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Final review Ch 5

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Production decisions impact all other divisions within the firm

b)

Mass production and capital intensity output require a large amount of investment

c)

Making customized products enables the marketing team to sell these at a higher price

d)

Quaternary sector firms are not involved in the production process

2.

When a firm relies on workers to produce its output, rather than machinery, it can be described as a ______________ firm.

a)

Labour-intensive

b)

Capital-intensive

c)

Technology-driven

d)

Automated

3.

A firm which has an entirely automated production system manufacturing pens is likely to be a _____________ firm.

a)

Capital-intensive

b)

Labor-intensive

c)

Resource-intensive

d)

Energy-intensive

4.

Which of the following is not a measure included in the “triple bottom line” measure of sustainability?

a)

Social sustainability

b)

Legal sustainability

c)

Environmental sustainability

d)

Economic sustainability

5.

Removing gender inequalities in recruitment (hiring) practices is an example of which of the following?

a)

Legal sustainability

b)

Social sustainability

c)

Ecological sustainability

d)

Economic sustainability

6.

What is over-production a threat to?

a)

The value added process

b)

Social sustainability

c)

Economic sustainability

d)

Secondary sector output

7.

What is the operations management division of an organization in charge of?

a)

Handling staffing matters such as recruitment, training, performance appraisals and dismissals

b)

Identifying customer requirements and promoting a firm’s goods and/or services

c)

Managing financial resources and budgeting

d)

Overseeing legal compliance and regulatory issues

8.

Which of the following is not an example of a method to achieve ecological sustainability?

a)

Preservation

b)

Recycling

c)

Adopting green technologies

d)

Eradicating discrimination

9.

For a business to earn a profit on its sales, its production process must ___________.

a)

Add value

b)

Be capital-intensive

c)

Be labour-intensive

d)

Adopt lean production

10.

Which method of production is most suitable to producing movies (films)?

a)

Mass production

b)

Batch production

c)

Job production

d)

Cellular production

11.

Which of the following is not an advantage of job production?

a)

High quality output is produced

b)

Production flexibility is maximised

c)

Workers are likely to be more motivated

d)

Standardised output is produced

12.

Which of the following is not applicable to job production?

a)

A long working capital cycle may be faced

b)

It is very capital intensive

c)

It is difficult to enjoy economies of scale

d)

Production is time consuming

13.

Which form of production is most likely to be used to produce bread in a bakery?

a)

Job production

b)

Batch production

c)

Flow production

d)

Mass production

14.

Which of the following is not an advantage of batch production?

a)

Lower average unit costs of production compared to job production

b)

Customers receive greater choice than with job production

c)

A high price can be charged due to the product’s uniqueness

d)

Risks are spread due to the ability to produce a variety of products

15.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding batch production?

a)

There is no flexibility

b)

Downtime occurs between batches

c)

Inventory storage costs rise

d)

Workers may feel demotivated due to the monotony of work

16.

The main difference between mass and flow production is that the latter

a)

Involves a larger scale of production

b)

Involves a smaller scale of production

c)

Produces standardised goods

d)

Relies on using more workers

17.

Which of the following firms is most likely to use flow production?

a)

A local bakery

b)

A local school

c)

A furniture manufacturer

d)

A national newspaper printing press

18.

Which of the following is most likely to use mass production?

a)

Bottled water producers

b)

Fashion (clothing) retailers

c)

Holiday agents

d)

Bespoke tailors

19.

Which of the following is not an advantage of mass and flow production?

a)

Technical economies of scale are achieved

b)

Labour costs are lowered

c)

Output is highly standardised

d)

Workers are likely to be more motivated due to specialization

20.

Which of the following is not a valid criticism of mass and flow production?

a)

Production is inflexible

b)

Set-up and operational costs are relatively high

c)

The firm is likely to experience limited economies of scale

d)

Relatively low profit margins can be received

21.

When independent teams have the responsibility of effectively carrying out a particular part of the production process, what is this called?

a)

Mass production

b)

Cellular manufacturing

c)

Job production

22.

Which of the following is not an advantage of cellular manufacturing?

a)

Workers have greater autonomy

b)

Workers are held accountable and responsible for quality assurance

c)

Training costs are minimized

d)

Productivity rises due to specialization

23.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of cellular production?

a)

Economies of scale are not achieved

b)

Output is lower than in traditional flow or mass production

c)

Internal conflict within teams may occur

d)

Set-up, training and operational costs are relatively high

24.

A cookie shop is likely to use _______ production, whereas an oil refinery is likely to use _______.

a)

Batch, flow

b)

Flow, batch

c)

Flow, job

d)

Batch, job

e)

Job, flow

25.

Which of the following statements refers to lean production?

a)

Streamlining processes to reduce waste and increase efficiency

b)

Continuously finding ways to improve the production process

c)

Using a just-in-time inventory management system to minimize buffer stock requirements

d)

A highly automated production system producing a very large scale of output

26.

Which of the following is not a source of waste (“muda”)?

a)

Chemical waste

b)

Overproduction

c)

Excess worker movement

d)

Waiting time

27.

What is the term used to describe the concept of achieving small yet continuous improvements to increase productivity and efficiency?

a)

Empowerment

b)

Kaizen

c)

Kanban

d)

Andon

28.

What is the name of the stock control system which aims to minimise buffer stock requirements by ensuring raw materials are received just before they are used in production?

a)

Lean production

b)

Kaizen

c)

Just-in-time

d)

Just-in-case

29.

Which of the following is incorrect about a JIT inventory management system?

a)

Raw materials are delivered just before they are required for production

b)

Finished goods are immediately dispatched to customers

c)

It reduces inventory holding costs

d)

It requires a reliable supply chain

30.

With respect to Kanban, which of the following is not true?

a)

It is a method of lean production

b)

It involves audio-visual control systems

c)

It uses a card-based system to ensure efficient stock management

d)

It manages workflow processes

31.

What is the name of the method of lean production that utilises audio-visual control systems to indicate the status of particular aspects of the production process?

a)

Andon

b)

Kanban

c)

Kaizen

d)

Benchmarking

32.

__________ refers to a sustainable, waste-free production model in which all material inputs can be recycled or reused, or are consumable or compostable.

a)

Cradle-to-cradle manufacturing

b)

Linear economy

c)

Traditional manufacturing

d)

Disposable production

33.

What is the traditional approach to quality management called, in which supervisors inspect a sample of the output?

a)

Quality assurance

b)

Quality control

c)

Quality standards

d)

Total quality management

34.

Which of the following features does not determine a product’s quality?

a)

After-sales services

b)

Reliability

c)

Durability

d)

Price

35.

Quality control is __________ whereas quality assurance is __________.

a)

Quality standard-oriented, efficiency-oriented

b)

Process-oriented, product-oriented

c)

Product-oriented, process-oriented

d)

Efficiency-oriented, customer satisfaction-oriented

36.

QC is __________ whereas QA is __________.

a)

Reactive, proactive

b)

Proactive, reactive

c)

Preventative, corrective

d)

Reactive, reactive

e)

Expensive, Cheap

37.

Which of the following is untrue regarding quality assurance?

a)

It is process-oriented

b)

It focuses on preventing defects

c)

It is reactive

d)

It aims for continuous improvement

38.

What is the term for small groups comprised of employees who come together to assess quality and make recommendations to improve the quality of output?

a)

Kaizen groups

b)

Focus groups

c)

Quality control

d)

Quality circles

39.

Which of the following is not an advantage of quality circles?

a)

They promote team working and team cohesiveness

b)

They are cost-effective

c)

They lead to quality improvements

d)

They boost employee morale

40.

When a firm compares its products, processes, and performance to that of its competitors or its own historical performance, what is this called?

a)

Benchmarking

b)

Quality assurance

c)

Lean production

d)

Quality management

41.

Which of the following is not a benefit of total quality management (TQM)?

a)

Production costs are reduced

b)

Corporate image is improved

c)

Employee morale is improved

d)

It is reactive rather than proactive

42.

Which of the following is not a valid criticism of implementing total quality management (TQM)?

a)

It is expensive to set up and maintain

b)

There is a time lag before the benefits of TQM are experienced

c)

Reworking costs rise

d)

It requires total commitment from every employee

43.

What is a region with high unemployment being provided financial assistance by the government called?

a)

Developing area

b)

Enterprise zone

c)

Less developed region

d)

Structurally-deficit zone

44.

What is a firm that is indifferent to location, i.e. it receives no cost advantages by locating in a particular zone, called?

a)

Brick and mortar enterprise

b)

Flexible organization

c)

Footloose organization

d)

Location-independent firm

45.

What is the reluctance to relocate referred to as?

a)

Clustering

b)

Geographical immobility

c)

Industrial inertia

d)

Relocation inconvenience

46.

Bottled water is an example of a _____________ product.

a)

Luxury

b)

Convenience

c)

Specialty

d)

Unsought

47.

It makes sense for __________ industries to locate close to their customers, and for __________ industries to locate close to their raw material sources.

a)

Bulk-increasing, bulk-reducing

b)

Bulk-reducing, bulk-increasing

c)

Bulk-reducing, weight-losing

d)

Weight-gaining, bulk-increasing

48.

What is the act of transferring internal business activities to external subcontractors to reduce costs referred to as?

a)

Insourcing

b)

Offshoring

c)

Outsourcing

d)

Relocating

49.

Which of the following is not an advantage of subcontracting?

a)

It allows the firm to focus on its core activities

b)

It cuts costs and improves profitability

c)

Staff morale increases

d)

The subcontractor provides specialised services

50.

Which of the following is not a valid criticism of subcontracting?

a)

Cultural issues and barriers may be faced

b)

High costs of monitoring subcontractor’s performance may be incurred

c)

Potential conflict may arise with the subcontractor

51.

When a firm uses external subcontractors in a foreign nation to produce its products, what is this called?

a)

Offshore outsourcing

b)

Offshoring

c)

Outsourced offshoring

d)

Outsourcing

52.

What is it called when a firm uses its own staff and resources to conduct activities that would have otherwise been outsourced?

a)

Empowerment

b)

Insourcing

c)

Offshoring

d)

Reshoring

53.

Which of the following is not an advantage of offshoring?

a)

It limits the extent of cultural issues

b)

Labour laws may be less stringent overseas

c)

Lower operational costs may be achieved

d)

The firm can concentrate on its core activities

54.

Which of the following is not an advantage of insourcing?

a)

It allows the firm to concentrate on its core activities

b)

It creates jobs domestically

c)

It develops employees’ skills

d)

Using internal resources might be cheaper than using external subcontractors

55.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of insourcing?

a)

It may lead to higher costs

b)

It requires more management oversight

c)

It can limit access to external expertise

d)

It develops employees’ skills

56.

Assume you buy a new computer from Apple, and receive complementary technical support over the phone for a one-year period from a third-party, specialist IT-support organization situated in India. What is this an example of?

a)

Insourced subcontracting

b)

Offshore outsourcing

c)

Offshoring

d)

Outsourcing

57.

When a school hires a caterer to run its canteen, what is it an example of?

a)

Insourcing

b)

Offshore outsourcing

c)

Offshoring

d)

Outsourcing

58.

Which of the following is not a reason for supply chain management?

a)

To ensure efficient movement and storage of stocks

b)

To achieve lean production

c)

To procure the most cost-efficient methods of product transportation

d)

To boost an organization’s liquidity ratios

59.

What is the minimum level of stock held by a firm called?

a)

Buffer stock

b)

Safety stock

c)

Reserve stock

d)

Base stock

60.

A ______ stock control system does not have any buffer stock.

a)

Just in case

b)

Just in time

c)

Buffer stock

d)

Supply chain

61.

Which of the following is not an advantage of adopting a JIT stock control system?

a)

It reduces wastage

b)

Stock holding costs are eliminated

c)

Cash flow is improved

d)

Greater economies of scale are achieved

62.

Which of the following is not a drawback of adopting a JIT stock control system?

a)

It relies heavily on technology

b)

It eliminates the use of buffer stocks

c)

It is inflexible in catering for sudden increases in demand

d)

It relies heavily on efficient suppliers

63.

Which of the following is not an advantage of using a JIC stock control system?

a)

It is flexible enough to meet a sudden increase in demand

b)

Lower costs of storage compared to a JIT stock control system

c)

It allows production to continue, even if suppliers delay deliveries

d)

Bulk-buying economies of scale can be achieved

64.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a JIC stock control system?

a)

There is significant reliance on suppliers

b)

It allows for production flexibility

c)

Higher storage costs

d)

Risk of stock obsolescence

65.

Which of the following is not a consequence of stockpiling?

a)

Certain stock may perish or become obsolete

b)

Higher costs of storage

c)

Lost sales if customer orders cannot be fulfilled

d)

Poor liquidity and cash flow position

66.

Which of the following is not a consequence for a firm experiencing frequent stockouts?

a)

Lost sales

b)

Production coming to a halt

c)

Lower customer loyalty

d)

High storage costs are incurred

67.

What is the name used to describe the time lag that occurs between placing an order of stock and receiving the delivery?

a)

Just-in-time

b)

Lead time

c)

Flexitime

d)

Overtime

68.

What does the economic order quantity refer to?

a)

The quantity of stock that minimizes storage costs

b)

The level of stock required to be held as a buffer

c)

The minimum level of stock required in a JIC stock control system

d)

The ideal level of stock, balancing inventory needs and storage costs

69.

__________ have a quicker usage rate than __________.

a)

Perishable goods; non-perishable goods

b)

Non-perishable goods; perishable goods

c)

Electronics; perishable goods

d)

Furniture; non-perishable goods

70.

The shorter the lead time, the ________ the buffer stock level. The higher the stock holding costs, the ________ the optimal stock level.

a)

Higher, higher

b)

Higher, lower

c)

Lower, lower

d)

Lower, higher

71.

Capacity utilization is a measure of ___________.

a)

Efficiency

b)

Liquidity

c)

Return on capital employed

d)

Productivity

72.

Assume a lightbulb manufacturer can produce 2.5m lightbulbs per month. In January and February, it produced 1.75m and 1.95m lightbulbs respectively. It can be said that the manufacturer’s capacity utilization rose by ____.

a)

7%

b)

8%

c)

11%

d)

78%

73.

Assume a firm has fixed costs of $200,000 per month and a productive capacity of 150,000 units per month. Capacity utilization in February and March was 80% and 70% respectively. Calculate the change in average fixed costs during these two months.

a)

+$0.55

b)

+$0.23

c)

-$0.15

d)

-$0.37

74.

A firm is deciding whether to make or buy 3,000 new office desks. It can make these for a variable cost per unit of $45 per desk, and would allocate $45,000 in fixed costs to this order. Alternatively, the firm can buy the desks from a supplier at a price of $70 per desk, less 10% discount due to the bulk order. The firm’s cost to make is $________ while its cost to buy is $________.

a)

$135,000, $210,000

b)

$180,000, $189,000

c)

$180,000, $210,000

d)

$162,000, $189,000

75.

A firm receives a special order for 25,000 kettles. These kettles can be made inhouse with direct costs of $13 per unit, but machine upgrades of $57,500 would be required. Alternatively, the firm can purchase these kettles for $15 per unit from an external manufacturer. By purchasing the kettles instead of making them, the firm would save $________ in costs.

a)

$12,500

b)

$10,000

c)

$15,000

d)

$20,000

76.

R&D is beneficial in __________ industries, but not likely to be profitable in __________ industries.

a)

Sunrise, sunset

b)

Tech, traditional

c)

Innovative, declining

d)

Emerging, mature

77.

Which of the following is not an advantage of conducting R&D?

a)

The corporate image may improve

b)

The opportunity cost is usually quite low

c)

A first mover advantage might be gained

d)

Higher prices can be charged

78.

Which of the following is not true about conducting R&D?

a)

There may be a high rate of failure

b)

It is time consuming

c)

It shortens a product’s life cycle

d)

It is expensive

79.

__________ innovation refers to altering customer perceptions of a brand or product.

a)

Product

b)

Process

c)

Paradigm

d)

Position