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FFM-Quiz 1: Chapter1-4

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following decisions is an example of capital budgeting?

a)

Issuing new debt

b)

Deciding on dividend payout

c)

Purchasing a new production facility

d)

Repurchasing company shares

e)

Reorganizing management

2.

Which of the following best describes agency problems?

a)

Conflicts between creditors and suppliers

b)

Differences in tax treatment

c)

Conflicts of interest between managers and shareholders

d)

Mispricing of securities

e)

Failure of product lines

3.

Which type of business organization has the greatest potential to raise capital?

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

Limited liability company

d)

Corporation

e)

Cooperative

4.

What is the primary disadvantage of a corporation?

a)

Difficulty in transferring ownership

b)

Unlimited liability

c)

Double taxation

d)

Lack of continuity

e)

Inflexible structure

5.

Which is NOT a major function of the Chief Financial Officer (CFO)?

a)

Managing the firm's accounting

b)

Controlling cash and credit

c)

Preparing operational production plans

d)

Raising capital

e)

Budgeting and forecasting

6.

The risk-return trade-off implies:

a)

Lower risk always leads to higher returns

b)

Risk and return are unrelated

c)

Higher risk should be accepted only if compensated by higher return

d)

Higher return always implies lower risk

e)

There is no trade-off between the two

7.

Which factor does NOT influence managerial behavior?

a)

Executive compensation packages

b)

Regulatory constraints

c)

Threat of hostile takeovers

d)

The Federal Reserve's monetary policy

e)

Shareholder monitoring

8.

Which of the following is a form of intrinsic value?

a)

Market capitalization

b)

Book value

c)

Analyst forecast

d)

Long-run true value of the firm's stock

e)

GAAP net income

9.

Financial management is primarily concerned with:

a)

Efficient production

b)

Record-keeping and reporting

c)

Management of the firm's assets and liabilities

d)

Employment policies

e)

Inventory controls

10.

In a well-functioning economy, capital flows efficiently from:

a)

Consumers to producers

b)

Government to the public

c)

Savers to those who need capital

d)

Banks to government

e)

Retailers to wholesalers

11.

Which is NOT a characteristic of an efficient financial market?

a)

Information is widely available

b)

Capital is allocated based on prices

c)

Prices reflect all available information

d)

Arbitrage is widespread and risk-free

e)

New information is quickly incorporated

12.

Which of the following could reduce agency conflicts?

a)

Increasing dividend payout

b)

Providing managers with company stock options

c)

Reducing transparency

d)

Decreasing managerial salaries

e)

Separating ownership and control

13.

Which is an example of a financial decision?

a)

Choosing a new logo

b)

Hiring an HR manager

c)

Deciding to invest in a new machine

d)

Selecting a supplier

e)

Designing product packaging

14.

What is a stakeholder?

a)

Only a shareholder

b)

Government regulator

c)

Anyone with an interest in the firm's operations

d)

Only employees

e)

Only bondholders

15.

What type of market is the NYSE?

a)

Money market

b)

Private market

c)

Over-the-counter market

d)

Physical location exchange

e)

Futures market

16.

A financial market in which securities are sold for the first time is:

a)

Secondary market

b)

Money market

c)

Private market

d)

Primary market

e)

Spot market

17.

Which is NOT an example of a money market instrument?

a)

Treasury bill

b)

Commercial paper

c)

Certificate of deposit

d)

Common stock

e)

Repurchase agreement

18.

Which institution acts as an intermediary between savers and borrowers?

a)

SEC

b)

FDIC

c)

Financial intermediary

d)

NASDAQ

e)

IRS

19.

Which of the following is true about hedge funds?

a)

Heavily regulated

b)

Open to all investors

c)

Invest only in government bonds

d)

Lightly regulated and accessible to wealthy investors

e)

Government owned

20.

Mutual funds:

a)

Are exempt from regulation

b)

Cannot be publicly traded

c)

Provide diversification to small investors

d)

Only invest in one security

e)

Are only for institutional investors

21.

A dealer market differs from a broker market in that:

a)

Brokers take ownership of assets

b)

Dealers act as intermediaries only

c)

Dealers buy and sell for their own account

d)

Brokers are not licensed

e)

Broker markets trade only futures

22.

Which of the following is NOT a capital market instrument?

a)

Corporate bond

b)

Preferred stock

c)

Treasury bond

d)

Common stock

e)

Treasury bill

23.

Which organization is responsible for regulating stock exchanges?

a)

Federal Reserve

b)

SEC

c)

FDIC

d)

Department of Treasury

e)

FINRA

24.

Investment banks:

a)

Accept deposits

b)

Insure customer deposits

c)

Help firms issue securities

d)

Provide checking accounts

e)

Regulate markets

25.

Which best describes a private market?

a)

Securities are traded in public

b)

Regulated by the SEC

c)

Transactions are negotiated directly

d)

Only stocks are traded

e)

Open to all investors

26.

A forward market involves:

a)

Immediate delivery

b)

Exchange-traded securities

c)

Future delivery at agreed prices

d)

Spot prices

e)

Only physical assets

27.

The main role of the financial system is to:

a)

Collect taxes

b)

Provide free capital

c)

Facilitate the flow of funds

d)

Promote inflation

e)

Set interest rates

28.

Which of the following is NOT a participant in financial markets?

a)

Households

b)

Governments

c)

Foreign investors

d)

Central banks

e)

Advertising agencies

29.

Which is a correct match?

a)

Treasury bills - capital market

b)

NASDAQ - physical exchange

c)

Hedge fund - retail investors

d)

Commercial bank - financial intermediary

e)

NYSE - dealer market

30.

Which of the following is a non-cash expense?

a)

Cost of goods sold

b)

Depreciation

c)

Salaries expense

d)

Utilities expense

e)

Interest expense

31.

Which of the following is a non-cash expense?

a)

Cost of goods sold

b)

Depreciation

c)

Salaries expense

d)

Utilities expense

e)

Interest expense

32.

What does the income statement show?

a)

Cash inflows and outflows

b)

Sources and uses of equity

c)

Financial position at a point in time

d)

Revenues and expenses over a period of time

e)

Changes in owner's equity only

33.

Which of the following is included in the statement of cash flows?

a)

Dividends declared

b)

Net income

c)

Depreciation added back to net income

d)

Retained earnings

e)

Total liabilities

34.

The primary purpose of the balance sheet is to show:

a)

Cash inflows

b)

Net income

c)

Financial condition on a specific date

d)

Market value of equity

e)

Taxable income

35.

What is the formula for net operating working capital (NOWC)?

a)

Current assets - current liabilities

b)

Current assets - notes payable

c)

(Current assets - excess cash) - (current liabilities - notes payable)

d)

Current liabilities - current assets

e)

Inventory + receivables

36.

Which of the following would increase cash flow from investing activities?

a)

Sale of property, plant, and equipment

b)

Depreciation expense

c)

Issuance of common stock

d)

Purchase of inventory

e)

Interest income

37.

What type of activity is 'issuance of bonds' classified as in the statement of cash flows?

a)

Operating activity

b)

Investing activity

c)

Financing activity

d)

Tax activity

e)

Hedging activity

38.

Which of the following is tax-deductible for corporations?

a)

Dividends paid

b)

Interest expense

c)

Net income

d)

Depreciation recapture

e)

Common stock issuance

39.

A firm's marginal tax rate is:

a)

The average rate on all income

b)

The rate applied to the lowest income bracket

c)

The rate paid on the next dollar of taxable income

d)

Fixed for all corporations

e)

The same as the dividend tax rate

40.

What would happen if a firm increases depreciation expense?

a)

Net income rises

b)

Cash flow from operations decreases

c)

Cash flow from operations increases

d)

Total assets increase

e)

EBIT increases

41.

Which financial statement would you analyze to assess a company's liquidity?

a)

Income statement

b)

Statement of retained earnings

c)

Balance sheet

d)

Cash flow statement

e)

Statement of equity

42.

What is the effect of an increase in accounts payable on cash flow?

a)

Increase in cash

b)

Decrease in cash

c)

No effect

d)

Increases net income

e)

Decreases tax expense

43.

A firm's retained earnings will increase if:

a)

Net income is negative

b)

Dividends exceed earnings

c)

Net income is positive and dividends are less than earnings

d)

Depreciation increases

e)

Common stock is issued

44.

Which of the following is subtracted when calculating free cash flow?

a)

Net income

b)

Depreciation

c)

Capital expenditures

d)

Interest expense

e)

Notes payable

45.

Which item appears on both the balance sheet and the cash flow statement?

a)

Depreciation

b)

Retained earnings

c)

Notes payable

d)

Net income

e)

Operating expenses

46.

Which ratio measures a firm's ability to meet short-term obligations?

a)

Current ratio

b)

Debt-to-equity ratio

c)

Return on equity

d)

Profit margin

e)

Inventory turnover

47.

The quick ratio excludes which of the following from current assets?

a)

Cash

b)

Receivables

c)

Inventory

d)

Marketable securities

e)

Prepaid expenses

48.

Which ratio measures how efficiently a company uses its assets to generate sales?

a)

Return on equity

b)

Inventory turnover

c)

Total asset turnover

d)

Current ratio

e)

Debt ratio

49.

Which ratio assesses a firm's ability to use equity efficiently?

a)

ROA

b)

ROE

c)

Current ratio

d)

Total debt ratio

e)

Times interest earned

50.

The DuPont equation helps analyze:

a)

Interest rates

b)

Dividend policy

c)

Return on equity drivers

d)

Inventory levels

e)

Market share

51.

Which of the following increases if a firm uses more debt relative to equity?

a)

ROE

b)

Current ratio

c)

Asset turnover

d)

Gross profit

e)

Market capitalization

52.

Which ratio is most relevant to creditors evaluating a firm's ability to meet interest payments?

a)

Quick ratio

b)

Current ratio

c)

Return on assets

d)

Times interest earned

e)

Inventory turnover

53.

What does a high inventory turnover ratio indicate?

a)

High level of debt

b)

Inventory moves slowly

c)

Efficient inventory management

d)

Poor liquidity

e)

Weak sales

54.

Which of the following best describes the debt ratio?

a)

Equity/Total assets

b)

Debt/Total assets

c)

Debt/Equity

d)

EBIT/Interest expense

e)

Assets/Equity

55.

Common-size financial statements express all items:

a)

As percentage of total liabilities

b)

In constant dollars

c)

As a percentage of sales or total assets

d)

In current market value

e)

On an inflation-adjusted basis

56.

Which of the following is NOT a profitability ratio?

a)

Net profit margin

b)

Return on equity

c)

Gross profit margin

d)

Times interest earned

e)

Return on assets

57.

Which statement is TRUE regarding financial ratio analysis?

a)

It is useful only for large firms

b)

Ratios eliminate the need for other financial analysis

c)

Ratios provide meaningful insights only when compared

d)

Ratio analysis always reveals fraud

e)

All ratios are GAAP-based

58.

If a firm's fixed assets turnover decreases, it may indicate:

a)

Higher sales

b)

Efficient asset use

c)

Under-utilization of assets

d)

Low debt level

e)

Higher equity

59.

Which of the following can lead to misleading ratio analysis?

a)

Use of audited financials

b)

Comparing ratios across industries

c)

Analysis of trends

d)

Standardizing financials

e)

Using industry averages

60.

Trend analysis involves:

a)

Comparing firms to each other

b)

Comparing financials over time

c)

Assessing future stock prices

d)

Calculating depreciation

e)

Assessing customer satisfaction