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Mock Regents Review

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which description of the atom is based on the results of the gold foil experiment in the early 1900s?

a)

Atoms are small, dense, indivisible spheres

b)

Atoms are composed of protons, electrons, and neutrons

c)

Atoms have small, dense, positively charged nuclei.

d)

Atoms have electrons with wavelike properties.

2.

On the Periodic Table, the number of protons in an atom of an element is indicated by its

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

selected oxidation states

d)

number of valence electrons

3.

Every chlorine atom has

a)

7 electrons

b)

17 neutrons

c)

a mass number of 35

d)

an atomic number of 17

4.

The table below gives the atomic mass and the abundance of the two naturally occurring isotopes of copper. Which numerical setup can be used to calculate the atomic mass of the element copper?

a)

(62.93 u)(30.85) + (64.93 u)(69.15)

b)

(62.93 u)(69.15) + (64.93 u)(30.85)

c)

(62.93 u)(0.3085) + (64.93 u)(0.6915)

d)

(62.93 u)(0.6915) + (64.93 u)(0.3085)

5.

A potassium atom has a mass number of 37. What is the number of neutrons in this atom?

a)

15

b)

18

c)

22

d)

37

6.

Which phrase describes the different isotopes of an element?

a)

same number of electrons and a different number of protons

b)

same number of protons and a different number of electrons

c)

same number of protons and a different number of neutrons

d)

same number of neutrons and a different number of protons

7.

Which two notations represent isotopes of the same element?

a)

147 N and 187 N

b)

207 N and 2010 Ne

c)

147 N and 1710 Ne

d)

197 N and 1610 Ne

8.

Which numerical setup can be used to calculate the atomic mass of the element bromine?

a)

(78.92 u)(50.69) + (80.92 u)(49.31)

b)

(78.92 u)(49.31) + (80.92 u)(50.69)

c)

(78.92 u)(0.5069) + (80.92 u)(0.4931)

d)

(78.92 u)(0.4931) + (80.92 u)(0.5069)

9.

An orbital is defined as a region of the most probable location of

a)

an electron

b)

a neutron

c)

a nucleus

d)

a proton

10.

Compared to an electron in the first electron shell of an atom, an electron in the third shell of the same atom has

a)

less mass

b)

less energy

c)

more mass

d)

more energy

11.

When a ground state electron in an atom moves to an excited state, the electron

a)

absorbs energy as it moves to a higher energy state

b)

absorbs energy as it moves to a lower energy state

c)

releases energy as it moves to a higher energy state

d)

releases energy as it moves to a lower energy state

12.

Which electron configuration represents the electrons of a phosphorus atom in an excited state?

a)

2-8-5

b)

2-8-6

c)

2-7-6

d)

2-7-4

13.

The bright-line spectra produced by four elements and a mixture of two of these elements are represented in the diagram below. Which elements are present in the mixture?

a)

A) L and G

b)

B) L and J

c)

C) E and G

d)

D) E and J

14.

According to the wave-mechanical model of the atom, electrons are located in

a)

orbitals

b)

circular paths

c)

a small, dense nucleus

d)

a hard, indivisible sphere

15.

The elements on the Periodic Table of the Elements are arranged in order of increasing

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

mass number

d)

oxidation state

16.

The element in Group 14, Period 3, of the Periodic Table is classified as a

a)

metal

b)

noble gas

c)

metalloid

d)

nonmetal

17.

Which list of elements consists of a metal, a metalloid, and a noble gas?

a)

aluminium, sulfur, argon

b)

magnesium, sodium, sulfur

c)

sodium, silicon, argon

d)

silicon, phosphorous, chlorine

18.

Which statement describes a chemical property of iron?

a)

Iron is malleable.

b)

Iron conducts electricity.

c)

Iron reacts with nitric acid.

d)

Iron has a high melting point.

19.

At STP, graphite and diamond are two solid forms of carbon. Which statement explains why these two forms of carbon differ in hardness?

a)

Graphite and diamond have different ionic radii.

b)

Graphite and diamond have different molecular structures.

c)

Graphite is a metal, but diamond is a nonmetal.

d)

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity, but diamond is a poor conductor of electricity.

20.

Krypton atoms in the ground state tend not to bond with other atoms because their

a)

second electron shell contains eight electrons

b)

third electron shell contains eighteen electrons

c)

innermost electron shell contains two electrons

d)

outermost electron shell contains eight electrons

21.

Which element is a liquid at STP?

a)

bromine

b)

cesium

c)

francium

d)

iodine

22.

Oxygen can exist as diatomic oxygen gas, O2(g), or ozone, O3(g). These two forms of oxygen have

a)

the same molecular structure and the same properties

b)

different molecular structures and different properties

c)

the same molecular structure and different properties

d)

different molecular structures and the same properties

23.

Which Lewis electron-dot diagram represents a nitrogen atom in the ground state?

a)

b)

c)

d)

24.

An element with a partially filled d sublevel in the ground state is classified as

a)

a halogen

b)

a transition metal

c)

an alkali metal

d)

an alkaline earth metal

25.

When an F atom becomes an F⁻ ion, the F atom

a)

gains a proton

b)

loses a proton

c)

gains an electron

d)

loses an electron

26.

Compared to the number of electron shells and radius of an aluminum atom in the ground state, a boron atom in the ground state has

a)

fewer electron shells and a smaller radius

b)

fewer electron shells and a larger radius

c)

more electron shells and a smaller radius

d)

more electron shells and a larger radius

27.

Which general trends in atomic radius and electronegativity are observed as the elements in Period 3 are considered in order of increasing atomic number?

a)

Atomic radius decreases and electronegativity increases.

b)

Atomic radius increases and electronegativity decreases.

c)

Both atomic radius and electronegativity increase.

d)

Both atomic radius and electronegativity decrease.

28.

Which sample of matter is classified as a mixture?

a)

NaCl(s)

b)

CH₃OH(ℓ)

c)

SO₂(g)

d)

KNO₃(aq)

29.

What is the formula for iron(II) oxide?

a)

FeO

b)

FeO₂

c)

Fe₂O

d)

Fe₂O₃

30.

What is the chemical formula for ammonium sulfide?

a)

(NH₄)₂S

b)

(NH₄)₂SO₃

c)

(NH₄)₂SO₄

d)

(NH₄)₂SO₂

31.

What is a chemical name for the compound PbO₂?

a)

lead(I) oxide

b)

lead(II) oxide

c)

lead(III) oxide

d)

lead(IV) oxide

32.

Which formula is the empirical formula for ethane, C₂H₆?

a)

CH

b)

CH₃

c)

C₂H₆

d)

C₄H₁₂

33.

What is the molecular formula for CH₃CH₂COOCH₃?

a)

C₂H₄O

b)

C₂H₄O₂

c)

C₄H₈O

d)

C₄H₈O₂

34.

What is the gram-formula mass of Mg(NO₃)₂?

a)

86 g/mol

b)

134 g/mol

c)

148 g/mol

d)

172 g/mol

35.

What is the total number of moles of oxygen atoms in 1 mole of N₂O₃?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

36.

What is the number of moles of CO₂ in a 220.-gram sample of CO₂ (gram-formula mass = 44 g/mol)?

a)

0.20 mol

b)

5.0 mol

c)

15 mol

d)

44 mol

37.

A substance has an empirical formula of CH₂ and a molar mass of 56 grams per mole. The molecular formula for this compound is

a)

A) CH₂

b)

B) C₄H₆

c)

C) C₄H₈

d)

D) C₈H₄

38.

What is the empirical formula of a compound that contains 30.4% nitrogen and 69.6% oxygen by mass?

a)

NO

b)

NO₂

c)

N₂O₃

d)

N₂O₅

39.

What is the percent composition by mass of nitrogen in (NH₄)₂CO₃ (gram-formula mass = 96.0 g/mol)?

a)

14.6%

b)

29.2%

c)

58.4%

d)

87.5%

40.

Given the equation representing a reaction: F₂(g) + 2KCl(aq) → 2KF(aq) + Cl₂(g) Which type of chemical reaction is represented by the equation?

a)

synthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

single replacement

d)

double replacement

41.

Given the equation representing a reaction: 2NaCl → 2Na + Cl₂ Which type of reaction does this equation represent?

a)

double replacement

b)

decomposition

c)

synthesis

d)

single replacement

42.

Given the unbalanced equation: __Fe₂O₃ + __CO → __Fe + __CO₂ When the equation is correctly balanced using the smallest whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient of CO?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

43.

Given the equation representing a reaction: Cl₂(g) + 2I2(aq) → 2Cl2(aq) + I₂(s) What is the number of moles of electrons gained by Cl₂(g) when 2.0 moles of electrons are lost by I2(aq)?

a)

1.0 mol

b)

2.0 mol

c)

3.0 mol

d)

4.0 mol

44.

Given a balanced equation representing a reaction: 2CO(g) + O₂(g) → 2CO₂(g) + energy Which mass of O₂(g) reacts completely with 5.6 grams of CO(g) to produce 8.8 grams of CO₂(g)?

a)

1.6 g

b)

2.8 g

c)

3.2 g

d)

14.4 g

45.

Given the reaction: Mg + H₂SO₄ → MgSO₄ + H₂ How many grams of H₂SO₄ are needed to produce exactly 11.2 liters of H₂, measured at STP?

a)

24.5

b)

49.0

c)

98.0

d)

196

46.

Given the equation representing a reaction: F + F → F₂ Which statement describes the changes that occur during this reaction?

a)

A) A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.

b)

B) A bond is formed as energy is released.

c)

C) A bond is broken as energy is absorbed.

d)

D) A bond is broken as energy is released.

47.

What occurs when potassium reacts with chlorine to form potassium chloride?

a)

Electrons are shared and the bonding is ionic.

b)

Electrons are shared and the bonding is covalent.

c)

Electrons are transferred and the bonding is ionic.

d)

Electrons are transferred and the bonding is covalent.

48.

Which type of bond forms when electrons are equally shared between two atoms?

a)

a polar covalent bond

b)

a nonpolar covalent bond

c)

a hydrogen bond

d)

an ionic bond

49.

Which formula represents a molecule with an asymmetrical distribution of charge?

a)

Cl2

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

H2O

50.

What is the amount of heat that must be absorbed to increase the temperature of a 130.-gram sample of water from 20.0°C to 50.0°C?

a)

3.90 × 103 J

b)

1.63 × 104 J

c)

4.34 × 104 J

d)

2.94×1052.94 \times 10^5 J

51.

Which sample of zinc has atoms with the highest average kinetic energy?

a)

5.0 g of Zn at 40.°C

b)

10. g of Zn at 30.°C

c)

15 g of Zn at 20.°C

d)

20. g of Zn at 10.°C

52.

What is the temperature, in degrees Celsius, of a sample of matter at 35 K?

a)

−238°C

b)

−308°C

c)

35°C

d)

308°C

53.

Which phase change results in an increase in disorder?

a)

I2(g) → I2(s)

b)

Cl2(l) → Cl2(g)

c)

N2O4(g) → N2O4(l)

d)

H2O(l) → H2O(s)

54.

According to the kinetic molecular theory, the particles of an ideal gas

a)

constantly move in circular paths

b)

have no attractive forces between them

c)

do not transfer energy when the particles collide

d)

are separated by small distances relative to their sizes

55.

Under which conditions will a real gas behave more like an ideal gas?

a)

high pressure and high temperature

b)

high pressure and low temperature

c)

low pressure and high temperature

d)

low pressure and low temperature

56.

A rigid cylinder with a movable piston contains a sample of hydrogen gas. At 330. K, this sample has a pressure of 150. kPa and a volume of 3.50 L. What is the volume of this sample at STP?

a)

0.233 L

b)

1.96 L

c)

4.29 L

d)

6.26 L

57.

Which set of values represents standard pressure and standard temperature?

a)

1 atm and 101.3 K

b)

1 kPa and 273 K

c)

101.3 kPa and 0°C

d)

101.3 atm and 273°C

58.

The heating curve below represents a sample of a substance starting as a solid below its melting point and being heated over a period of time. Which statement describes the energy of the particles in this sample during interval DE?

a)

A) Both potential energy and average kinetic energy increase.

b)

B) Both potential energy and average kinetic energy decrease.

c)

C) Potential energy increases and average kinetic energy remains the same.

d)

D) Potential energy remains the same and average kinetic energy increases.

59.

How many joules of heat are absorbed to raise the temperature of 435 grams of water at 1 atm from 25°C to its boiling point, 100.°C?

a)

4.5 X 104 J

b)

1.4 X 105 J

c)

2.5 X 107 J

d)

7.4 X 107 J

60.

What is the amount of heat required to completely melt a 200.-gram sample of H2O(s) at STP?

a)

334 J

b)

836 J

c)

66800 J

d)

452000 J

61.

Which term identifies a force of attraction that exists between molecules of water?

a)

covalent bonding

b)

hydrogen bonding

c)

ionic bonding

d)

metallic bonding

62.

Based on Table H, which compound has the weakest intermolecular forces at 75°C?

a)

ethanoic acid

b)

ethanol

c)

propanone

d)

water

63.

The difference in which property allows the separation of a sample of water and sand by using filter paper and a funnel?

a)

boiling point

b)

melting point

c)

particle size

d)

sample volume

64.

Which process can be used to separate a mixture of two liquids having different boiling points?

a)

deposition

b)

distillation

c)

filtration

d)

sublimation

65.

Based on Table G, which compound is less soluble in water as the temperature increases from 0°C to 100°C?

a)

KNO3

b)

NH3

c)

KClO3

d)

NH4Cl

66.

When PbI2(s) is added to Na2CO3(aq), a white precipitate is formed. According to Reference Table F, the white precipitate most likely is

a)

KNO3

b)

PbCO3

c)

NaI

d)

Na2CO3

67.

When 5 grams of KCl are dissolved in 50. grams of water at 25°C, the resulting mixture can be described as

a)

heterogeneous and unsaturated

b)

heterogeneous and supersaturated

c)

homogeneous and unsaturated

d)

homogeneous and supersaturated

68.

What is the molarity of a NaOH solution containing 0.125 mole of NaOH in 0.200 L of water?

a)

0.025 M

b)

0.250 M

c)

0.625 M

d)

1.60 M

69.

A solution has a mass of 2000. grams and contains 0.050 gram of dissolved solute. What is the concentration in parts per million of this solution?

a)

5.0 ppm

b)

25 ppm

c)

50. ppm

d)

100. ppm

70.

A reaction between two different gases is most likely to occur when the colliding molecules have the proper orientation and sufficient

a)

charge

b)

energy

c)

mass

d)

volume

71.

As the temperature of a reaction increases, it is expected that the reacting particles collide

a)

more often and with greater force

b)

more often and with less force

c)

less often and with greater force

d)

less often and with less force

72.

Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2 HCl(aq) → Zn²⁺(aq) + 2 Cl⁻(aq) + H₂(g) If the concentration of HCl(aq) is increased, the frequency of reacting collisions will

a)

decrease, producing a decrease in the reaction rate

b)

decrease, producing an increase in the reaction rate

c)

increase, producing a decrease in the reaction rate

d)

increase, producing an increase in the reaction rate

73.

Given the equation: I₂(s) → I₂(g) Which phrase describes this change?

a)

endothermic chemical change

b)

endothermic physical change

c)

exothermic chemical change

d)

exothermic physical change

74.

Which expression represents the heat of reaction for a chemical change?

a)

(PEproducts) + (PEreactants)

b)

(PEproducts) – (PEreactants)

c)

(PEproducts) ÷ (PEreactants)

d)

(PEproducts) × (PEreactants)

75.

Given the reaction at equilibrium: 2 SO₂(g) + O₂(g) ↔ 2 SO₃(g) + heat Which change will shift the equilibrium to the right?

a)

increasing the temperature

b)

increasing the pressure

c)

decreasing the amount of SO₂(g)

d)

decreasing the amount of O₂(g)

76.

Which term represents the disorder of a system?

a)

entropy

b)

mole

c)

quanta

d)

pressure

77.

Which condition is necessary for a chemical reaction to occur spontaneously?

a)

ΔS must be negative.

b)

ΔS must be positive.

c)

ΔG must be negative.

d)

ΔG must be positive.

78.

Which two particles each have a mass approximately equal to one atomic mass unit?

a)

positron and electron

b)

positron and neutron

c)

proton and electron

d)

proton and neutron