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Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of map is this?

a)

Isoline

b)

Chloropleth

c)

Dot

d)

Cartogram

2.

What kind of map is shown in the picture?

a)

Choropleth

b)

Cartogram

c)

Political

d)

Physical

3.

Which projection is this?

a)

Peters

b)

Robinson

c)

Mercator

d)

Mollweide

4.

Match the following:

a)

Good for population density

1.

Dot

b)

Good for elevation

2.

Isoline

c)

Can be done with shading or symbols

3.

Choropleth

d)

Changes the shape/area of places to convey data

4.

Cartogram

5.

What type of map projection is shown here?

a)

Robinson Projection

b)

Mercator Projection

c)

Fuller Projection

d)

Mollweide Projection

6.

The diminishing in importance and eventual disappearance of a phenomenon with increasing distance from its origin is known as

a)

distance decay

b)

globalization

c)

regionalization

d)

nodalism

7.
The idea that one's environment is responsible for who people are and how they live
a)
Positivism
b)

Environmentalism

c)
Possibilism
d)
Environmental Determinism
8.
Measuring the distance people are willing to travel to shop at a store would be creating what type of region for that store?
a)
Formal
b)
Perceptual
c)
Functional
d)
Uniform
9.
Billy thinks that in the south, everyone eats grits, eats fried chicken and watches football.  He would be creating what type of region of the south with these ideas?
a)
Formal
b)
Functional
c)
Perceptual
d)
Uniform
10.
The visible imprint put on the environment by people is called?
a)
Cultural Landscape
b)
Place
c)
Location
d)
Human Environment Interaction
11.
The physical qualities of the original location for a city is referred to as the
a)
site
b)
situation
c)
relative location
d)
absolute location
12.

Applying the Five Themes, a geographer would know this San Antonio bus route map depicts a _____ region.

a)

formal/uniform

b)

functional/nodal

c)

perceptual/vernacular

13.

Match the following

a)

Hunter-Gatherer Societies

1.

Stage 1

b)

Guatemaula

2.

Stage 2

c)

Mexico

3.

Stage 3

d)

Canada

4.

Stage 4

e)

Japan

5.

Stage 5

14.

Which does not belong?

a)

Vaccines

b)

Decreasing Birth Rate

c)

Low Death Rate

d)

Stage 3

e)

Core

15.

Which does not belong?

a)

High Life Expectancy

b)

Stage 3

c)

Low Birth Rates

d)

Stationary Population

e)

Women are high percentage of college graduates

16.

Which does not belong?

a)

Low GDP

b)

Core

c)

Stage 2

d)

Rapidly Growing Population

e)

High Birth Rate

17.

Which does not belong?

a)

High GDP

b)

Core

c)

Stage 1

d)

Stationary Population

e)

Low Birth Rate

18.

Predict the future population growth of this country.

a)

Negative Growth (the population will shrink)

b)

Slow/No Growth (the population will stay about the same)

c)

Growth (the population will definitely grow)

d)

Fast Growth (the population will explode)

19.

Predict the future population growth of this country.

a)

Negative Growth (the population will shrink)

b)

Slow/No Growth (the population will stay about the same)

c)

Growth (the population will definitely grow)

d)

Fast Growth (the population will explode)

20.
The number of people under 15 and over 65 compared to people in the labor force is called
a)
Dependency Ratio
b)
Doubling time
c)
Demography
d)
Dependent Ratio
21.

Carrying capacity is defined as

a)

the number of people that can be supported with a given number of resources

b)

the number of resources a population can produce

c)

the amount of people in a given area

d)

the pattern of people laid out in a given area

22.

Which of the following population densities would be used to show a population's pressure on arable land?

a)

Agricultural

b)

Physiological

c)

Arithmetic

d)

Density

23.

Match the following

a)

Flees their home country and applies for protection in a foreign country

1.

Asylum Seeker

b)

Forcibly displaced, fleeing to escape the conditions, and afraid to return home.

2.

Refugee

c)

Not formally recognized by a government

3.

Stateless Person

d)

Forcibly displaced and moving to another region of the country

4.

Internally Displaced Person

e)

Chooses to move across borders to find work

5.

Guest worker

24.

Match the following

a)

Moving to a final destination in a series of smaller moves

1.

Step Migration

b)

Moving to country based on connections to people from your home country already located there

2.

Chain Migration

c)

Migrating across international borders

3.

Transnational Migration

d)

Guest workers moving home after the work season ends

4.

Return Migration

25.

Match the following

a)

Moving to attend college

1.

Periodic Movement

b)

Commuting between home and work

2.

Cyclic Movement

c)

Moving from Boston, MA to Atlanta

3.

Interregional Movement

d)

Moving from Atlanta to Athens

4.

Intraregional Movement

e)

Moving animal herds up to the mountains for the summer

5.

Transhumance

26.

Wallerstein's capitalist world economy argues that global economic activities are controlled by

a)

Countries of the periphery

b)

Core countries

c)

European counties

d)

Countries with the largest populations

27.

Match the following from Zelinsky's Migration Transition Model:

a)

Rural to rural

1.

Stage 1

b)

Rural to urban

2.

Stage 2

c)

Urban to urban

3.

Stage 3

d)

Urban to Suburban

4.

Stage 4

28.

Match the following characteristics of Rostow:

a)

Low technology, low growth

1.

Stage 1: Traditionally Society

b)

Transitional time: food surpluses and labor specialization develop

2.

Stage 2: Preconditions for Take-off

c)

Influence from other places drives growth; Expanding Industrialization

3.

Stage 3: Take-Off

d)

Rapidly growing and diversifying economy; Stage 3 DTM

4.

Stage 4: Drive to Maturity

e)

Massive economy with tertiary sector, exploits LDCs

5.

Stage 5: Age of Mass Consumption

29.

Who created the World System's Theory, where core countries exploit the semi-periphery and peripheral countries?

a)

Rostow

b)

Wallerstein

c)

Ravenstein

d)

Malthus

30.

Why is English the official language in so many countries worldwide?

a)

The Treaty of Versailles

b)

It is easier to learn than many other languages

c)

The diffusion of popular American music

d)

It was established through colonization

31.
A regional variation of a standard language is called a:
a)
accent
b)
dialect
c)
isogloss
d)
lingua franca
32.

What is the largest language family as determined by number of speakers?

a)

Afro-Asiatic

b)

Indo-European

c)

Sino-Tibetan

d)

Austronesian

33.
When something helps bond the people within a country, it is called a:
a)
Nation-State
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Centrifugal Force
d)
Stateless Nation
34.

Which of the following religions originated in India?

I. Hinduism

II. Buddhism

III. Jainism

IV. Sikhism

a)

I. and II.

b)

I., II., and IV.

c)

I., III., and IV.

d)

I., II., III., and IV.

35.

Which of the following religions originated in China?

I Buddhism

II Taoism

III Confucianism

IV Shintoism

a)

I only

b)

I, II, and III

c)

II and III

d)

IV only

e)

I, III, and IV

36.

Which of the following religions has the fewest adherents worldwide?

a)

Judaism

b)

Christianity

c)

Islam

d)

Hinduism

e)

Buddhism

37.
Siddharta Gautama is considered as the founder of what world religion?  
a)
Hinduism 
b)
Buddhism  
c)
Judaism 
d)
Sikhism
38.

A religion with a concentrated spatial distribution tied to a specific culture and location.

a)

Reformed Religion

b)

Ethnic Religion

c)

Evangelical Religion

d)

Universalizing Religion

39.
A religion that attempts to appeal to all people, not just those in a particular location. 
a)
Denomination
b)
Ethnic Religion
c)
Universalizing Religion
d)
Cosmogony
40.

Match the following

a)

the number of live births per 1000 people in a society in a year.

1.

Birth Rate

b)

the number of deaths per 1000 people in a society in a year.

2.

Death Rate

c)

annual rate of population growth without factoring net migration.

3.

Natural Increase Rate

d)

average number of babies a woman in a given population will have over her childbearing years

4.

Fertility Rate

41.
Which might best reflect average income of a person in a country?
a)
GDP per capita
b)
GNP per capita
c)
GNI per capita
d)
HDI per capita
42.

Which of these is the value of the output of goods ad services in a country, excluding money that leaves or enters?

a)

HDI

b)

GDP

c)

GNI

d)

PPP

43.

The region with the lowest HDI score is

a)

Southeast Asia

b)

South Asia

c)

Central America

d)

Sub-Saharan Africa

44.

The location of a place using the latitude-longitude grid is called:

a)

A. referenced location

b)

A. central location

c)

A. relative location

d)

A. absolute location

45.

A new fashion trend is spread by a social media influencer and gains very quick traction amongst their following audience. This would best be an example of

a)

Contagious Diffusion

b)

Relocation Diffusion

c)

Stimulus Diffusion

d)

Hierarchical Diffusion

e)

Expulsion Diffusion

46.

Match each example to the description that best matches how it shaped political geography.

a)

The establishment of United States and a new country

1.

Independence Movement

b)

Haiti & the Dominican Republic splitting the same island

2.

Colonialism & Imperialism

c)

Scottish movement to control more of their own affairs and establish a parliament for their people

3.

Nationalism & Self Determination

d)

The central government of Belgium changing to a federal system to grant more authority to subnational units

4.

Devolution

e)

The ethnic conflicts that caused Yugoslavia break up into several new independent states

5.

Balkanization

47.
dispute over rights to resources (e.g. oil, water) crossed by international boundaries
a)
definitional
b)
locational
c)
operational
d)
allocational
48.

The territorial divisions created by European powers delimiting the boundaries of their lands claims in Africa in the 19th century led to what type of borders on the continent today?

a)

superimposed

b)

antecedent

c)

demilitarized

d)

relic

49.

Match the supranational organizations below to the best for the main reason they formed

a)

Military alliance

1.

NATO

b)

Transnational & environmental issues

2.

Arctic Council

c)

Trade agreements and economies of scale

3.

EU

50.

Match the supranational organizations below to the best for the main reason they formed

a)

Military alliance

1.

Warsaw Pact

b)

Transnational & environmental issues

2.

Paris Agreement

c)

Trade agreements and economies of scale

3.

ASEAN

51.

Match the following examples to the factor of devolution they best represent

a)

Ethnic Cleansing

1.

Bosnians and Serbians in Yugoslavia

b)

Democratization

2.

Arab Spring

c)

Economic issues and social reforms

3.

Break up of the USSR

d)

Ethnic & cultural conflict and separation

4.

Nigeria

e)

Nationalism and secessionist movements

5.

Quebec

52.

Match the following examples to the factor of devolution they best represent

a)

Terrorism

1.

Northern Ireland

b)

Irredentism

2.

Crimea

c)

Uneven economic development

3.

Catalonia

d)

Ethnic & cultural separation

4.

Belgium

e)

Separation by physical geographic features

5.

The Basque Region

53.

Which of the following best describes an example of neocolonialism?

a)

A global movement for sustainable development and environmental conservation

b)

The delimiting and demarcating of territorial claims in Africa during the Berlin Conference

c)

Periphery countries that were former colonies remaining dependent on economic investment from core countries

d)

The historic era of European empire building in the Americas in the 16th and 17th centuries.

54.
A country with two or more ethnic groups living within in it is referred to as a ___.
a)
Nation State
b)
Balkan State
c)
National State
d)
Multinational State
55.

A _________________________ is a state whose territory corresponds to that occupied by one particular ethnicity which has been transformed into a nationality.

a)

nation-state

b)

state

c)

multinational state

d)

trinational state

56.
A group of people who share a common culture and identity as a cohesive group is a called a ___.
a)
Nation State
b)
Nation
c)
Country
d)
Sovereign State
57.

What is the process called when some political power is transferred from the central government to subnational levels?

a)

Federalism

b)

Centralization

c)

Devolution

d)

Nationalization

58.
Which of the following is the best example of Outsourcing? 
a)
An El Salvadorian immigrant illegally immigrates to the USA to find work
b)
An American Tech Company fires it's American Employees and hires people in Bangladesh to do the same job for 1/4 the cost 
c)
A European worker moves to the USA and gets a high paying job at a tech company. 
d)
An American company decides to change it's steel contracts from Japanese companies to Chinese companies 
59.
Why do most restaurants clump together in shopping malls and on busy street corners?
a)
Agglomeration
b)
Ease of Access
c)
More Capital
d)
Laws of Location 
60.
Why does Coca-Cola have bottling plants all over the world and not just one major plant? 
a)
Because Coca Cola is a Bluk Reducing Industry
b)
Because Coca Cola is a Bulk Gaining Industry 
c)
Because Coca Cola is a Footloose industry
d)
Because Coca Cola is a Basic Industry 
61.

which sector of the economy removes or harvests products directly from the earth in order to extract raw materials or food?

a)

secondary

b)

primary

c)

tertiary

d)

linear

62.

An auto manufacturer such as GM operates mostly in which industry sector?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Quinary

63.

Which sector has grown the fastest in developed countries?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

agriculture

64.

Which is most responsible for deindustrialization in highly developed countries?

a)

lack of investment money in developed countries

b)

low wages in developing countries

c)

labor shortages in developing countries

d)

the shortage of raw materials in developed countries

65.

Match the following

a)

Based on large areas of land with less emphasis on labor and inputs

1.

Extensive Farming

b)

Based on maximizing production with high inputs of chemicals, technology, etc.

2.

Intensive Farming

c)

Growing a single specific species of plant repeatedly, season after season

3.

Monocropping

d)

Cultivating one species of crop at a time but possibly rotating season to season

4.

Monoculture

66.

What is the Bid-Rent Theory?

a)

The theory that land value is influenced by the type of crops grown

b)

The theory that land value is not influenced by its relationship to the market

c)

The theory that the value of land is influenced by its relationship to the market

d)

The theory that land value is not influenced by transportation costs

67.

The Green Revolution primarily involved:

a)

The automation of farm techniques and the introduction of artificial intelligence

b)

The introduction of high-yield crops and chemical fertilizers

c)

Focusing on environmentally friendly agricultural practices

d)

Genetic modification to maximize profit in food production

68.

Match the following survey system

a)
1.

Long-lots

b)
2.

meets and bounds

c)
3.

township and range

69.

The process used by transnational corporations to gather resources, transform them into goods, combine with other inputs or services, and finally, distribute them to consumers:

a)

global division of labor

b)

extensive agricultre

c)

food chain

d)

comodity chain

70.

According to von Thunen's Model, which of the following agricultural activities would be found in the zone is closest to the market?

a)
Livestock
b)
Commercial Grain
c)
Dairy Farming
d)
Forestry
71.

Rubber, tea, coffee, cocoa, and palm oil are examples of crops raised in

a)

Mediterranean agricultural areas

b)

areas of shifting cultivation

c)

market gardens

d)

plantation agriculture

72.

Subsistence agriculture would be most commonly found in

a)

South Asia and Latin America

b)

Southeast Asia and sub-Saharan Africa

c)

Latin America and Southeast Asia

d)

East Asia and South Asia

73.

Match the following Urban Models

a)

1.

African City Model

b)

2.

Southeast Asian City Model

c)

3.

Latin American City Model

74.

Match the following Urban City Models

a)

1.

Burgess Concentric Zone Model

b)

2.

Hoyt Sector Model

c)

3.

Harris & Ullman Multiple Nuclei Model

d)

4.

The Galactic City Model

75.

Match the following

a)

1.

Weber's Least Cost Model

b)

2.

Wallerstein's World Systems Model

c)

3.

Rostow's Development Model

d)

4.

Human Development Index

76.

Match the following

a)

1.

Von Thunen's Model of Land Use

b)

2.

Rural Bid-Rent Model

c)

3.

Urban Bid-Rent Model

d)

4.

Burgess Urban Model

77.

Match the following

a)

1.

Christaller's Central Place Model

b)

2.

Rank Size Rule Model

c)

3.

Distance Decay

d)

4.

Primate City Model

e)

5.

Gravity Model

78.

Match the following

a)

Human behaviors and traits are the result of the surrounding physical geography

1.

Environmental Determinism

b)

Humans can adapt to environmental limits and even change or control them

2.

Possibilism

c)

Permanent or semi-permanent visible imprint of human activity on the environment

3.

Cultural Landscapes

d)

Seeking to balance the economic, environmental, and social impacts of development

4.

Sustainability

79.

Which of the following is an example of a smart growth policy for urban development?

a)

Increasing the capacity of roads/highways

b)

Decreasing the number or size of parks/greenspace

c)

Increasing mixed-use land policies to combat sprawl

d)

No longer permitting industrial zoning within city limits

80.

According to Christaller’s central place model, which of the following would most likely have the smallest range?

a)

A university

b)

An international airport

c)

A professional football stadium

d)

A symphony orchestra hall

e)

A grocery store

81.

Blockbusting and redlining have contributed to ___ in American cities.

a)

gated communities

b)

racial segregation

c)

public transportation

d)

exurbanization

82.

Many of the poor on the periphery of cities in less developed countries live in areas known as

a)

squatter settlements

b)

public housing

c)

the zone in transition

d)

suburbs

83.

A country’s main city that is so large and influential that it dominates the rest of the country

a)

Climate City

b)

Primate City

c)

Trimate City

d)

Primitive City

84.
The process of converting a neighborhood from a predominantly low-renter renter-occupied area to a predominantly middle-class owner-owned area
a)
Renewal
b)
Gentrification
c)
Conversion of Area
d)
Urban Renewal
85.
According to the classic bid-rent curve, what happens to the value of land as one gets closer to the Central Business District (CBD)?
a)
Land gets used more extensively.
b)
Land gets more expensive.
c)
Land gets used less intensively.
d)
Land gets more affordable along busy streets.
86.

A city characterized by more than 10 million people is known as a

a)

megacity

b)

metacity

c)

primate city

d)

global city

87.

A city characterized by more than 20 million people is known as a

a)

megacity

b)

metacity

c)

primate city

d)

global city

88.

Most of the world's mega- and metacities are located in

a)

Stage 4 countries

b)

MDCs

c)

the periphery and semi-periphery

d)

the core

89.
Measuring the distance people are willing to travel to shop at a store would be creating what type of region for that store?
a)
Formal
b)
Perceptual
c)
Functional
d)
Uniform
90.

Match the following

a)

1.

Remote Sensing

b)

2.

GIS

c)

3.

GPS

d)

4.

Cartography

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