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2W0X1 CDC’s Module 3 Review Exam

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who is responsible for appointing qualified individuals to become certified munitions inspectors?

a)

Executive officer

b)

Unit commander

c)

Element chief

d)

Munitions supervision

2.

What is the minimum skill level requirement to be a certified munitions inspector?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

There is no skill level requirement

3.

Who is responsible for determining and assigning the appropriate condition codes to munitions assets?

a)

Munitions supervision

b)

Munitions inspectors

c)

Munitions accountability personnel

d)

The munitions accountable systems officer (MASO)

4.

Which type of lot number is assigned to a combination of 5.56 millimeter (mm) ball and tracer packed together for field use?

a)

Functional

b)

Regrouped

c)

Assembled

d)

Pseudo

5.

A defect that is likely to result in hazardous or unsafe condition is classified as

a)

Minor.

b)

Major.

c)

Critical.

d)

Incidental.

6.

A munitions item or component with its explosives material completely removed is considered

a)

Inert.

b)

Empty.

c)

Obsolete.

d)

Nonexplosive.

7.

Which regulation do you follow for specific checkpoints for inspections?

a)

DAFMAN 21-201

b)

DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201

c)

Item’s technical order (TO)

d)

Local operating instruction (OI)

8.

Which external marking is a minimum requirement in accordance with the item TO, TO 11A-1-10, and the SPI?

a)

Security risk category code

b)

Controlled inventory item code

c)

Nomenclature

d)

Net explosive weight

9.

The step that is not part of the general inspection procedures is to verify

a)

Suspension or restrictions.

b)

Item(s) are suitably packed.

c)

Containers are properly marked.

d)

Items have at least 2 days of shelf life remaining.

10.

Which inspection provided a high degree of confidence that the munitions have not been adversely affected by the environment, storage, conditions, age, or use?

a)

Returned munitions inspection

b)

Pre-use inspection

c)

Periodic inspection

d)

Special inspection

11.

Which inspection ensures that an item is suitable for its intended use before it is signed over to a user?

a)

Periodic (PI)

b)

Shipping (SI)

c)

Receiving (RI)

d)

Pre-issue (PII)

12.

What must you do if more than one condition code applies to the item you are inspecting?

a)

Use the least restrictive

b)

Use the most restrictive

c)

Assign condition code “J”

d)

Call the equipment specialist for guidance

13.

Which response best describes condition code B?

a)

Serviceable without qualification

b)

Serviceable with qualification

c)

Serviceable but priority issue

d)

Unserviceable repairable

14.

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1574/1574-1 (yellow tag) is used to identify munitions in which condition?

a)

Repairable

b)

Serviceable

c)

Condemned

d)

Unserviceable

15.

Which unserviceable item tag is used on munitions that are not economical to repair?

a)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1574

b)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1575

c)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1577

d)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1578

16.

You must update historical records in which database before you can dispose of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 102?

a)

Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS)

b)

Tactical Missile Reporting System (TMRS)

c)

Ammunition Disposition Request (ADR)

d)

Theater Integrated Combat Munitions System (TICMS)

17.

Which Theater Integrated Combat Munitions System (TICMS) screen displays condition and status of stockpile and custody accounts?

a)

Total asset inquiry

b)

Lot management

c)

Custody account listing

d)

Transaction history report

18.

Who may authorize local disposal of unserviceable and non-repairable inert munitions valued at less than $500 per item?

a)

Stockpile management section chief

b)

Munitions supervision

c)

Senior munitions inspector

d)

Munitions accountable systems officer (MASO)

19.

Which Theater Integrated Combat Munitions System (TICMS) screen is used to inquire about periodic, storage monitoring, special and assembled munitions surveillance inspections?

a)

Total asset inquiry.

b)

Quarterly inspection history.

c)

Inspection history.

d)

Ammunition disposition report.

20.

Which report is used to identify a shipping related problem caused by the shipping activity?

a)

Lot History Report

b)

Supply Discrepancy Report

c)

Transportation Discrepancy Report

d)

Product Quality Deficiency Report

21.

Which of the following is an example of a packaging discrepancy?

a)

Item received in the wrong condition code

b)

Unacceptable substitutes shippe

c)

Container markings incorrect

d)

Missing documentation

22.

When using the transportation discrepancy report (TDR), you are identifying a problem against the

a)

Person who packaged the assets.

b)

Carrier who delivered the assets.

c)

Manufacturer who produced the assets.

d)

Person who certified the assets for transportation.

23.

Who submits a transportation discrepancy report (TDR)?

a)

Munitions supervision

b)

Senior munitions inspector

c)

Transportation management office

d)

Munitions accountable safety officer (MASO)

24.

Which form is used to report the product quality deficiencies?

a)

Standard Form (SF) 362

b)

Standard Form (SF) 363

c)

Standard Form (SF) 364

d)

Standard Form (SF) 368

25.

You are required to use Technical Order (TO) 11A-1-53 for which inspections of inert and empty munitions items?

a)

Pre-issue and returned munitions inspections

b)

Returned munitions inspection and periodic

c)

Pre-issue and shipping inspections

d)

Periodic and shipping inspections

26.

Which word is impressed and stenciled on items that have had their explosive material removed and not replaced?

a)

INERT

b)

EMPTY

c)

DUMMY

d)

PRACTICE

27.

Four holes, no smaller than 1/4 inch, are required to be drilled 90 degrees apart for munitions items

a)

Procured as inert or empty.

b)

Displayed on a wall plaque.

c)

On permanent display in a museum.

d)

Stock listed as explosive and have had their explosive filler removed.

28.

Which publication provides certifying guidance to inspectors of munitions residue and empty containers?

a)

Technical Order (TO) 11A-1-10

b)

Technical Order (TO) 11A-1-53

c)

Technical Order (TO) 11A-1-60

d)

Technical Order (TO) 11A-1-63

29.

The material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning or demilitarization is called

a)

Hazardous waste.

b)

Munitions residue.

c)

Nonexplosive material.

d)

Obsolete munitions waste.

30.

When destined for re-use, where do you place the certificate of clearance after you inspect empty munitions containers?

a)

Outside the container

b)

Inside the container

c)

Inside the desiccant port

d)

Next to the identification markings

31.

What must you do to the old munitions identification before you certify a container as empty?

a)

Nothing, the next person may need it

b)

Obliterate all marking on the container

c)

Obliterate the old munitions identifications markings

d)

Nothing, as long as you stencil “empty” on the container

32.

Which procedure should be performed first during an initial munitions inspection?

a)

Internal inspection of railcars, motor vehicles, or aircraft

b)

Identify the type of any corrosion spotted

c)

Open all damaged contsiners

d)

Visually inspect seals

33.

When documentation for an incoming shipment is missing or incomplete you just immediately notify the

a)

Until commander.

b)

Munitions supervision.

c)

Weapons safety office.

d)

Senior munitions inspector.

34.

Any vehicle found to be in a hazardous condition is considered

a)

Suspect.

b)

Restricted.

c)

Frustrated.

d)

Suspended.

35.

The governing directive for hazardous materials movement by military air is

a)

Air Force Joint Manual (AFJMAN) 24-306

b)

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-604

c)

The orange book

d)

Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)-49

36.

Which of the following regulates the transportation of explosives and other hazardous materials by water?

a)

United States (US) Navy

b)

United States (US) Coast Guard

c)

Homeland Security

d)

Environmental Protection Agency

37.

Stacking pallet used munitions inspection the cargo hold of a vessel is known as

a)

Containerized distribution.

b)

Break-bulk shipping.

c)

The stuff-it method.

d)

Open-stowage.

38.

What is the nose efficient, time-saving, and economical method of shipping munitions by ocean-going vessel?

a)

Containerized ammunition distribution system (CADS)

b)

Outsource to commercial shipper

c)

Stacking, blocking, and/or bracing

d)

Theater Integrated Combat Munitions System (TICMS)

39.

The United States Air Force (USAF) container of choice for transporting munitions by an ocean-going vessel is the

a)

40-foot military intermodal container (MILVAN).

b)

20-foot military intermodal container (MILVAN).

c)

40-foot international organization for standardization (ISO) container.

d)

20-foot international organization for standardization (ISO) container.

40.

Which United Nations (UN) specification is designated to keep hazardous materials inside the containers and away from people and the environment?

a)

Performance-oriented packaging

b)

Theater Integrated Combat Munitions System

c)

Container allocation system

d)

Packaging operations point

41.

The United Nations (UN) specification performance-oriented packaging (POP) “grandfather” clause applies to government-owned goods packaged before 1 January

a)

1988.

b)

1989.

c)

1990.

d)

1991.

42.

When you do not have an original container you can have one built using

a)

The special packaging instruction (SPI) drawing.

b)

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 24-604.

c)

Military Standard (MIL-STD) 129.

d)

The item’s technical order (TO).

43.

A common document used for shipping munitions from Army depots or contract facilities is

a)

Air Force (AF) Form 2005.

b)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1131.

c)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1149.

d)

Department of Defense (DD) Form 1150.

44.

Who issues the competent authority approval (CAA) and certification of equivalency (COE)?

a)

Munitions accountable safety officer (MASO)

b)

Ogden-Air Logistics Center (OO-ALC)

c)

Major Command (MAJCOM)

d)

Item Manager

45.

What are the two greatest dangers to munitions items?

a)

Fire and sunlight

b)

Water and sunlight

c)

Fire and excessive heat

d)

Water and excessive heat

46.

A munitions storage magazine is

a)

A magazine published for munitions storage troops to read.

b)

A building or structure primarily used for storing explosives.

c)

Any operational building used to temporarily store explosives.

d)

Used for holding rounds/cartridges for certain weapon systems.

47.

Earth-covered magazines have a firebreak around the ventilators; how many feet is the firebreak?

a)

20

b)

15

c)

10

d)

5

48.

Which munitions storage structure is used to store small quantities of explosives and is ideal for providing courtesy storage for custody accounts?

a)

Multicube magazine

b)

Corbetta magazine

c)

Undefined igloo

d)

7-Bar igloo

49.

Which type of facility is normal only used to store class/division 1.3 and 1.4 munitions?

a)

Clay-tile storage warehouse

b)

Modular-constructed igloo

c)

Corbetta magazine

d)

7-Bar igloo

50.

What is the most secure way of installing a hasp on the door of a munitions storage facility?

a)

Bolts

b)

Rivets

c)

Screws

d)

Welding

51.

When affixing the hasp to the facility, what direction should the keyhole face to allow for proper drainage?

a)

Toward the fire extinguisher.

b)

Toward the roof.

c)

Toward the floor.

d)

Toward the control tower.

52.

To keep locks operating properly, how often should you open and close them?

a)

Monthly.

b)

Annually.

c)

Semi-annually.

d)

Never.

53.

The minimum distance between potential explosion sites to prevent one from simultaneously detonating the other is called the

a)

Inhabited building distance.

b)

Intermagazine distance.

c)

Intraline distance.

d)

Quantity distance.

54.

The distance applied to any two explosives operating locations is called

a)

Public traffic route (PTR).

b)

Inhabited building.

c)

Intermagazine.

d)

Intraline.

55.

The public traffic route distance for mass-detonating explosives is based on which percentage of the inhabited building distance?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

75

d)

90

56.

Properly constructed or natural barricades provide protection against

a)

Hazards.

b)

Weather.

c)

Fragments.

d)

Explosions.

57.

Which type of barricade uses a select cohesive earth fill, free from unhealthy organic matter, trash, debris, and frozen material?

a)

Natural

b)

Artifical

c)

Sing type

d)

Earth filled

58.

Which type of barricade is used for munitions on flightlines associated with aircraft parking/loading operations?

a)

Natural

b)

Sling type

c)

Earth filled, steel bin

d)

Water filled, plastic bin

59.

When all the munitions in a single storage area are covered by one symbol, the fire symbol is posted

a)

At the entry control point.

b)

At the rear of the structure.

c)

On top of the facility.

d)

Inside each facility.

60.

Posting or changing the fire symbol is the responsibility of the

a)

Munitions supervision

b)

Senior munitions inspector.

c)

Person-in-charge of the operation.

d)

Munitions accountable systems officer (MASO).

61.

Location designators for munitions consist of how many digits?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

11

d)

21

62.

The “A” in location designator 34A003C001E represents the

a)

Last two digits of the building number.

b)

Designated bay within a warehouse.

c)

Self level.

d)

Row.

63.

The “003” in location designator 34A003C001E, represents the

a)

Last two digits of the building number.

b)

Bay within a warehouse.

c)

Shelf level.

d)

Row.

64.

When direct input methods are not Used, what Air Force (AF) form is used to document munitions movements from one location to another?

a)

68

b)

102

c)

2005

d)

4331

65.

Which statement is considered a general munitions warehousing principle?

a)

Never use dunnage in an igloo

b)

Never exceed the stack limit of a specific munitions item

c)

Store munitions and containers flush to the wall of a magazine

d)

Lot numbers can be mixed in the stack if like munitions items

66.

How many lite boxes are allowed per stock/lot number and condition code in one base stock location?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

67.

The kite box should be stored on the

a)

Top and to the back of the stack.

b)

Top and to the front of the stack.

c)

Bottom and to the back of the stack.

d)

Bottom and to the front of the stack.

68.

Which of these regulatory guidance documents governs explosive safety standards?

a)

Department of Air Force Instruction (DAFI) 21-201

b)

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 21-201

c)

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 23-122

d)

DESR 6055.09_AFMAN 91-201

69.

Who approves the written agreement authorizing storage of custody assets?

a)

The custody account custodian and the organizational commander

b)

The munitions supervision and the custody account custodian

c)

The munitions supervision and the organizational commander

d)

The munitions accountable systems officer and the organizational commander

70.

How often are courtesy storage agreements reviewed?

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Semi-annually

d)

Annually

71.

The storage method designed and tested to increase the explosive storage capacity of limited net explosive weight (NEW) igloos, without increasing quantity distance separation requirements is

a)

Stuff-it.

b)

Buffered storage.

c)

Survive to operate.

d)

Complete round storage.