reverse.

c)
  1. Photosynthesis stores energy in complex organic molecules; cellular respiration releases energy from complex organic molecules.

d)
  1. Photosynthesis is catabolic; cellular respiration is anabolic.

55.

Which of the following processes is directly associated with photosystem I?

a)

Generating molecular oxygen

b)

Receiving electrons from the thylakoid membrane electron transport chain

c)

Extracting hydrogen electrons from the splitting of water

d)

Passing electrons to NADP+

56.
  1. Which of the following events are associated with chemiosmosis in chloroplasts?

a)
  1. The pH of the stroma increases and ATP is synthesized.

b)
  1. The pH of the stroma decreases and ATP is hydrolyzed.

c)
  1. The pH of the cytosol outside the chloroplast decreases and ATP is synthesized.

d)
  1. The pH of the thylakoid space increases and ATP is synthesized.

57.
  1. P680+ is said to be the strongest biological oxidizing agent. The strong oxidizing potential of P680+ is essential for its function because it_____.

a)
  1. is the molecule that transfers electrons to plastoquinone (Pq) of the electron transfer system

b)
  1. Is the receptor for the most excited electrons in either photosystem of photosynthesis

c)
  1. Transfers its electrons to reduce NADP+ to NADPH

d)
  1. Obtains electrons from the oxygen atom in a water molecules

58.
  1. Which of the following processes is most directly driven by light energy?

a)
  1. Carbon fixation in the stroma

b)

Creation of a pH gradient by pumping protons across the thylakoid membrane

c)

Oxidation of chlorophyll molecules

d)

Reduction of NADP* molecules

59.

In autumn, chlorophyll is degraded in the leaves of deciduous trees. Which of the following statements bests explains the change in color from green shades to shades of yellow, orange, or red?

a)

Sugars from sap fill the leaves prior to winter.

b)

In the absence of photosynthesis, the leaves produce energy exclusively by aerobic cellular respiration.

c)

Degraded chlorophyll appears yellow, orange, or red.

d)

Other pigments such as carotenoids remain in the leaves after the chlorophyll is degraded.

60.

Which of the following statements best explain the ability of CAM plants to synthesize sugars in the daytime while keeping their stomata closed to reduce water loss?

a)

They fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells.

b)

They use photosystem I and photosystem Il at night.

c)

They fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells.

d)

They fix COz into organic acids during the night.

61.

Most sugar is transported from the leaves to the rest of the plant in the form of which of the following molecules?

a)

Sucrose

b)

G3P

c)

Starch

d)

Glucose

62.

What is the difference between losing an H+ and losing a hydrogen atom?

a)

Losing H+ means losing a proton, while losing a hydrogen atom means losing both a proton and an electron.

b)

H+ and a hydrogen atom are identical.

c)

Losing H+ means losing an electron, while losing a hydrogen atom means losing a proton only.

d)

Losing H+ refers to gaining energy, while losing a hydrogen atom releases energy

63.

What is the function of NAD+, FADH, and NADP+ in cellular respiration and photosynthesis?

a)

They act as electron carriers that transport high-energy electrons.

b)

They serve as energy-storing molecules.

c)

They provide structural support for the electron transport chain

d)

They directly produce ATP during phosphorylation.

64.

What distinguishes substrate-level phosphorylation from oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation produces ATP using a proton gradient, while substrate-level phosphorylation directly transfers a phosphate group.

b)

Substrate-level phosphorylation uses oxygen, while oxidative phosphorylation does not.

c)

Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria, while oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the cytoplasm.

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs only during glycolysis.

65.

How is oxygen used in cellular respiration?

a)

It breaks down glucose in glycolysis.

b)

It acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, forming water.

c)

It provides energy for ATP synthase to produce ATP.

d)

It catalyzes the Citric Acid Cycle.

66.

Which statement about the Citric Acid Cycle is correct?

a)

It begins with pyruvate and produces glucose.

b)

It starts with acetyl-CoA, produces NADH, FADH2, and ATP, and follows glycolysis.

c)

It occurs in the cytoplasm and produces NADPH.

d)

It produces water directly and drives chemiosmosis.

67.

Where is the electron transport chain located, and what drives the building of the H+ gradient?

a)

It is located in the cytoplasm, and NADH provides energy for the H+ gradient.

b)

It is in the mitochondrial matrix, and ATP hydrolysis pumps H+ across the membrane.

c)

It is embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane, and energy from electron movement pumps H+ across the membrane.

d)

It is in the chloroplast thylakoids, and oxygen provides energy to drive the gradient.

68.

What drives the chemiosmotic generation of ATP?

a)

The phosphorylation of ADP by enzymes

b)

The splitting of glucose into pyruvate.

c)

The flow of H+ ions down their concentration gradient through ATP synthase.

d)

The direct release of energy from electron carriers like NADH and FADH2.

69.

Which are products of the Calvin Cycle, and how are they utilized?

a)

Glucose and oxygen, which are directly used in glycolysis.

b)

G3P, which is used to form glucose and regenerate RuBP.

c)

ATP and NADPH, which provide energy for light reactions.

d)

CO2 and water, which are used to power the light reactions.

70.

What is the main function of chemiosmosis in cellular respiration?

a)
  • To produce ATP by transferring electrons through the electron transport chain.

b)
  • To convert glucose into pyruvate during glycolysis.

c)
  • To synthesize NADH from NAD++.

d)
  • To create a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane.

71.

During chemiosmosis, how are protons (H+) transported across the mitochondrial membrane?

a)
  • They move from the mitochondrial matrix into the cytoplasm.

b)
  • They move from the cytoplasm into the mitochondrial matrix

c)
  • They move from the inner mitochondrial membrane to the outer mitochondrial membrane.

d)
  • They are pumped from the matrix to the intermembrane space.

72.

What role does ATP synthase play in chemiosmosis?

a)
  • It breaks down ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate.

b)
  • It pumps electrons across the inner mitochondrial membrane.

c)
  • It uses the flow of protons through it to synthesize ATP.

d)
  • It transports oxygen from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.

73.

Select all of the microorganisms that are responsible for fermentation.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Yeasts

c)

Molds

d)

Virus

74.

Select all of the following that are used to control fermentation.

a)

water

b)

pH

c)

temperature

d)

salt

75.

What type of pH slows or stops fermentation?

a)

Acidic (<7)

b)

Basic (>7)

c)

Neutral

76.
What are the two reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
C6H12O6 & 6CO2
b)
6 CO2 & 6H2O
c)
C6H12O& 6O2
d)
6CO2 & 6O2
77.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
78.

Cellular respiration is the process that our cells use to ….

a)

convert sugar (glucose) into energy (ATP)

b)

break food down into smaller molecules (sugars)

c)

makes acid

d)

breathe

79.
Where does the electron transport chain happen?
a)
Matrix
b)
Cristae
c)
Outer membrane
d)
Cytoplasm
80.
What is needed from the Krebs Cycle in order for the Electron Transport Chain to occur?
a)
ATP
b)
FADH2
c)
CO2
d)
H20
81.
How many ATP are produced in the Electron Transport Chain?
a)
2
b)
30
c)
34
d)
38
82.

Please identify the proper locations for each step of cellular respiration.

a)

Glycolysis = Cytoplasm

b)

Glycolysis = Mitochondria

c)

Citric Acid Cycle = Cytoplasm

d)

Citric Acid Cycle = Mitochondria

e)

Oxidative Phosphorylation = Cytoplasm

83.

ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by

a)

H+ movement

b)

electron movement

c)

NADH movement

d)

FADH2 movement

84.

Which of the following processes creates the most ATP during aerobic cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis

b)

fermentation

c)

electron transport chain

d)

Citric acid cycle

85.

What does FADH2 and NADH bring to the electron transport chain?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Electron

d)

ATP

86.

Please indicate the correct equation(s) for Cellular Respiration. (2 answers)

a)

Glucose + Oxygen --> Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy

b)

C6H12O6 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O + ATP

c)

Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy --> Glucose + Oxygen

d)

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 --> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP

87.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
88.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
89.
What are the reactants of photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
b)
water and oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
water and glucose
90.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
91.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids