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Edexcel GCSE Business Topics 1.1-1.3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which one is not a key reason why new business ideas come about?

a)

Changes in technology

b)

Changes in what consumers want

c)

New product development

d)

Products and services becoming obsolete

2.

E-commerce falls under which key reason why new business ideas come about?

a)

Changes in technology

b)

Changes in what consumers want

c)

Products and services becoming obsolete

3.

What does the following definition best describe? "Any business transaction that takes place using the internet".

a)

E-commerce

b)

M-commerce

4.

Changes in what consumers want are influenced predominantly by which factors?

a)

Demographics

b)

Consumer tastes

c)

Customer behaviour

d)

Social trends

5.

Examples of demographics include?

a)

Age of the population

b)

Ethnic profile

c)

Favourite brand

d)

Spending habits

6.

If levels of income went up across the UK and positively impacted disposable income, then it’s likely consumers would want to purchase?

a)

Less products and services which could be classed as luxury and non-essential.

b)

More products and services which could be classed as luxury and non-essential.

7.

The rise in vegan products is mainly due to?

a)

Changes in technology

b)

Changes in what consumers want

c)

Products and services becoming obsolete

8.

New business ideas come about because entrepreneurs?

a)

Adapt original ideas

b)

Adapt existing products

c)

Generate original ideas

d)

Generate existing products

9.

The common factors which make a new business start-up likely to succeed include?

a)

A product or service which fills a gap in the market

b)

A product or service which solves a problem

c)

A product or service which has no demand from consumers in the market

d)

A product or service which exploits an emerging growth trend

10.

The common factors which cause a new business start-up to fail include?

a)

Outcompeted

b)

Poor marketing

c)

Producing a product or service which can be sold at a lower price than competitors

d)

Insufficient financial resources or simply running out of cash

11.

The common risks that face any entrepreneur when starting a business include?

a)

Business failure

b)

Increased custom

c)

Financial loss

d)

Lack of security

12.

The chances of business failure increase if a business has a _______ cashflow as it has more money going out than what it has coming in.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

13.

Business failure can often happen due to low levels of sales revenue or low profit margins, but what causes these to happen?

a)

Sales prices are too high and not competitive

b)

Large customer base

c)

Competitor activity

d)

A shortage of raw materials

14.

Financial loss can occur at anytime and isn’t just restricted to when a business initially starts up?

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The owners of a business are always risking financial loss on a personal basis.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

When an entrepreneur quits their job to pursue their business start-up full time, meaning they give up what is usually a secure and regular income for something which is not guaranteed, this is an example of which common type of risk?

a)

Business failure

b)

Financial loss

c)

Lack of security

17.

Entrepreneurs can minimise and manage risk by?

a)

Spending money

b)

Conducting regular market research

c)

Increasing costs

d)

Budgeting

18.

The common rewards that motivate many entrepreneurs to start a business include?

a)

Business success

b)

Control

c)

Independence

d)

Profit

19.

Having the option of making their own decisions and being fully accountable for the outcomes of these decisions is a major attraction for many entrepreneurs. Which type of reward does this describe?

a)

Business success

b)

Profit

c)

Independence

20.

All entrepreneurs start a business to make a profit.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The three main roles of business enterprise are?

a)

To produce goods or services

b)

To meet customer needs

c)

To make money

d)

To add value

22.

Goods are intangible items which businesses offer to customers, meaning they can be physically touched and taken away.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

It’s crucial that businesses invest in (a)   (b)   to develop an understanding of the wants and needs of their target market.

Choose from the below words

Sales revenue

Market research

Physical stores

Competitor's products

24.

Which one isn't an example of a customer need which a business may need to meet?

a)

Availability

b)

Customer service

c)

Price

d)

Added value

25.

The term ‘added value’ means a business sells a product or service for less than the cost of producing it.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Alongside producing products from raw materials, there are several other ways that a business can add value to its products and services, these include?

a)

Branding

b)

USP

c)

Convenience

d)

Price

27.

A business can add value through the (a)   of its products such as the features they provide customers or the way the product is presented e.g. the aesthetic look. (1 answer)

Choose from the below words

Convenience

Quality

Design

Branding

28.

Which formula is the correct way to calculate the added value?

a)

Cost price - selling price

b)

Selling price - cost price

c)

Selling price - expenses

d)

Cost price + selling price

29.

The three key roles of an individual entrepreneur in business are?

a)

Organising resources

b)

Making business decisions

c)

Minimising risk

d)

Taking risks

30.

Which two are examples of high-level business decisions that an entrepreneur could face?

a)

What content should I post on the business' social media accounts today?

b)

Should I outsource labour or hire in-house?

c)

Should I expand the business or not?

d)

Should I reduce the price of older stock to increase sales?

31.

The four main customer needs are based on?

a)

Price, Quality, Choice, Information

b)

Product, Quality, Choice, Convenience

c)

Price, Quality, Choice, Convenience

d)

Price, Design, Choice, Convenience

32.

Businesses can only use one pricing strategy.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Loss Leaders are products which are sold at a higher price than they cost to produce and sell, with the aim of increasing footfall into a business' stores.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The two key benefits for a business if it can identify and understand its customers' needs are?

a)

Generating sales

b)

Attracting customers

c)

Business survival

d)

Expansion

35.

If a supermarket opened a range of smaller local stores, which customer need would this be most closely linked to?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

36.

An electronics retailer sells a variety of top branded goods but has just launched its own range of essential products which will be much cheaper. Which customer need would this be most closely linked to?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

37.

If customers have a wide range of options when they are looking to purchase a product, which customer need does this meet?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

38.

If a business sells products which are known as being the best in the market, which customer need does link to?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

39.

Tom is looking to purchase a new TV, but he has a limited budget and can't travel far. Which two customer needs are most important to Tom?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

40.

Jenny is looking to purchase a wedding dress. She has saved for the last five years just so she can afford whichever dress she falls in love with. She is willing to travel anywhere in the UK to find the perfect dress regardless of the price. Which two customer needs are most important to Jenny?

a)

Price

b)

Quality

c)

Choice

d)

Convenience

41.

Which one is not a key purpose of market research?

a)

Identify and understand customer needs

b)

Identify gaps in the market

c)

Increase risk

d)

Inform business decisions

42.

Which one is not a method of primary research?

a)

Focus group

b)

Internet

c)

Questionnaire

d)

Survey

43.

The two main methods of market research are known as?

a)

Questionnaire research

b)

Primary research

c)

Observation research

d)

Secondary research

44.

Which two are methods of secondary market research?

a)

Market reports

b)

Observation

c)

Government reports

d)

Questionnaire

45.

This type of research is often used to generate statistics which represent the market numerically and uses closed questions i.e. 'yes' or 'no' responses or rankings etc.

a)

Quantitative data

b)

Qualitative data

46.

This method of market research involves a group of people who are interviewed by or on behalf of the business.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Surveys

c)

Focus group

d)

Observation

47.

This type of market research provides a business with information and data based on an industry.

a)

Government reports

b)

Market reports

c)

Observation

d)

Survey

48.

If a business changes the location of a product to see if this influences buyer behaviour, this is an example of which type of market research?

a)

Survey

b)

Observation

c)

Market report

d)

Questionnaire

49.

__________ data allows the researcher to collect the thoughts and opinions of the participants by using open questions, allowing them to expand and provide reasons for their answers.

Choose from the below words

Quantitative

Qualitative

50.

Observation is a form of secondary market research.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Examples of market segments include?

a)

Location

b)

Income

c)

Attitude

d)

Age

52.

If a business segments the market according to levels of education, income, family size, race, and gender, they are segmenting the marketing by focusing on?

a)

Demographics

b)

Lifestyle

c)

Location

d)

Age

53.

Segmenting the market by ________ creates different target customer groups based on geographical boundaries.

a)

Age

b)

Demographics

c)

Location

d)

Income

54.

What is one of the key criteria often used in market segmentation to categorise consumers into distinct groups based on their purchasing power and economic status?

a)

Lifestyle

b)

Income

c)

Demographics

d)

Location

55.

This type of market segmentation considers the personality traits, values, opinions, and interests of consumers.

a)

Age

b)

Lifestyle

c)

Income

d)

Demographics

56.

Which two features are commonly used in the market mapping process?

a)

Price

b)

Demographics

c)

Quality

d)

Location

57.

The market mapping process is used to identify any gaps in the market and helps businesses to pinpoint the type of product/service they wish to sell to this group of customers.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which one best describes the process of market segmentation?

a)

Dividing the target market into groups based on their wants, needs, and characteristics

b)

Conducting research on the target market

c)

Dividing customers into groups according to how much they have spent with the business

d)

The collection of a customer's activity on a business' website

59.

The benefits of segmenting the market for a business include?

a)

Sales revenue will increase

b)

The business can identify and target specific customer groups

c)

The business can use market mapping to identify any gaps in the market and the competition

d)

Increased chance of attracting customers to purchase from the business

60.

If a business segmented the market based on the salary of customers, this is an example of segmenting the market by?

a)

Age

b)

Income

c)

Lifestyle

d)

Demographics

61.

The two different types of competition in business are known as?

a)

Open

b)

Closed

c)

Direct

d)

Indirect

62.

In business, competition is deemed to be strong if?

a)

Customers have a range of choice from competitors who offer similar products in the market.

b)

Customers have little choice in the market as there are only a few businesses who compete.

63.

Businesses can analyse their competition based on a range of factors which include?

a)

Quality

b)

Product range

c)

Employees

d)

Customer service

64.

If a business can offer a similar product at a lower price, it is considered a strength as they are likely to attract customers and increase sales?

a)

True

b)

False

65.

To become the market leader in the competitive environment it operates within, a business must sell the highest quality goods?

a)

True

b)

False

66.

If a business sells a product which has a USP and is in high demand with customers, this a strength linked to which factor?

a)

Quality

b)

Location

c)

Product range

d)

Customer service

67.

Which of the following scenarios is most likely to lead to business failure in a highly competitive market?

a)

Selling similar quality goods at a high price

b)

Selling low quality goods with basic levels of customer service

c)

Selling high quality at high prices

d)

Selling a wide range of products

68.

If a business operates in an extremely competitive market, what can it do to become more competitive?

a)

Lower prices

b)

Increase product range

c)

Reduce quality

d)

Improve customer service

69.

The business which can offer the cheapest products to customers will become the market leaders.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

______ competitors are the businesses which sell the same type of product or service.

Choose from the below words

Direct

Indirect

71.

Identify the financial aim from the options below.

a)

To use 100% recyclable packing for all products.

b)

To improve the local community.

c)

To increase revenue by 25% in the next 12 months of trade.

d)

To learn how to use premier pro so we become more efficient and effective at editing video.

72.

Identify the non-financial aims from the options below.

a)

To increase market share by 12% in the next financial year.

b)

To survive the first year in business.

c)

To increase profit margins by 20p per sale on average.

d)

Use 100% solar energy to power the business.

73.

What is the difference between an aim and an objective?

a)

Objectives are the smaller targets which must be achieved along the way so the business can ultimately achieve its overall aim.

b)

Aims are the smaller targets which must be achieved along the way so the business can ultimately achieve its overall objective.

74.

Which one best describes the term business survival?

a)

The business breaks even within the first 3 months of setting up.

b)

The business has enough money to cover its costs and keep operating.

c)

The business has disposable income and can invest in expansion.

75.

Which two are examples of variable costs?

a)

Rent

b)

Raw materials

c)

Hourly employee pay

d)

Insurance

76.

A business has a total revenue of £187,000 and a total cost of £166,000, has it made a profit or a loss?

a)

£187,000 profit

b)

£21,000 loss

c)

£21,000 profit

d)

£166,000 loss

77.

A business has a total revenue of £162,000 and a total cost of £175,000. Therefore, it has made a profit of £13,000.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

A business sells a product for £28, has a variable cost per unit of £13, and fixed costs of £9,000. What is the break-even point in revenue?

a)

£600

b)

£16,800

c)

£12,300

d)

£4,800

79.

The formula to calculate total costs is?

a)

Fixed Costs x Variable Costs

b)

Fixed Costs / Variable Costs

c)

Variable Costs / Fixed Costs

d)

Fixed Costs + Variable Costs

80.

If a business sells 3209 products for £12 each, what would its total revenue be?

a)

£41,674

b)

£38,508

c)

£29,592

d)

£67,909

81.

A business has taken a bank loan for £18,000 but has a total repayment of £24,000. What is the interest rate charged on the bank loan?

a)

40.20%

b)

25.25%

c)

30.66%

d)

33.33%

82.

A business sells 4,328 products in a year. It has fixed costs of £23,500 and variable costs of £7 per unit. What is its total cost?

a)

£23,500

b)

£30,296

c)

£44,879

d)

£53,796

83.

A business sells a product for £15, has a variable cost per unit of £8, and fixed costs of £7,000. It sells 1230 units. What is the margin of safety?

a)

70

b)

230

c)

310

d)

170

84.

A business produces 10,200 products in a year and sells them for £12 each. The fixed cost is £42,000 and total costs equal £72,600. What is the variable cost per unit?

a)

£12

b)

£7

c)

£3

d)

£4

85.

Which two are reasons why it is important for a business to have cash?

a)

Helps to prevent future investment.

b)

Allows a business to pay suppliers, overheads, and employees.

c)

Helps to prevent business failure (insolvency).

d)

Allows a business to pay customers.

86.

If a business has a positive cash flow, this means?

a)

It has more money coming in than going out.

b)

It has less money coming in than going out.

87.

Which one best describes the term cash?

a)

The money which a business receives in e.g. from a sale, and what it has in savings.

b)

The amount of money which is left once all costs have been deducted for the financial year.

88.

Common cash inflows include?

a)

Cash sales

b)

Bank interest paid

c)

Loans

d)

Sale of assets

89.

Common cash outflows include?

a)

Credit purchases

b)

Wages

c)

Capital introduced

d)

Rates

90.

The formula to calculate net cash flow is?

a)

Cash Inflows - Cash Outflows

b)

Cash Outflows - Cash Inflows

c)

Cash Inflows x Cash Outflows

d)

Cash Inflows + Cash Outflows

91.

The formula to calculate the closing balance in a cash flow forecast is?

a)

Opening balance x net cash flow

b)

Opening balance + net cash flow

c)

Net cash-flow - opening balance

d)

Cash inflows + opening balance

92.

Identify the two benefits of using cash flow forecasting in business from the options below. (2 answers)

a)

Can be used as part of a business plan to help secure finance.

b)

Unforeseen changes can impact the forecast such as a change in material costs.

c)

Helps a business to anticipate where corrective action needs to be taken.

d)

Based on a forecast therefore could not be accurate.

93.

If a business has an opening balance of £1250 and a net cash flow of £2,200, what is the closing balance?

a)

£950

b)

£3,450

c)

£2,850

d)

£3,100

94.

If a business forecasts to have cash inflows of £3,635 and cash outflows of £1,320 in the month of May, it has a net cash flow of?

a)

£4,955

b)

£3,275

c)

£1,925

d)

£2,315

95.

A business can only receive investment through share capital in its first year of trade?

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Short term sources of finance are paid back within ____ ____.

a)

Six months

b)

One year

c)

Two years

d)

Five years

97.

Identify the two key short-term sources of finances which are commonly used in business listed below.

a)

Loans

b)

Overdraft

c)

Trade credit

d)

Venture capital

98.

Identify the two disadvantages for a business when using an overdraft as a source of finance.

a)

Very expensive source of finance.

b)

Failure to comply with the conditions of the agreement could lead to the loss of a supplier.

c)

Personal finances are at risk.

d)

Cannot be used for large amounts of borrowing.

99.

"The maximum amount of credit available to the business" best describes which common term of a credit agreement?

a)

Credit period

b)

Credit limit

c)

Credit amount

d)

Credit frequency

100.

Identify the three long term sources of finance listed below.

a)

Retained profit

b)

Crowd funding

c)

Trade credit

d)

Personal savings