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Spring Break PS Review

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 4hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is convection?

a)

The transfer of heat through direct contact

b)

The transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves

c)

The transfer of heat through the movement of fluids

d)

The transfer of heat through solid materials

2.

Which of the following is an example of convection in liquids?

a)

Boiling water in a pot

b)

Heating a metal rod

c)

Sunlight warming the ground

d)

A microwave heating food

3.

How does convection occur in gases?

a)

Through the vibration of molecules

b)

Through the movement of air currents

c)

Through the absorption of light

d)

Through the conduction of heat

4.

Which mechanism of heat transfer involves the movement of fluids?

a)

Conduction

b)

Radiation

c)

Convection

d)

Insulation

5.

What role does convection play in ocean currents?

a)

It causes the water to freeze

b)

It helps distribute heat throughout the ocean

c)

It prevents the mixing of water layers

d)

It causes the ocean to evaporate

6.

Which of the following is an example of convection in gases?

a)

A hot air balloon rising

b)

A metal spoon heating up in a pot

c)

A light bulb emitting light

d)

A rock warming in the sun

7.

How does convection contribute to weather patterns?

a)

By reflecting sunlight back into space

b)

By causing the Earth to rotate

c)

By distributing heat and moisture in the atmosphere

d)

By absorbing carbon dioxide

8.

What happens to the density of a fluid as it is heated and rises?

a)

The density increases

b)

The density decreases

c)

The density remains the same

d)

The density fluctuates randomly

9.

How does convection affect the climate in coastal regions?

a)

It causes extreme temperature fluctuations

b)

It moderates temperatures by distributing heat

c)

It prevents rainfall

d)

It increases the salinity of the ocean

10.

What is the primary cause of convection currents in the atmosphere?

a)

Differences in air pressure

b)

Differences in air temperature

c)

Differences in air composition

d)

Differences in air humidity

11.

In which layer of the Earth's atmosphere does convection primarily occur?

a)

Stratosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Thermosphere

12.

What is the effect of convection on the temperature of a room when a heater is used?

a)

It causes the temperature to decrease

b)

It causes the temperature to remain constant

c)

It causes the temperature to increase evenly

d)

It causes the temperature to fluctuate

13.

What happens to air as it rises in the atmosphere due to convection?

a)

It cools and expands

b)

It warms and contracts

c)

It remains at the same temperature

d)

It becomes denser

14.

Why are elements considered unique in the periodic table?

a)

Because each element has a unique atomic number

b)

Because elements have similar properties

c)

Because elements can be found in different states

d)

Because elements can form compounds

15.

What makes isotopes of an element unique?

a)

They have different numbers of protons

b)

They have different atomic numbers

c)

They have different numbers of neutrons

d)

They have different chemical properties

16.

How does the electron configuration contribute to the uniqueness of an element?

a)

It changes the element's state of matter

b)

It affects the element's color

c)

It determines the element's atomic mass

d)

It defines the element's chemical properties

17.

What is the primary factor that determines the chemical properties of an element?

a)

The number of protons

b)

The number of neutrons

c)

The atomic mass

d)

The number of electrons

18.

What is the primary reason water has a high specific heat capacity?

a)

Hydrogen bonding between water molecules

b)

Its molecular weight

c)

Its density

d)

Its ability to dissolve substances

19.

Why does ice float on water?

a)

Ice has a higher temperature than water

b)

Ice is denser than water

c)

Ice has a lower density than water

d)

Ice is heavier than water

20.

What property of water allows it to dissolve many substances?

a)

Its viscosity

b)

Its low freezing point

c)

Its polarity

d)

Its high boiling point

21.

Which of the following is an example of COHESION?

a)

water sticking to water

b)

water sticking to glass

c)

oil sticking to plastic

d)

hydrogen sticking to oxygen

22.

Which of the following is the CORRECT list of water's properties?

Read Carefully!

a)

adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solvent

b)

adhesion, cohesion, low specific heat, universal solvent

c)

adhesion, no cohesion, low specific heat, universal solute

d)

no adhesion, cohesion, high specific heat, universal solute

23.

Water sticks well to many materials. What term relates to this property of water?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

density

d)

surface tension

24.

Why does ice float?

a)

water expands when it freezes, making ice less dense than water

b)

water compacts when it freezes, making ice more dense than water

c)

hydrogen bonds in water push the ice to the surface

d)

ice is afraid of water, and avoids it

25.

Water has good __________ which can be seen when insects and leaves are able to sit on top of water.

a)

synergistic effects

b)

balance

c)

surface tension

d)

photosynthesis

26.

Which property of water will cause water to bead up on glass?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Ability to dissolve substances

d)

High specific heat

27.

There are partial charges within a water molecule which cause water to have special properties. This makes water a ________ molecule.

a)

Polar

b)

Nonpolar

c)

Hydrophobic

d)

Ionic

28.

Which box has a higher density?  

a)

Box A

b)

Box B

c)

cannot be determined

d)

they are the same

29.

How is viscosity & density affected when a fluid is heated?

a)

viscosity increases & density increases

b)

viscosity decreases & density decreases

c)

viscosity decreases & density increases

d)

temperature has no affect on viscosity or density

30.

The ___________ of a fluid refers to its “thickness,” or its resistance to flow.

a)

temperature

b)

colour

c)

taste

d)

viscosity

31.

1. Daily choices that humans make affect the environment. Sometimes, our lifestyles can harm

the environment. For example, fossil fuel power plants generate waste in the form of air

emissions, thermal releases and climatic impacts. Which of the following statements would be

most helpful in protecting the environment from fossil fuel power plants?

a)

Using solar power to generate electricity.

b)

Buying fewer mass produced products.

c)

Buying paper products made from harvested trees.

d)

Using natural gas as a fuel source instead of petroleum

32.

Offshore drilling is a common practice for obtaining oil for human use. Oil can be used for

transportation fuels, production of plastic, and making electricity.Which of the following

statements best describes an environmental concern with using offshore drilling to obtain oil?

a)

Offshore drilling requires a large amount of energy input to obtain a small amount of oil.

b)

Offshore drilling produces oil that cannot be used directly, therefore requiring further

expensive processing.

c)

Offshore drilling is not cost effective because it requires specialized equipment to drill the

oil.

d)

Offshore drilling can lead to a contamination of marine ecosystems that threaten the

organisms living there.

33.

Coal mining is the process of extracting coal from the ground. Coal is valued for its energy

content and since the 1880s has been widely used to generate electricity. Steel and cement

industries use coal as a fuel for extraction of iron from iron ore and for cement production.

Predict a negative effect that could occur over the next 50 years if coal mining increased.

a)

Coal mining could produce acid rain causing burns to human skin.

b)

Coal mining creates nuclear energy that causes immediate death

c)

Coal mining can reduce the natural environment in the surrounding land.

d)

Coal from mining can wash into bodies of water and cause an overgrowth of algae.

34.

Scientists are currently researching new ways to obtain energy from our natural, renewable

resources. Which statement gives the best explanation of the benefits of renewable resources.

a)

Renewable resources are nonrenewable and expensive to produce.

b)

Renewable resources are versatile and emit various amounts of pollution.

c)

Renewable resources generates energy that produces no greenhouse gases.

d)

Renewable resources are natural, but cause destruction of land surrounding production.

35.

Oil is one of the most common non-renewable resources on Earth. Human consumption of oil

is happening at a rate that may cause concern. Which of the following would be evidence that

humans have reached peak oil consumption?

a)

There is a decreased demand for oil globally.

b)

Oil is easily accessible in many locations on Earth.

c)

Oil requires greater lengths and expenses to obtain.

d)

The cost of oil has dropped in many developed countries.

36.

The chart below shows energy consumption sources in the United States.

Which conclusion can be made regarding both the distribution of energy consumption in the

United States and the impact this energy consumption has on the environment?

a)

The majority of energy consumed in the United States is produced using renewable

resources, which has a positive impact on the environment.

b)

The majority of energy consumed in the United States is produced using renewable

resources, which has a negative impact on the environment.

c)

The majority of energy consumed in the United States is produced using nonrenewable

resources, which has a positive impact on the environment.

d)

The majority of energy consumed in the United States is produced using nonrenewable

resources, which has a negative impact on the environment.

37.

Deforestation is the clearance, or removal of a forest from land which is then converted to a

non-forest use. Deforestation can involve the conversion of forest land to farms, ranches, or

urban use. The most concentrated deforestation occurs in tropical rainforests. Deforestation of

areas considered to be rich sources of genetic material could limit future agricultural and

medical advances for future generations. How could deforestation limit agricultural and medical

advances?

a)

It can maintain the ecosystem equilibrium.

b)

It can deplete the ecosystem’s ozone layer.

c)

It can decrease the ecosystem’s biodiversity.

d)

It can increase the ecosystem’s carrying capacity.

38.

When scientists and interested citizen groups attempt to improve the quality of life for Earth’s

population there are some factors that need to be considered. To make a well rounded

decision it is important to look at environmental and economic concerns. What is general

consideration that can be made when making policy decisions?

a)

To require that all natural areas surrounding Florida peninsula become marine

sanctuaries.

b)

To remove regulations and monitoring efforts when they conflict with the development of

new residences.

c)

To enact and enforce laws regarding the environment but without compromising the

needs of future generations.

d)

To resettle areas where toxic dumps were found after natural bioremediation has removed

all dangers to humans.

39.

Increased use of fossil fuels as an energy source has increased the amount of carbon dioxide

emissions into the atmosphere. The graph below shows the levels of carbon dioxide emissions

among renewable and nonrenewable resources.

How does the monitoring of carbon dioxide emissions with atmospheric levels of carbon

dioxide affect our decisions on both renewable and non-renewable energy sources?

a)

Renewable and non-renewable resources both result in similar amounts of carbon dioxide

emissions, so this data does not affect our choice of renewable and non-renewable

energy resources.

b)

Renewable resources generally result in lower carbon dioxide emissions, therefore our

goal should be to increase our use of renewable resources in order to slow our increase in

levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

c)

Non-renewable resources generally result in lower carbon dioxide emissions, therefore

our goal should be to increase our use of non-renewable resources in order to slow our

increase in levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

d)

Renewable resources generally result in lower carbon dioxide emissions, but they are

much more expensive when compared with non-renewable energy resources. Our goal

should be to increase our use of non-renewable resources in order to save on the costs of

using renewable resources.

40.

Renewable energies generate from natural sources that can be replaced over a relatively short time scale. The following are examples of renewable energy resources except: Examples of renewable energies include solar, wind, hydro, geothermal and biomass.

a)

solar

b)

fossil fuels

c)

wind

d)

biomass

41.

A tuning fork starts to vibrate when a certain note is played on the piano, This is an example of _______.

a)

resonance

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

reflection

42.

What occurs when vibrations traveling through an object match the object's natural frequency?

a)

reflection

b)

diffraction

c)

resonance

d)

refraction

43.

True or False: Sound needs a medium.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Natural frequency is best described as

a)

the frequency at which an object naturally vibrates at when it is disturbed

b)

a vibration that can be heard in the wild

c)

the radio frequency that astronauts naturally use when travelling into space

d)

the material used to make a swing

45.

Sound is produced by -----

a)

Heat energy

b)

Low temperatures

c)

Vibrations

d)

Friction

46.

True or False: Sound waves are faster than light.

a)

False

b)

True

47.

What is a PUSH or PULL of an object?

a)

Motion

b)

Force

c)

Friction

d)

Gravity

48.

Why is it harder for the boy in Image B to get down the hill?

a)

Motion

b)

Friction

c)

Work

d)

Displacement

49.

If these boys are pulling with the same amount of force. What will happen?

a)

The boy in blue will win.

b)

They will not move at all.

c)

The boy in red will win.

d)

Both will fall down.

50.

It takes more force to accelerate the iron man on the left than the iron man on the right because the iron man on the left has more mass. This best describes

a)

Newton's first law, the law of inertia

b)

Newton's second law, the law of acceleration

c)

Newton's third law, the law of action reaction 

d)

The law of universal gravitation

51.

The formula ? = mass x acceleration or ? = m x a is used to find

a)

Force

b)

Velocity

c)

Momentum

d)

Gravity

52.
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
a)
Newton's
1st
Law of Motion
b)
Newton's
2nd
Law of Motion
c)
Newton's
3rd
Law of Motion
53.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
54.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
55.
What is the attractive force that exists between all objects that have mass?
a)
Weight
b)
Mass 
c)
Gravity
d)
Viscosity
56.

A squirrel sits on the ground and eats a donut. We know the forces on him must be balanced because...

a)

Forces are always balanced

b)

the squirrel is not accelerating

c)

squirrels are projectiles

d)

he's eating a donut

57.
Are forces balanced or unbalanced when a marble speeds up rolling down a ramp?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
58.
What is Newton's First Law
a)
F=ma
b)
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
c)
An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion. 
d)
Friction 
59.

Newton's third law states that any action will have an _______ and ______ reaction

a)

Equal and similar

b)

Equal and opposite

c)

Equal and different

d)

Greater and opposite

60.

This equation goes with which law?

a)

Newton's first law of motion

b)

Newton's second law of motion

c)

Newton's third law of motion

61.

You push against a wall and the wall is pushing back on you.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

62.
Why is it harder to push a van filled with bowling balls than it is to push a van with basketballs?
a)
The mass of the car is greater than the mass of the basketballs
b)
The mass of the bowling balls is greater than the mass of the basketballs
c)
The van with the basketballs is bigger than the van with the bowling balls
d)
It should be equally as hard to push the two vans
63.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
64.

A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

1000 m/s

c)

100 seconds

d)

10 seconds

65.
Which of the following is a unit of speed ?
a)
sec
b)
mi
c)
m/s
d)
min
66.
According to the graph how far does the person travel in the first 5 seconds?
a)
2 m
b)
10 m
c)
0 m
d)
5 m
67.

The clown walked 27 feet in 9 seconds. what was his speed?

a)

18 feet/sec

b)

243 feet/sec

c)

36 feet/sec

d)

3 feet/sec

68.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

69.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

70.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Deceleration (negative slope)

71.

At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled?

a)

0 m

b)

10 m

c)

20 m

d)

40 m

72.

Which graph below shows 2 runners moving at the same speed?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

In order to calculate speed, what two values do you need?

a)

distance

b)

direction

c)

force

d)

time

74.

It took Sam 10 minutes to run 20 blocks. Calculate his speed.

a)

30 min/block

b)

10 min/block

c)

2 blocks/min

d)

0.5 blocks/min

75.
Blue Color: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
76.
Density: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
77.
Flammability (burns): Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
78.
Solubility (dissolves): Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
79.
Reacts with Acid: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
80.
Brittleness: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
81.
Sour Taste: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
82.
Melting Point: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
83.
Reacts with Water: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
84.
Boiling Point: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
85.
Luster: Chemical or Physical Property
a)
Chemical Property
b)
Physical Property
86.

What is hydro?

a)

water

b)

wind

c)

nuclear

d)

gas

87.
Hyrdo Power is a __________ energy resource.
a)
Renewable
b)
Nonrenewable
88.

What are 2 cons (disadvantages) of using water power?

a)

Dams are expensive to build

b)

It creates a lot of electricity

c)

It is renewable

d)

numerous environmental consequences

89.

What do you call the area where water is stored behind a dam?

a)

reservoir

b)

generator

c)

refuge

d)

turbine

90.

What happens when water flows through a dam?

a)

The water evaporates.

b)

The water turns a turbine.

c)

The water is pumped back up.

d)

The water creates sparks making electricity.

91.

What allows water to flow through a dam?

a)

The water is pumped out.

b)

The water constantly flows through without ever stopping.

c)

The water is pushed out when a motor is turned on.

d)

The water is released from a higher elevation to a lower elevation.

92.

What is the job of a turbine?

a)

When it spins, it makes sparks causing electricity.

b)

It moves the energy from the flow of water to a generator.

c)

It slows down the speed of the water to keep it at a steady pace.

d)

It controls the water so it can be pumped back up the dam.

93.

What does a generator do?

a)

It spins when the water passes through it.

b)

It moves the water from a higher elevation to a lower elevation.

c)

It helps the movement of fish to pass safely through the dam.

d)

It produces electricity.

94.

An electric current flowing in one direction only is:

a)

Alternate Current

b)

Reverse Current

c)

Direct Current

d)

Indirect Current

95.

Atoms are made up of what?

a)

molecules

b)

compounds

c)

elements

d)

subatomic particles

96.

Which of the following are subatomic particles? (Check all that apply)

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

megatrons

d)

electrons

97.

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

cybertron

98.

Which subatomic particle has no charge, also known as a neutral charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

chakra

99.

What is the center of an atom called?

a)

The headquarters

b)

The centrometer

c)

The hypothesis

d)

The nucleus

100.

The nucleus of an atom contains which subatomic particles?

a)

protons and electrons

b)

protons and neutrons

c)

electrons and neutrons

d)

protons, electrons, and neutrons

101.

Which subatomic particle does the RED(+) circle represent?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

nucleus

102.

Which subatomic particle does the YELLOW(-) circle represent?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

nucleus

103.

Which subatomic particle does the GREEN( ) circle represent?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

nucleus

104.
Why are metals useful for making electrical wire?
a)
Metals do not bend.
b)
Metals hold much heat.
c)
Metals are insulators.
d)
Metals are conductors.
105.
Which is NOT an insulator.
a)
Wool
b)
Plastic
c)
Copper
d)
Glass
106.
What is a example of a conductor?
a)
wood 
b)
metal
c)
rubber
d)
rock
107.
What is a example of a insulator?
a)
metal 
b)
rubber
c)
water
108.
A insulator does not let energy flow through easily 
a)
True 
b)
False
109.
A conductor allows energy to easily pass by.  
a)
True 
b)
False
110.
Why is electrical wiring usually covered with a layer of plastic?
a)
To help electricity flow along the wire
b)
To make it look pretty
c)
To make it safe
111.

Which is a conductor and which is an insulator?

112.

Which of the following IS NOT a behavior that light waves can undergo when they reach a boundary between two media?

a)

stopping at the edge of the boundary

b)

reflection off of the boundary

c)

transmission into the boundary

d)

refraction through the boundary

113.

Reflection is to bouncing as refraction is to:

a)

bending.

b)

breaking.

c)

dissipating.

d)

halting.

114.

This drawing illustrates the ________________________ of a light wave.

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

c)

diffraction

d)

dispersion

115.

When a light ray strikes a smooth, flat surface, what is the relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection?

a)

They are equal.

b)

The angle of incidence is twice that of the angle of reflection.

c)

The angle of reflection is twice that of the angle of incidence.

d)

They combine to add up to 180o.

116.

A concave mirror is shaped like the inner surface of a sphere. How do you think light rays will reflect off a concave mirror?

a)

Reflected rays converge toward the center line of a concave mirror.

b)

Reflected rays diverge away from the center line of a concave mirror.

c)

Reflected rays reflect straight back at the angle that they came in.

d)

Reflected rays are absorbed by a concave mirror.

117.

The way that a surface reflects light depends on its texture. Rough surfaces such as cloth and wood tend to scatter light, reflecting it in many different directions. This type of reflection is called:

a)

diffuse reflection.

b)

specular reflection.

c)

incident reflection.

d)

distorted reflection.

118.

The way that a surface reflects light depends on its texture. Smooth, shiny surfaces such as mirrors reflect light in a uniform (or close to uniform) direction. This type of reflection is called:

a)

specular reflection.

b)

metallic reflection.

c)

crystal reflection.

d)

sharpened reflection.

119.

This type of telescope is referred to as a ________________ telescope.

a)

reflecting

b)

refracting

c)

diffracting

d)

diffusing

120.

Objects that generate their own light are called:

a)

luminous objects.

b)

illuminated objects.

c)

shiny objects.

d)

reflective objects.

121.

In order to view an object, you must sight along __________ at that object.

a)

a line

b)

a circle

c)

an ellipse

d)

a triangle

122.

Light is known to behave in a very predictable manner. If a ray of light could be observed approaching and reflecting off of a flat mirror, then the behavior of the light as it reflects would follow a predictable law known as the law of reflection. Which diagram below illustrates the law of reflection?

a)
b)
c)
d)
123.

A ray of light is incident towards a plane mirror at an angle of 30-degrees with the mirror surface. What will be the angle of reflection?

a)

60o

b)

30o

c)

90o

d)

45o

124.

Light that is reflected or transmitted through certain media so that all vibrations are restricted to a single plane is called:

a)

polarized light.

b)

ambient light.

c)

direct light.

d)

indirect light.

125.

When light rays strike a rough surface, they are:

a)

scattered.

b)

focused.

c)

absorbed.

d)

refracted.

126.

What type of energy does a sound wave have?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Radiant

c)

Electrical

d)

Sound

127.

Sound is produced by -----

a)

Heat energy

b)

Low temperatures

c)

Vibrations

d)

Friction

128.

True or False: Sound needs a medium.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

True or False: Sound waves are faster than light.

a)

False

b)

True

130.

Areas of increased pressure on a sound wave are known as a ----

a)

Rarefaction

b)

Compression

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

131.

The distance from the beginning of one compression to the beginning of the next compression is called a -----

a)

Rarefaction

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

d)

Compression

132.

Spread out areas or areas of decreased pressure on a sound wave are known as a ---

a)

Rarefaction

b)

Amplitude

c)

Compression

d)

Hertz

133.

The number of wavelengths that pass a fixed point each second is known as ----

a)

Hertz

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

134.

The unit for measuring frequency is the ---

a)

Joule

b)

Hertz

c)

Gram

d)

Newton

135.

The measure of the amount of energy in a wave is ----

a)

Wavelength

b)

Hertz

c)

Frequency

d)

Amplitude

136.

The Tacoma Narrows Bridge, musical instruments, and crystal stemware are examples of -----

a)

Frequency

b)

Resonance

c)

Interference

d)

Speed

137.

The speed of sound depends on these two things:

a)

The type of medium and the temperature of the medium

b)

Speed of the medium and temperature of the medium

c)

Temperature of the medium and sound of the medium

d)

None of the above

138.

Sound waves travel the fastest through ---

a)

Liquids

b)

Gases

c)

Solids

139.

Sonar and echolocation use ----- to detect objects under water.

a)

Refraction

b)

Reflection

140.

Energy cannot be created nor destroyed, only transferred from one form to another.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

__________ energy is the energy of motion.

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

142.

As the velocity of an object decreases, its KE will...

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

143.

What two factors affect an object's kinetic energy?

a)

area and volume

b)

mass and weight

c)

weight and height

d)

mass and speed

144.

Increasing an object's speed will increase its kinetic energy.

a)

false

b)

true

145.

At which position is the potential energy the greatest?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

146.

At which these positions is the potential energy the least?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

147.

At which of these positions is the kinetic energy the greatest?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

148.

At which position is the kinetic energy the least?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

149.

If the coaster has a mass of 735 kg and a height of 95 meters, what is the potential energy at position 1?

a)

7.74 J

b)

34,912.5 J

c)

69,825 J

d)

684,285 J

150.

Ignoring friction, if the PE = 684,285 J at position 1, what is the KE at position 5 (lowest pt)?

a)

0 J

b)

34,912.5 J

c)

69,825 J

d)

684,285 J