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Astronomy SPG Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why would an astronomer use an infrared telescope over a visible light telescope?

a)

To be able to see the Sun

b)

To be able to see through dark nebulae

c)

To be able to see nearby stars like Sirius

d)

To be able to see the body heat of a dog

2.

The image of the black hole in galaxy M87 was detected in the ______ range of the EM spectrum

a)

radio

b)

infrared

c)

gamma

d)

visible light

3.

What kind of star is at location A?

a)

red giant

b)

main sequence

c)

blue giant

d)

white dwarf

4.

What will first happen to the star at location A as it ages?

a)

it will "move" up and to the left along the curve that it is found in

b)

it will "move" to location D

c)

it will "move" to location B

d)

it will "move" to location C

5.

If star A is the Sun, what will it become when it has relocated to area B?

a)

a red giant

b)

a red supergiant

c)

a white dwarf

d)

a neutron star

6.

If star A is the Sun, what will it become when it has relocated to area D?

a)

a red giant

b)

a red supergiant

c)

a white dwarf

d)

a neutron star

7.

Before going through a Type II Supernova, a high-mass star would be in which area of the diagram near the end of its life?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.

Which layer of the Sun makes nuclear fusion possible?

a)

the core

b)

the radiative zone

c)

the convective zone

d)

the photosphere

9.

"The Random Walk" describes the very slow path of gamma photons through which layer of the Sun?

a)

core

b)

radiative zone

c)

convective zone

d)

photosphere

10.

This layer of the Sun is responsible for producing the granulated pattern on the Sun's surface through the process of exchanging gases/plasmas of different densities:

a)

core

b)

radiative zone

c)

convective zone

d)

photosphere

11.

The visible surface of the Sun reveals a granulated pattern, sunspots, and spicules, among other phenomena. What is it called?

a)

core

b)

radiative zone

c)

convective zone

d)

photosphere

12.

If a stellar nebula collapses to form a star, but with less mass than usual, what is the likely outcome?

a)

a protostar

b)

a brown dwarf

c)

a red dwarf

d)

a main sequence star

13.

Protostars that have become dense and hot enough to begin nuclear fusion have now entered the __________ stage.

a)

red giant

b)

end

c)

main sequence

d)

supernova

14.

Brown dwarfs PRIMARILY differ from normal stars by:

a)

their smaller size

b)

their color

c)

their inability to consistently produce fusion reactions

d)

their tendency to explode as a supernova early in life

15.

The conservation of which property of a collapsing stellar nebula causes it to take on the form of an accretion disk?

a)

mass

b)

energy

c)

angular momentum

d)

density

16.

Most asteroids are located between the orbits of ______ and ________. (PICK TWO ANSWERS)

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mars

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

e)

Pluto

17.

Most inactive cometary nuclei are found beyond the orbit of:

a)

Mars

b)

Venus

c)

Saturn

d)

Neptune

18.

The ______________ is/are farthest from the Sun

a)

Asteroid Belt

b)

Trojan Asteroids

c)

Kuiper Belt

d)

Oort Cloud

19.

The Oort Cloud is mostly made of:

a)

gas giants

b)

asteroids

c)

inactive comets

d)

active comets

20.

Which is the correct ordering of terrestrial planets based on increasing orbital period?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

b)

Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

c)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury

d)

Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth

21.

Which is the correct ordering of terrestrial planets based on increasing radius?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

b)

Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

c)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury

d)

Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth

22.

Which is the correct ordering of terrestrial planets based on increasing mass?

a)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

b)

Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

c)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury

d)

Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth

23.

Which type of telescope would Galileo have used to look at the Moon, Jupiter or Venus?

a)

left telescope

b)

right telescope

c)

he would have used both

d)

he would have used neither

24.

Which type of telescope would Newton have used to look at the a comet or Saturn?

a)

left telescope

b)

right telescope

c)

he would have used both

d)

he would have used neither

25.

Which is a reflecting telescope?

a)

left telescope

b)

right telescope

c)

he would have used both

d)

he would have used neither

26.

Which is a refracting telescope?

a)

left telescope

b)

right telescope

c)

both

d)

neither

27.

Which is a reflecting telescope?

a)

left telescope

b)

right telescope

c)

both

d)

neither

28.

Which of these lists correct orders the phases of the moon?

a)

new, 1st quarter, full, 3rd quarter

b)

3rd quarter, full, 1st quarter, new

c)

full, new, 1st quarter, 3rd quarter

d)

1st quarter, new, 3rd quarter, full

29.

Which of these is a full moon?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

30.

Which of these is a waning crescent moon?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

31.

Which of these is a waxing gibbous moon?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

How will the moon appear from Earth at position 4?

a)

waxing gibbous

b)

waning gibbous

c)

waxing crescent

d)

waning crescent

33.

How will the moon appear from Earth at position 1?

a)

new moon

b)

full moon

c)

1st quarter

d)

3rd quarter

34.

To be considered a dwarf planet, which requirements must be met? (PICK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER)

a)

it must orbit the Sun and not another planet

b)

it must have sufficient mass to have a nearly spheroidal shape

c)

it must have cleared its orbit of debris

d)

it must have at least one moon

35.

Which dwarf planet is close enough to Pluto in mass & radius that helped push the "Pluto is not a planet" argument?

a)

Eris

b)

Jupiter

c)

Ceres

d)

Charon

36.

Stars in area C are mostly:

a)

red supergiant

b)

red giant

c)

blue giant

d)

blue giant

37.

What sort of tide would be seen at an ocean at a location beneath the moon in this diagram?

a)

high tide

b)

low tide

c)

median tide

d)

no tide

38.

What sort of tide would be seen at an ocean at a location perpendicular to the moon in this diagram?

a)

high tide

b)

low tide

c)

median tide

d)

no tide

39.

What special tide is caused when the Moon is in either of these positions relative to the Sun?

a)

low

b)

high

c)

spring

d)

neap

40.

What special kind of tide is produced when the Moon is in either of the positions shown relative to the Sun?

a)

high

b)

low

c)

neap

d)

spring

41.

What element is the primary constituent of the Jovian planets?

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon

c)

oxygen

d)

silicon

42.

An exoplanet is discovered around a distant star that has a mass 1.5 that of Earth's, a composition revealed by spectral analysis to include high oxygen, silicon and iron content, and has no moons. What would be the best descriptions of this planet? (PICK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER)

a)

Jovian

b)

gas giant

c)

terrestrial

d)

rocky

43.

Identify the terrestrial planets in this following list (PICK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER):

a)

Neptune

b)

Ceres

c)

Venus

d)

Mars

e)

Saturn

44.

Of the planets that have magnetic fields, which category tends to have more powerful/larger magnetic fields?

a)

Jovian

b)

terrestrial

c)

dwarf

d)

minor

45.

Select the correct order of planets based on lowest to highest number of moons:

a)

Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter

b)

Jupiter, Mars, Earth, Venus

c)

Earth, Mars, Venus, Jupiter

d)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Jupiter

46.

Which of the following are disadvantages of refracting telescopes when compared to reflecting telescopes? (PICK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER)

a)

The primary lenses of refracting telescopes have an upper size limit because they can become too heavy to be practical

b)

Refracting telescopes exhibit chromatic aberration where some of the refracted light is separated into component colors.

c)

A refracting lens has two optical surfaces to maintain instead of the single surface of a reflecting mirror

d)

Refracting telescopes can only be used during the day due to the lack of scattered light for imaging at nighttime.

47.

What effect of light waves, shown here for three different telescopes with decreasing resolving power from top to bottom, causes two very close points of light to because difficult to tell apart?

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

c)

diffraction

d)

absorption

48.

The Hubble Space Telescope generally produces much better images than any ground based telescope. Why is this?

a)

It is closer to the planets, stars, etc., that it is trying to image

b)

There are no atmospheric particles to scatter light that it would use to form images

c)

It has a much larger mirror than any ground-based telescope

49.

Which of the following would be the best location to build a new ground-based telescope observatory?

a)

Right here in Grayson, Georgia

b)

The arid mountaintops of Chile

c)

The snowy mountaintops of the Nepal

d)

The Hawaiian islands at sea level

50.

What two factors primarily affect the diffraction of light waves entering a telescope? (PICK MORE THAN ONE ANSWER)

a)

The wavelength of the light

b)

the diameter of the telescope's aperture (opening)

c)

the type of telescope (refracting or reflecting)

d)

whether it is a ground-based or space-based telescope

51.

Factors such as wind, temperature and mechanical stress can affect the image produced by the mirror of a reflecting telescope. When a segmented mirror is adjusted to correct for these effects, ___________ is being used.

a)

adaptive optics

b)

active optics

c)

responsive optics

d)

reflective optics

52.

The use of a guiding laser to inform the adjustment of a segmented mirror in response to atmospheric changes is the use of:

a)

active optics

b)

adaptive optics

c)

reflective optics

d)

responsive optics

53.

Of the following objects, ______ tend to have the most elliptical orbits.

a)

meteoroids

b)

comets

c)

asteroids

d)

gas giants

54.

Which of the following would likely have the greatest amount of ice content?

a)

meteoroids

b)

asteroids

c)

comets

d)

centaurs

55.

Meteoroids can vary by the amount of _____ and _____ comprising them. (PICK TWO ANSWERS)

a)

metal (iron)

b)

rock

c)

bone

d)

carbon

56.

Asteroids can vary by the amount of_______, _____ and _____ comprising them. (PICK THREE ANSWERS)

a)

metal (iron)

b)

rock

c)

bone

d)

carbon

57.

The image shows a:

a)

comet

b)

asteroid

c)

meteoroid

d)

shooting star

58.

The process of atomic electrons absorbing specific amounts of energy from light and moving to a "higher" energy level is:

a)

excitation

b)

emission

c)

ionization

d)

absorption

59.

An electron that has released the specific amount of photon energy to return to a lower energy level within an atom has reached its:

a)

excited state

b)

ground state

c)

stability level

d)

nucleus

60.

This is the emission spectrum for:

a)

helium

b)

sodium

c)

neon

d)

hydrogen

61.

This simple device, which uses a prism to separate light into its component color wavelengths, is a:

a)

telescope

b)

spectroscope

c)

laser

d)

parallaxometer

62.

Each element has electrons that can release light of a few specific wavelengths under certain conditions. When separated, these wavelengths form a(n):

a)

emission spectrum

b)

absorption spectrum

c)

Kirchoff spectrum

d)

continuous spectrum

63.

Rank the terrestrial planets based on most to least massive:

a)

Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury

b)

Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

d)

Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

64.

Rank the terrestrial planets based on longest to shortest orbital period:

a)

Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury

b)

Mercury, Mars, Venus, Earth

c)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

d)

Mars, Earth, Venus, Mercury

65.

Earth is able to sustain life with liquid water, unlike the other terrestrial planets. This ability is due to its:

a)

mass

b)

orbital distance

c)

radius

d)

rotational period

66.

Which of these can cause the most problems for humans on Earth?

a)

solar flare

b)

coronal mass ejection

c)

solar prominence

d)

solar wind

67.

These structures take on a looped shape as they are affected by local changes in the Sun's magnetic field:

a)

solar flares

b)

solar wind

c)

coronal mass ejections

d)

solar prominences

68.

The continuous flow of charged particles emitted by the Sun is the:

a)

solar flares

b)

solar wind

c)

coronal mass ejections

d)

solar prominences

69.

This property of Earth protects it from excess solar particles:

a)

rapid rotation

b)

gravitational field

c)

magnetic field

d)

orbital period

70.

The Earth has a substantial amount of metal in its core whereas the Moon is presumed to have a nearly completely rocky interior. This is evidence that possibly supports the ___________ model of the Moon's origin.

a)

capture

b)

fission

c)

co-accretion

d)

giant impact

71.

The model of the Moon's origin that most astronomers support is the _____ model.

a)

giant impact

b)

co-accretion

c)

fission

d)

capture

72.

The __________ model suggests that the Moon was a foreign body drawn into the Earth's orbit

a)

giant impact

b)

co-accretion

c)

fission

d)

capture

73.

According to this diagram, which of the following are viable EM frequency ranges for detection by ground-based telescopes? (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

gamma

b)

visible light

c)

infrared

d)

x-ray

e)

radio

74.

Which of the types of electromagnetic waves is mostly absorbed in the atmosphere by ozone gas?

a)

gamma

b)

microwave

c)

infrared

d)

ultraviolet

e)

radio

75.

Comparing a star's spectral class to its apparent magnitude in order to determine the distance to it is known as:

a)

stellar parallax

b)

spectroscopic parallax

c)

laser ranging

d)

radar

76.

Spectroscopic parallax is most helpful for stars between _________ parsecs and 25 megaparsecs from Earth.

a)

50

b)

200

c)

10,000

d)

180,000

77.

One primary way in which spectroscopic parallax and stellar parallax differ is that _____________________ does not require the observer to use two different locations to make an observation.

a)

stellar parallax

b)

spectroscopic parallax

c)

neither

d)

both

78.

Kepler claimed that the planets did not move in perfect circles about the Sun. He recorded this as which of his laws?

a)

1st Law of Planetary Motion

b)

2nd Law of Planetary Motion

c)

3rd Law of Planetary Motion

d)

Universal Law of Graviation

79.

How did Kepler explain this claim that the Earth can travel the longer distance from (C to D) in the same amount of time as the shorter distance (A to B)?

a)

planets gain higher velocities as they move closer to the Sun and experience a stronger gravitational field

b)

Being closer to Jupiter at section A-B will slow the Earth down

c)

planets gain higher velocities as they move closer to the Sun and experience a weaker gravitational field

d)

This is an effect of our perception of time as we move through space around the Sun. When we are closer time seems to flow more quickly

80.

Which law is being described in this image?

a)

Newton's 2nd

b)

Kepler's 3rd

c)

Kepler's 2nd

d)

Newton's 3rd

81.

Kepler's 3rd Law of Planetary Motion states:

a)

there is no relationship between orbital distance (a) and orbital period (p)

b)

there is an inverse relationship between orbital distance (a) and orbital period (p)

c)

there is an inverse relationship between the cube of orbital distance (a3) and the square of orbital period (p2)

d)

there is a direct relationship between the cube of orbital distance (a3) and the square of orbital period (p2)

82.

Knowing the average distance of Saturn from the Sun would allow you to calculate its _____ using Kepler's 3rd Law.

a)

time required to travel around the Sun

b)

mass

c)

temperature

d)

density

83.

The notion that the Apollo lunar landings were a hoax is undermined by: (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

the sustained testimony of the 400,000+ people involved in the program as to its veracity

b)

the ability of groups independent from NASA to conduct laser ranging tests on mirrors placed on the lunar surface by Apollo astronauts

c)

the photographic evidence gathered by Soviet cosmonauts who walked on the lunar surface

d)

the independent verification by Soviet space program employees who tracked the Apollo missions themselves

84.

What are some dangers of sending space probes far distances, such as to the outer planets? (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

the chances of colliding with even small dangerous objects increases

b)

the gravity of the Jovian planets is too strong and can pull in probes even from great distances

c)

the availability of solar power reduces as you travel farther from the Sun

d)

the temperatures are too cold for machines to operate

85.

Sending a probe directly into the atmosphere of a Jovian planet would likely result in:

a)

a successful, long-term mission

b)

destruction via high air pressure within seconds

c)

destruction by the planet's powerful magnetic field

d)

becoming tidally locked due to the incredible gravitational forces

86.

This diagram show the _______________ of various planets

a)

velocities of orbiting objects

b)

escape velocities

c)

mass

d)

maximum distance of an orbiting object

87.

Entering orbit around Earth is possible with:

a)

airplanes

b)

balloons

c)

rockets

d)

helicopters

88.

Transporting humans to the moon required _____________ rockets compared to those needed to get humans into suborbital or orbital flights

a)

more powerful

b)

equally powerful

c)

less powerful

89.

Which stellar event would most likely result in NO remnant/leftover object?

a)

nova

b)

Type Ia supernova

c)

Type II supernova

d)

hypernova

90.

Pulsars can be detected by their lighthouse-like effect due to a misalignment between their: (PICK TWO ANSWERS)

a)

rotational axis

b)

magnetic poles

c)

orbital axis

d)

barycenter

91.

A Type II supernova can produce the following: (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

a black hole

b)

a neutron star

c)

a white dwarf

d)

a planetary nebula

e)

a supernova remnant nebula

92.

Two stars explode. Star A produces a neutron star and Star B produces a black hole. What is a likely comparison between Star A and Star B?

a)

they were equal in mass

b)

Star A had greater mass than Star B

c)

Star B had greater mass than Star A

d)

there is no reliable way to compare their mass based on their remnant products

93.

A dying red giant can produce the following: (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

a black hole

b)

a neutron star

c)

a white dwarf

d)

a planetary nebula

e)

a supernova remnant nebula

94.

This is an example of a:

a)

planetary nebula

b)

black hole

c)

accretion disk

d)

supernova remnant

95.

Select the correct list based on increasing density:

a)

normal star, white dwarf, neutron star, black hole

b)

black hole, neutron star, white dwarf, normal star

c)

white dwarf, neutron star, normal star, black hole

d)

normal star, neutron star, white dwarf, black hole

96.

Which would be more likely to have a white dwarf at the center?

a)

planetary nebula

b)

supernova remnant

c)

dark nebula

d)

black hole

97.

Which would be more likely to have a neutron star at the center?

a)

planetary nebula

b)

supernova remnant

c)

dark nebula

d)

black hole

98.

Which REQUIRE two stars to occur? (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

nova

b)

Type Ia supernova

c)

Type II supernova

d)

hypernova

99.

Which REQUIRE a white dwarf to occur? (PICK MORE THAN ONE)

a)

nova

b)

Type Ia supernova

c)

Type II supernova

d)

hypernova

100.

Collisions between neutron stars and hypernovae (explosions of tremendously massive stars) could produce great amounts of:

a)

gamma rays

b)

radio waves

c)

microwaves

d)

infrared waves