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BIO 206 CH:15

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a core promoter element in DNA sequences?

a)

CCAAT box

b)

GC-rich box

c)

TATA box

d)

Enhancers

2.

What is the role of enhancers in DNA sequences?

a)

They initiate transcription.

b)

They increase the rate of transcription.

c)

They terminate transcription.

d)

They silence gene expression.

3.

Which of the following is a promoter-proximal element?

a)

Inr

b)

TATA box

c)

CAAT box

d)

Silencers

4.

What does deletion analysis indicate about promoter-proximal elements?

a)

They are unnecessary for transcription.

b)

They are necessary for efficient transcription.

c)

They inhibit transcription.

d)

They have no effect on transcription.

5.

Which of the following is a promoter-proximal element mentioned in the diagram?

a)

GC

b)

CCAAT

c)

TATA

d)

Operator

6.

What is the purpose of using reporter gene constructs in studying regulatory elements?

a)

To measure the effects of enhancer location and orientation

b)

To sequence DNA strands

c)

To replicate RNA molecules

d)

To inhibit gene expression

7.

Which of the following is an example of a reporter gene construct?

a)

lacZ

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA helicase

d)

ATP synthase

8.

How does the relative level of transcription change when an enhancer is located at -200 compared to -1000?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It is unpredictable

9.

Which RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing mRNA in eukaryotic cells?

a)

RNA Polymerase I

b)

RNA Polymerase II

c)

RNA Polymerase III

d)

RNA Polymerase IV

10.

What is the role of TFIID in the transcription process?

a)

It binds to the TATA box and recruits other factors.

b)

It acts as a helicase to form an open complex.

c)

It phosphorylates the CTD of RNA polymerase II.

d)

It binds to RNA polymerase III.

11.

Which factor is responsible for phosphorylating the CTD of RNA polymerase II?

a)

TFIID

b)

TFIIB

c)

TFIIH

d)

TFIIE

12.

What is the function of the mediator complex in transcription?

a)

It binds to the TATA box.

b)

It facilitates the interaction of regulatory transcription factors with RNA polymerase II.

c)

It acts as a helicase to form an open complex.

d)

It binds to RNA polymerase I.

13.

What is the role of General Transcription Factors (GTFs) in gene transcription?

a)

They enhance the transcription of specific genes.

b)

They are necessary for basal transcription of all genes by binding to the promoter.

c)

They silence the transcription of target genes.

d)

They repress the transcription of all genes.

14.

Which of the following elements do Regulatory Transcription Factors (RTFs) bind to control the rate of transcription?

a)

Promoter

b)

Enhancer

c)

Regulatory or response element (RE)

d)

Silencer

15.

What are the two types of Regulatory Elements (REs) mentioned?

a)

Promoters and enhancers

b)

Enhancers and silencers

c)

Activators and repressors

d)

Genes and promoters

16.

In which groove of the DNA double helix do RTF amino acid residues and DNA nucleotides interact?

a)

Minor groove

b)

Major groove

c)

Helical groove

d)

Base groove

17.

What is the function of the DNA-binding domain (DBD) in regulatory transcription factors?

a)

Binds to a regulatory element

b)

Binds to RNA Pol II

c)

Binds to GTF

d)

Binds to an effector molecule

18.

Which domain in regulatory transcription factors binds to RNA Pol II?

a)

DNA-binding domain (DBD)

b)

Activation domain (AD)

c)

Helix-turn-helix motif

d)

Zinc finger motif

19.

What is the role of an activator protein in gene activation?

a)

It inhibits RNA transcription.

b)

It binds to the core promoter to decrease transcription.

c)

It increases RNA transcription by binding to an enhancer.

d)

It acts as a repressor protein.

20.

Which component is directly involved in inhibiting RNA transcription in gene repression?

a)

Activator protein

b)

Repressor protein

c)

DNA-bending proteins

d)

Preinitiation complex

21.

Which of the following is a way that regulatory transcription factors (RTFs) can be modulated?

a)

Binding of a small effector molecule such as a hormone

b)

Degradation by proteases

c)

Methylation of DNA

d)

RNA splicing

22.

What is an example of protein-protein interaction in the modulation of RTFs?

a)

Formation of a homodimer

b)

DNA replication

c)

RNA transcription

d)

Lipid synthesis

23.

How can covalent modification affect regulatory transcription factors?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Glycosylation

c)

Acetylation

d)

Methylation

24.

What is one way the glucocorticoid receptor (GCR) is modulated?

a)

Phosphorylation

b)

Hormone binding

c)

Methylation

d)

Acetylation

25.

What effect does dimerization of the glucocorticoid receptor have?

a)

Decreases blood sugar

b)

Increases blood sugar

c)

Stabilizes blood sugar

d)

Has no effect on blood sugar

26.

What is CREB modulated by?

a)

Dimerization and phosphorylation

b)

Methylation and acetylation

c)

Glycosylation and ubiquitination

d)

Hydroxylation and carboxylation

27.

What does CRE stand for in the context of regulatory transcription factors?

a)

cAMP response element

b)

Calcium response element

c)

Cytosine response element

d)

Carbohydrate response element

28.

Which molecule activates adenylyl cyclase in the signaling pathway involving CREB?

a)

G protein

b)

Protein kinase A

c)

ATP

d)

Phosphate

29.

What is HIF-1 an activator modulated by?

a)

Phosphorylation and Dimerization

b)

Oxidation and Reduction

c)

Methylation and Acetylation

d)

Glycosylation and Ubiquitination

30.

What does HRE stand for in the context of HIF-1?

a)

Hypoxia Response Element

b)

Hyperoxia Response Element

c)

Hydrogen Response Element

d)

Hydroxylation Response Element

31.

What is von Hippel-Lindau disease associated with?

a)

It is associated with multiple types of tumors and cysts.

b)

It is a disease affecting only the liver.

c)

It is a condition that only affects the skin.

d)

It is a disease that causes only brain tumors.

32.

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of von Hippel-Lindau disease?

a)

Retinal angiomata

b)

Pulmonary hemangiomas

c)

Spinal cord hemangioblastoma

d)

Skin rash

33.

What type of genetic inheritance is von Hippel-Lindau disease associated with?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

Autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

X-linked recessive

34.

What is the primary characteristic of euchromatin?

a)

Tightly compacted, transcriptionally inactive

b)

Loosely compacted, transcriptionally active

c)

Tightly compacted, transcriptionally active

d)

Loosely compacted, transcriptionally inactive

35.

Which type of chromatin is transcriptionally inactive?

a)

Euchromatin

b)

Heterochromatin

c)

Both euchromatin and heterochromatin

d)

Neither euchromatin nor heterochromatin

36.

What are the two types of heterochromatin mentioned?

a)

Constitutive and facultative

b)

Active and inactive

c)

Loosely and tightly compacted

d)

Euchromatin and heterochromatin

37.

What are histones primarily composed of?

a)

Lipids and carbohydrates

b)

Lysine and arginine

c)

Glucose and fructose

d)

Nucleotides and sugars

38.

Where do histones bind to DNA?

a)

Major groove

b)

Minor groove

c)

Phosphate backbone

d)

Sugar-phosphate backbone

39.

What is a nucleosome composed of?

a)

RNA wrapped around a protein core

b)

DNA wrapped around a histone core

c)

Lipids surrounding a protein core

d)

Proteins wrapped around a lipid core

40.

Which histone type is lysine-rich according to the table?

a)

H2A

b)

H2B

c)

H1

d)

H4

41.

What is the primary function of chromatin remodeling in eukaryotic cells?

a)

To replicate DNA

b)

To make DNA more accessible to transcriptional machinery

c)

To degrade DNA

d)

To synthesize proteins

42.

Which of the following is NOT a function of ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complexes?

a)

Change nucleosome position

b)

Evict histones

c)

Add histone variants

d)

Replicate DNA

43.

What is an example of an ATP-dependent chromatin remodeling complex mentioned in the text?

a)

SWI/SNF

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Ribosome

44.

What is the pattern of histone modifications known as?

a)

Genetic code

b)

Histone code

c)

Chromatin code

d)

DNA code

45.

What is the result of different patterns of histone modification?

a)

Changes in DNA sequence

b)

Different levels of chromatin compaction

c)

Alteration of genetic code

d)

Mutation in genes

46.

What is the role of histone acetyltransferases (HATs) in chromatin remodeling?

a)

They add acetyl groups to lysine residues on histones.

b)

They remove acetyl groups from lysine residues on histones.

c)

They add methyl groups to lysine residues on histones.

d)

They remove methyl groups from lysine residues on histones.

47.

What is the effect of histone acetylation on chromatin structure?

a)

It condenses chromatin, making it less accessible for transcription.

b)

It relaxes chromatin, making it more accessible for transcription.

c)

It has no effect on chromatin structure.

d)

It causes chromatin to degrade.

48.

Which enzyme is responsible for removing acetyl groups from histones?

a)

Histone acetyltransferases (HATs)

b)

Histone deacetylases (HDACs)

c)

DNA polymerases

d)

RNA polymerases

49.

What is the role of histone methyltransferases (HMTs) in gene expression?

a)

They remove methyl groups from histones.

b)

They add methyl groups to histones.

c)

They phosphorylate histones.

d)

They acetylate histones.

50.

How do the number of methyl groups on lysine affect gene expression?

a)

They do not affect gene expression.

b)

They create different binding sites for proteins.

c)

They always activate gene expression.

d)

They always repress gene expression.

51.

What is the difference between kinases and phosphatases in terms of their function?

a)

Kinases remove phosphate groups, phosphatases add them.

b)

Kinases add phosphate groups, phosphatases remove them.

c)

Both add phosphate groups.

d)

Both remove phosphate groups.

52.

What is the role of DNA methyltransferases (DNMTs) in DNA methylation?

a)

They demethylate CpG islands.

b)

They methylate CpG islands.

c)

They transcribe genes.

d)

They replicate DNA.

53.

What happens to a gene when its promoter is unmethylated?

a)

The gene is silenced.

b)

The gene is inactive.

c)

The gene is active.

d)

The gene is deleted.

54.

How does DNA methylation typically affect gene expression?

a)

It increases gene expression.

b)

It decreases gene expression.

c)

It has no effect on gene expression.

d)

It duplicates gene expression.

55.

What is one way DNA methylation of CpG islands inhibits transcription?

a)

By enhancing the binding of activator proteins

b)

By preventing activators from binding

c)

By increasing the transcription rate

d)

By promoting RNA polymerase activity

56.

What role do methyl-CpG-binding proteins (MECPs) play in DNA methylation?

a)

They enhance transcription by opening chromatin

b)

They recruit HDACs, resulting in DNA compaction

c)

They prevent DNA replication

d)

They increase the binding of RNA polymerase

57.

What is the active copy of the H19 gene in normal imprinting?

a)

Maternal copy

b)

Paternal copy

c)

Both copies

d)

Neither copy

58.

Which syndrome is associated with lateralized overgrowth?

a)

Silver-Russell syndrome

b)

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Turner syndrome

59.

What does ICR stand for in the context of DNA methylation?

a)

Imprinting Control Region

b)

Inherited Chromosome Region

c)

Internal Coding Region

d)

Initial Control Response

60.

In the BWS imprinting pattern, which gene's maternal copy is active?

a)

IGF2

b)

H19

c)

Both IGF2 and H19

d)

Neither IGF2 nor H19

61.

In Angelman syndrome, which copy of the AS gene is active in the brain?

a)

Maternal

b)

Paternal

c)

Both maternal and paternal

d)

Neither maternal nor paternal

62.

In Prader-Willi syndrome, which copy of the PWS gene is active in the brain?

a)

Maternal

b)

Paternal

c)

Both maternal and paternal

d)

Neither maternal nor paternal

63.

What is the chromosomal region associated with PWS/AS expression?

a)

15q11.2q13

b)

16p11.2p13

c)

14q11.2q13

d)

17p11.2p13

64.

What is the first step in gene activation for eukaryotic genes controlled by RTFs?

a)

RNA polymerase binds to the core promoter.

b)

Activators recruit chromatin remodeling complexes.

c)

One or more RTFs bind to an enhancer.

d)

RNA polymerase proceeds to the elongation phase.

65.

Which enzyme is recruited by activators during gene activation?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Chromatin remodeling complexes

c)

Ligase

d)

Helicase

66.

What role does RNA polymerase play in gene activation?

a)

It binds to an enhancer.

b)

It recruits activators.

c)

It binds to the core promoter to form a preinitiation complex.

d)

It modifies histones.

67.

What happens after RNA polymerase binds to the core promoter?

a)

It recruits activators.

b)

It proceeds to the elongation phase and makes an RNA transcript.

c)

It binds to an enhancer.

d)

It modifies histones.

68.

What is a nucleosome-free region (NFR)?

a)

A region where nucleosomes are densely packed

b)

A region found at the beginning and end of many genes

c)

A region where transcription is permanently inactive

d)

A region that contains only RNA

69.

Where are nucleosomes most precisely positioned?

a)

In the middle of a gene

b)

Near the beginning and end of a gene

c)

Randomly distributed along the DNA

d)

Only at the transcriptional termination site

70.

What is the role of DNA-bending proteins in gene activation?

a)

They cause a bend in the chromatin to bring the enhancer and core promoter close together.

b)

They recruit RNA polymerase II to the transcription site.

c)

They modify histones through acetylation.

d)

They act as transcriptional termination sites.

71.

Which complex is recruited by an activator protein for chromatin remodeling?

a)

SWI/SNF

b)

TFIID

c)

RNA polymerase II

d)

Mediator

72.

What is the function of general transcription factors in the formation of the preinitiation complex?

a)

They bind to the core promoter and facilitate the formation of the preinitiation complex.

b)

They modify histones to allow transcription.

c)

They terminate transcription at the transcriptional termination site.

d)

They act as enhancers in nucleosome-free regions.

73.

What role does a subunit within TFIIH play in the formation of the open complex during gene activation?

a)

It separates the DNA strands to convert the closed complex to an open complex.

b)

It phosphorylates the CTD to stimulate activators.

c)

It binds to DSIF and NELF to pause transcription.

d)

It synthesizes a short RNA transcript.

74.

What happens to the CTD during the open complex formation?

a)

It is phosphorylated by TFIIH and mediator.

b)

It binds to the DNA strands.

c)

It releases NELF and DSIF.

d)

It synthesizes RNA polymerase II.

75.

Which factors are involved in the pausing of transcription after the formation of the open complex?

a)

DSIF and NELF

b)

TFIIH and mediator

c)

RNA polymerase II and chaperone

d)

Histones and activators

76.

What is the effect of phosphorylation by P-TEFb on DSIF and NELF?

a)

It causes the release of NELF, allowing RNA polymerase to transcribe the rest of the gene.

b)

It binds the DNA strands together.

c)

It inhibits the formation of the open complex.

d)

It synthesizes a short RNA transcript.

77.

What is the role of activator proteins in the transcriptional activation of a eukaryotic gene?

a)

They bind to enhancers, triggering DNA bending.

b)

They inhibit RNA polymerase activity.

c)

They degrade mRNA after transcription.

d)

They prevent chromatin remodeling.

78.

How do activators interact with coactivators during gene activation?

a)

They stimulate chromatin remodeling and histone acetylation.

b)

They block the binding of RNA polymerase.

c)

They cause DNA methylation.

d)

They inhibit transcription factors.

79.

What is the function of the Mediator complex in transcriptional activation?

a)

It triggers the assembly of RNA polymerase and transcription factors at the promoter site.

b)

It degrades RNA transcripts.

c)

It prevents the binding of activators to enhancers.

d)

It inhibits chromatin remodeling.

80.

What is the study of the function, expression, and interaction of gene products called?

a)

Genomics

b)

Functional genomics

c)

Transcriptomics

d)

Proteomics

81.

Which term refers to the sequence and expression patterns of all RNA transcripts?

a)

Proteome

b)

Genome

c)

Transcriptome

d)

Interactome

82.

What does the term "proteome" refer to?

a)

The complete set of DNA sequences

b)

The sequence and expression patterns of all proteins

c)

The physical interactions between proteins and DNA

d)

The sequence of all RNA transcripts

83.

What is the interactome?

a)

The sequence of all DNA segments

b)

The complete set of physical interactions between proteins and DNA segments, between proteins and RNA sequences, and between proteins

c)

The expression patterns of all RNA transcripts

d)

The sequence of all proteins

84.

What is the purpose of using DNA microarrays in studying the transcriptome?

a)

To sequence the entire genome

b)

To identify active genes under specific conditions

c)

To measure protein levels in cells

d)

To determine the structure of DNA

85.

Which step involves labeling cDNAs with fluorescent dyes in the DNA microarray process?

a)

Extract mRNA

b)

Make cDNA reverse transcript

c)

Hybridize to microarray

d)

Detect laser emission

86.

What does the computer calculate in the DNA microarray process?

a)

The sequence of DNA

b)

The relative levels of hybridized probe

c)

The amount of mRNA extracted

d)

The number of cells in a sample

87.

What is the purpose of using the ChIP assay in functional genomics?

a)

To sequence the entire genome

b)

To study the protein-DNA interactome

c)

To measure RNA expression levels

d)

To analyze protein-protein interactions

88.

What is the first step in the ChIP assay process?

a)

Add antibody to target protein

b)

Break the chromatin into small pieces

c)

Cross-link proteins to DNA

d)

Reverse cross-links to separate DNA and protein

89.

Which chemical is used to cross-link proteins to DNA in the ChIP assay?

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Ethanol

c)

Acetone

d)

Methanol

90.

What is the final step that happens to the DNA in the ChIP assay process?

a)

Add antibody to target protein

b)

Break the chromatin into small pieces

c)

Reverse cross-links to separate DNA and protein

d)

Amplify and sequence