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Worksheets

EOS FINAL 2026

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of infection control in barbering?

a)

To enhance hairstyles

b)

To prevent disease transmission

c)

To increase service speed

d)

To reduce product usage

2.

The correct way to wash hands includes:

a)

Using hot water only

b)

Rubbing hands together for 10 seconds

c)

Using soap and washing for at least 20 seconds

d)

Rinsing with water only

3.

What should be done if a client has an active skin infection?

a)

Proceed with the service

b)

Use extra disinfectant

c)

Refuse the service

d)

Wear double gloves

4.

What is the best way to handle a chemical spill?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Clean it with a damp cloth

c)

Follow the manufacturer's instructions for cleanup

d)

Use any available cleaning product

5.

What is the minimum alcohol content required for effective hand sanitizer?

a)

40%

b)

60%

c)

70%

d)

90%

6.

What type of disinfectant is recommended for tools?

a)

Alcohol

b)

Bleach

c)

EPA-approved disinfectant

d)

Hand sanitizer

7.

What should a barber do if they notice a client has a rash?

a)

Proceed with the service

b)

Discuss the rash with the client and possibly refuse service

c)

Cover the rash with makeup

d)

Ignore it

8.

What should be used on a client's skin before applying a chemical product?

a)

Nothing

b)

A barrier cream

c)

Water

d)

Alcohol

9.

What is the purpose of a patch test before a chemical service?

a)

To check for allergies

b)

To ensure the product is effective

c)

To test the client’s hair type

d)

To determine the length of service

10.

What should barbers do if they cut themselves while working?

a)

Continue working without addressing it

b)

Clean the wound and cover it properly

c)

Ignore it

d)

Show it to the client

11.

What is a common cause of skin irritation during shaving?

a)

Dull blades

b)

Using too much product

c)

Not exfoliating

d)

All of the above

12.

The primary objective of a basic men’s facial is:

a)

Hair removal

b)

Skin cleansing and hydration

c)

Hair styling

d)

Beard trimming

13.

How often should men typically receive facials for optimal skin health?

a)

Once every few years

b)

Once a month

c)

Every week

d)

Only when there is a skin issue

14.

What is the first step in a basic facial?

a)

Exfoliation

b)

Cleansing

c)

Massage

d)

Moisturizing

15.

What type of mask is best for oily skin?

a)

Cream mask

b)

Clay mask

c)

Gel mask

d)

Sheet mask

16.

What is the purpose of using a moisturizer after a facial?

a)

To add fragrance

b)

To hydrate and protect the skin

c)

To remove impurities

d)

To exfoliate

17.

How long should a basic facial typically take?

a)

10 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

60 minutes

d)

90 minutes

18.

Which technique is used to apply a mask?

a)

Rubbing

b)

Patting

c)

Scrubbing

d)

Brushing

19.

What should a barber ask a client regarding their hair history?

a)

Their favorite color

b)

Previous services and products used

c)

Their occupation

d)

Their favorite food

20.

Why is it important to assess a client’s hair and scalp condition?

a)

To see how much hair they have

b)

To recommend appropriate services and products

c)

To make small talk

d)

To determine their hair color

21.

What factors should be considered when designing a haircut?

a)

Client’s face shape

b)

Hair texture

c)

Lifestyle

d)

All of the above

22.

Which of the following is NOT a key element of a consultation?

a)

Asking about allergies

b)

Discussing previous experiences

c)

Ignoring the client’s preferences

d)

Providing professional recommendations

23.

What is the purpose of setting expectations during a consultation?

a)

To discourage the client

b)

To ensure client satisfaction with the outcome

c)

To create confusion

d)

To upsell services

24.

What should a barber do if a client has a history of allergic reactions?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Discuss it and select products carefully

c)

Use any available product

d)

Ask the client to sign a waiver

25.

Why is it important to document client preferences and treatments?

a)

To track financial records

b)

To personalize future services

c)

To keep clients from returning

d)

To avoid communication

26.

What type of questions should be asked during a consultation?

a)

Open-ended questions

b)

Yes or no questions

c)

Rhetorical questions

d)

Leading questions

27.

How can a barber demonstrate professionalism during a consultation?

a)

By being late

b)

By dressing appropriately and being attentive

c)

By using slang

d)

By rushing the client

28.

What is the appropriate way to ask about a client’s previous hair treatments?

a)

Have you had any treatments?

b)

Tell me your entire hair history.

c)

What products do you use?

d)

Do you have any hair?

29.

What is the purpose of using a chemical perm?

a)

To straighten hair

b)

To add curls or waves to hair

c)

To change hair color

d)

To remove unwanted hair

30.

What is the main purpose of a neutralizer in a perm service?

a)

To add moisture

b)

To stop the chemical process

c)

To change color

d)

To create shine

31.

The ____ consists of shaving the sides of the neck and across the nape with a razor.

a)

traditional neck shave

b)

outline shave

c)

arching

d)

outliner technique

32.

A ____ style conforms to the contours of the head and produces a more uniformly consistent appearance on medium to thick hair.

a)

fade

b)

flat top

c)

crew cut

d)

quo vidas

33.

Which haircut style is characterized by having a well-blended, graduated cut that conforms to the head shape?

a)

flat top

b)

crew cut

c)

taper cut

d)

fade style

34.

A ____ style “fades to nothing” at the hairline.

a)

fade

b)

flat top

c)

crew cut

d)

quo vadis

35.

Which haircut style is characterized by having short, semi-short, or medium-tapered side and back lengths with a top section that gradually increases in length from the crown to the front hairline?

a)

Flat top

b)

crew cut

c)

taper cut

d)

fade style

36.

The brush cut is a variation of ____.

a)

layered cut

b)

high and tight cut

c)

crew cut

d)

fade style

37.

Which haircut style is characterized by being very short on the sides and back area, with slightly longer hair at the upper parietal and front sections?

a)

flat top

b)

crew cut

c)

taper style

d)

fade style

38.

Tapering the hair ____ will cause the hair to stand up.

a)

withe the grain

b)

with a razor

c)

against the grain

d)

too closely to a air part

39.

When cutting fine hair with a razor, use the ____.

a)

heaviest stroke

b)

lightest stroke and pressure

c)

dull edge of the razor

d)

tip of the razor

40.

The razor is held at almost 90 degrees to the surface of the hair in ____.

a)

heavier taper-blending

b)

light taper-bledning

c)

terminal blending

d)

texturizing

41.

The razor is held almost flat against the surface of the hair in ____.

a)

Terminal Blending

b)

light taper blending

c)

heavier taper blending

d)

feathering

42.

Freehand slicing is used for ____.

a)

blending

b)

razor over comb technique

c)

tapering

d)

creating more movement within a style

43.

In razor rotation, the razor follows the comb through the hair ____.

a)

then the comb follows the razor

b)

until all the hair is cut

c)

then the hair is trimmed with shears

d)

in order to produce a blunt cut

44.

In ____ clipper cutting, placing the hair in a position to be cut and removing excess hair cut from the previous section is done with a comb or hair pick.

a)

clipper over comb

b)

guided

c)

freehand

d)

against the grain

45.

_______________________ cutting can be used for the entire haircut or for blending.

a)

clipper over comb

b)

guided

c)

freehand

d)

against the grain

46.

Which fingers-and-shear cutting technique is most often used to create design lines at the perimeter of the haircut?

a)

cutting above the fingers

b)

cutting below the fingers

c)

cutting palm to palm

d)

cutting finger to finger

47.

Which fingers-and-shear cutting technique is used to cut and blend layers in the top, crown, and horseshoe areas?

a)

cutting above the fingers

b)

cutting below the fingers

c)

cutting palm to palm

d)

cutting finger to finger

48.

Elevation results from ___.

a)

Tipping the clients head forward while cutting

b)

tipping the clients head back while cutting

c)

letting the hair fall naturally

d)

Lifting the hair section above 0 elevation

49.

Cutting against the grain involves cutting the hair ____.

a)

in the opposite direction from which it grows

b)

in the same direction in which it grows

c)

from the bottom to the top

d)

from the top to the bottom

50.

Bacteria that is generally round and can be found in groups or by itself

a)

Streptococci

b)

Cocci

c)

Bacilli

d)

Spirilla

51.

Which blade cuts the lowest?

a)

0000

b)

00000

c)

000

d)

0A

52.

Name 4 parts of the razor

a)

heel, head, button, point

b)

edge, point, tang, shank

c)

Pivot, blade, shoulder, arm

d)

handle, stick, edge, corner

53.

Texturizing shears have how many teeth?

a)

30-41

b)

7-11

c)

14-28

d)

8-12

54.

4 parts of a clipper are

a)

cord, label, tang, teeth

b)

heel, set screw, cutting blade, on/off switch

c)

pivot, magnetic, Rotary, power

d)

hole, base, still blade, motor

55.

What are the principle tools of Barbering?

a)

Clippers, Brushes, pens

b)

Shears, Clippers, combs, trimmers, razors, brushes

c)

Barber chair, laptops, books, flat irons

d)

Strops, hones, galvanic machine

56.

Laws are also called _____.

a)

regulations

b)

guidelines

c)

statutes

d)

rules

57.

Acne is a skin disorder characterized by chronic inflammation of the _________ glands.

a)

sudoriferous

b)

sebaceous

c)

sweat

d)

adrenaline

58.

The best against against pollutants is to _____________.

a)

wear sunscreen whenever you are outside

b)

avoid touching your face with your hands

c)

follow a good daily skin care routine

d)

wear long-sleeved clothing when you are outdoors

59.

A pustule is a raised, inflamed papule with a white or yellow center containing ______ in the top of the lesion.

a)

water

b)

blood

c)

lymph

d)

pus

60.

A flat spot or discoloration on the skin, also known as a "liver" spot, is a _________.

a)

macule

b)

leukoderma

c)

milia

d)

scale

61.

A contagious bacterial skin infection characterized by weeping lesions is __________.

a)

impetigo

b)

conjunctivitis

c)

eczema

d)

herpes simplex

62.

Which of these terms refers to thin, dry, or oily plates of epidermal flakes?

a)

fissures

b)

mole

c)

pustules

d)

scales

63.

What is the deepest layer of the skin?

a)

Subcutaneous layer

b)

Dermis

c)

Epidermis

d)

Sweat gland

64.
Name one warm color
a)
red
b)
violet
c)
blue
d)
green
65.
What is the predominant tone of a color?
(The main color when you look at a head of hair)
a)
Glaze
b)
High lights
c)
Base color
d)
Intensity
66.
A lightening technique that involves pulling strands of hair through a cap with a metal hook.
a)
Foil high lighting
b)
Weaving technique
c)
Slicing technique
d)
Cap technique
67.
Also known as booster, protinators, or accelerators; these are powder added to hair color to increase lightening ability.
a)
activators
b)
intensifiers
c)
developers
d)
fillers
68.
These are used to equalize porosity in hair.
a)
activators
b)
fillers
c)
pigments
d)
lighteners
69.
Also known as oxidizing agents or catalysts; when mixed with an oxidation hair color, it supplies the necessary oxygen gas to develop color molecules and create a change in hair color.
a)
glaze
b)
developers
c)
law of color
d)
toners
70.
Known as two-step coloring; a coloring technique requiring two separate procedures in which the hair is pre-lightened before the depositing color is applied to the hair.
a)
double-process application
b)
highlighting
c)
triple-process application
d)
baliage
71.
Coloring some of the hair strands lighter than the natural color to add a variety of lighter shades and the illusion of depth.
a)
highlighting
b)
color fillers
c)
baliage
d)
glaze
72.
A professional, industry-coined term referring to artificial hair color products and services. (one word)
a)
glaze
b)
contributing pigment
c)
haircolor
d)
fillers
73.
A non-ammonia color that adds shine and tone to the hair.
a)
conditioner
b)
decolorizer
c)
filler
d)
glaze
74.
A primary and secondary color positioned directly opposite each other on the color wheel.
a)
Complementary colors
b)
Tertiary colors
c)
Primary colors
d)
Color Fillers
75.
Also known as bleaching or decolorizing; chemical process involving the diffusion of the natural hair color pigment or artificial hair color from the hair.
a)
Hair lightening
b)
Hair highlighting
c)
Filling
d)
Foils
76.
A primary and secondary color positioned directly opposite each other on the color wheel.
a)
Complementary colors
b)
Tertiary colors
c)
Primary colors
d)
Color Fillers
77.
Colors prepared by combining permanent hair color hydrogen peroxide, and shampoo.
a)
sun-in
b)
highlighting conditioner
c)
highlighting shampoo
d)
developer
78.
Equalize porosity and deposit color in one application to provide a uniform contributing pigment on pre-lightened hair.
a)
Conditioner fillers
b)
Contributing pigment
c)
Foil fillers
d)
Color fillers
79.
Also known as undertone; the degrees of warmth exposed during a permanent color or lightening process.
a)
Demi-permanent
b)
Contributing pigment
c)
Semi-permanent
d)
Level
80.
Also known as no-lift deposit-only color; formulated to deposit but not lift (lighten) natural hair color.
a)
Cap technique
b)
Foil technique
c)
Double-process hair color
d)
Demipermanent haircolor
81.
Oxidizing agent that, when mixed with an oxidation hair color, supplies the necessary oxygen gas to develop the color molecules and create a change in natural hair color.
a)
Conditioner fillers
b)
Glaze
c)
Water
d)
Hydrogen peroxide developer
82.
The natural color of the hair (two words)
a)
color of hair
b)
hair color
c)
permanent dye
d)
metallic dye
83.

The chemical texture service that loosens overly curly hair or changes tightly curly or coiled hair into loose curls or waves is

a)

curl softening

b)

curl re-forming

c)

alternate waving

d)

swelling compound

84.

The layer of the hair that provides the strength and elasticity of human hair is the _____________.

a)

medulla

b)

regular

c)

cortex

d)

arrector

85.

The natural pH of hair is between____________.

a)

4.0 and 5.0

b)

4.5 and 5.5

c)

6.0 and 7.0

d)

7.0 and 8.0

86.

In permanent waving, the size of the curl is determined by the __________.

a)

position of the rod

b)

length of the hair

c)

wrapping of the rod

d)

size of the rod

87.

A reduction reaction involves either the addition of hydrogen or the removal of ______________.

a)

oxygen

b)

peroxide

c)

carbon

d)

nitrogen

88.

The three separate components of acid waves are permanent waving solution, activator, and ____________.

a)

conditioner

b)

stabilizer

c)

neutralizer

d)

shampoo

89.

Permanent wave solution should be rinsed from the hair for at least ________.

a)

2 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

5 minutes

90.

The process of rearranging the structure of curly hair into a straighter or smoother form is __________.

a)

chemical hair relaxing

b)

chemical smoothing

c)

continuation

d)

neutralizing

91.

Thio relaxers usually have a pH above_____________.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

9

d)

6

92.

Which type of bonds are relatively weak physical side bonds that are the result of an attraction between negative and positive electrical charge?

a)

Disulfide bonds

b)

Polypeptide bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

waving bonds

93.

Chemical solutions __________ the pH of the hair to an alkaline state.

a)

lower

b)

raise

c)

neutralize

d)

do not affect

94.

When should you perform an elasticity test?

a)

Before perming the hair

b)

While perming the hair

c)

After perming the hair

d)

Never

95.

Porous hair __________.

a)

is difficult to penetrate

b)

should never be permed

c)

could be damaged by a highly alkaline permanent waving solution

d)

could be damaged by a highly acidic permanent waving solution

96.

In permanent waving, most of the processing takes place within the first _______.

a)

5 to 10 minutes

b)

10 to 20 minutes

c)

20 to 30 minutes

d)

45 to 60 minutes

97.

A ___________ is a perm wrap in which one end paper is placed under and another is placed over the strand of hair being wrapped.

a)

double flat wrap

b)

croquignole perm wrap

c)

bookend wrap

d)

single flat wrap

98.

The __________ is the innermost layer of the hair.

a)

cortex

b)

base

c)

medulla

d)

cuticle

99.

Which layer of the hair is located directly beneath the cuticle layer & is responsible for the incredible strength & elasticity of human hair?

a)

Hair shaft

b)

Cuticle

c)

Cortex

d)

Medulla

100.

Which tool is commonly used to achieve a fade in men's haircuts?

a)

Scissors

b)

Clippers

c)

Razor

d)

Thinning Shears