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Inorganic Chemistry Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which quantum number contributes to numbers of angular node?

a)

principal

b)

azimuthal

c)

magnetic

d)

spin

2.

What is the maximum number of electrons in the fourth main shell?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

24

d)

32

3.

Which of the following is an allowable set of quantum numbers?

a)

n=4, l =4, ml=4, ms=+1/2

b)

n=3, l =3, ml=3, ms=+1/2

c)

n=4, l =3, ml= -3, ms=−1/2

d)

n=3, l =4, ml= -4, ms=−1/2

4.

A gas-phase hydrogen atom absorbs a photon of visible light and then emits a photon of ultraviolet light. What is TRUE about its initial and final principal quantum number n?

a)

initially n=1 and finally n=2

b)

initially n=2 and finally n=1

c)

initially n=2 and finally n=4

d)

This scenario is impossible because ultraviolet light is more energetic than visible light.

5.

An energy of 3.3×10−19 J/atom is required to cause a cesium atom on a metal surface to lose an electron. Calculate the longest possible wavelength of light that can ionize a cesium atom.

a)

200 nm

b)

400 nm

c)

600 nm

d)

800 nm

6.

The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6 eV. What is the difference in energy between the n=1 and n=6 levels?

a)

11.3 eV

b)

68 eV

c)

13.6 eV

d)

13.2 eV

7.

What happens to a 720-nm wave if it becomes three times more energetic?

a)

it becomes 240 nm.

b)

it becomes 2160 nm.

c)

it remains 720 nm.

d)

none of the above

8.

The following electronic transitions occur when lithium atoms are sprayed into a hot flame. The steps are numbered for identification. Which of these would result in the emission of light?

I II III IV V
2s -> 2p -> 3d -> 3p -> 4s -> 2p

a)

All of the steps

b)

I, II, and V only

c)

III and V only

d)

III, IV, and V only

9.

How many radial nodes does a 4s orbital have?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

10.

How many unpaired electrons are there in a ground-state titanium atom?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

11.

What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

0

12.

What is the maximum electron capacity of the fifth main shell?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

25

d)

50

13.

Which species has the largest radius?

a)

K+

b)

Ar

c)

Cl-

d)

S2-

14.

Which series correctly arranges the atoms, Ba, Cs, Mg, Na in order of increasing size?

a)

Cs < Na < Mg < Ba

b)

Ba < Mg < Na < Cs

c)

Mg < Na < Ba < Cs

d)

Mg < Ba < Na < Cs

15.

From top to bottom of Group 1, first ionization energy ______ and electronegativity ______;

a)

increases; decreases

b)

decreases; increases

c)

decreases; decreases

d)

increases; increases

16.

To which of the following species, all in the gaseous state, must be the largest amount of energy be added to remove one electron?

a)

K+

b)

Ar

c)

Kr

d)

Cl2-

17.

Which of the following will an electron be easiest to remove?

a)

Cl

b)

Cl-

c)

Cl+

d)

same energy

18.

Which of the following is arranged correctly in order of increasing ionization energy?

a)

C < Si < Li < Ne

b)

Ne < Si < C < Li

c)

Li < Si < C < Ne

d)

Ne < C < Si < Li

19.

Which of the following best describes the trend in electron affinity of Group 1 and 2 elements in the same period?

a)

More energy is released by Group 1 elements because there is less electron-electron repulsion in the ions.

b)

More energy is released by Group 1 elements because the added electron enters an s orbital rather than a p orbital.

c)

More energy is released by Group 2 elements because they have more protons in the nucleus.

d)

More energy is released by Group 2 elements because addition of an electron to a Group 1 element disrupts an unusually stable half-filled s subshell.

20.

Which element releases the greatest amount of energy upon addition of an electron to a gas-phase atom?

a)

N

b)

O

c)

I

d)

S

21.

The chemical reactivity (ease of oxidation) among Group I and Group II elements ______.

a)

decreases within a group with increasing atomic number

b)

is probably smallest for beryllium

c)

increases from Group I to Group II

d)

is probably largest for lithium

22.

What is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Magnesium

d)

Silicon

23.

Which is the most abundant noble gas in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Ne

b)

He

c)

Ar

d)

Kr, Xe, Rn

24.

Which element does NOT have multiple allotropes?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Fluorine

d)

Phosphorus

25.

Which will NOT react with sodium metal?

a)

Water

b)

mineral oil

c)

ethanol

d)

carbon tetrachloride

26.

Four elements were tested in the laboratory and gave the results in the given table. Which element is a metalloid?

a)

Slight luster, High Conductivity, Bubbles slowly

b)

Shiny, low conductivity, No reaction

c)

Dull, None, No reaction

d)

Shiny, High conductivity, Bubbles rapidly

27.

Which of the following compounds produces H2​ gas when added to water?

a)

LiH

b)

CH4​

c)

NH3​

d)

H2S

28.

Which of the following contains the incorrect pairing?

a)

HClO4 ​: perchloric acid

b)

HClO2​ : chlorous acid

c)

HClO3 ​: chloric acid

d)

HClO ​: chlorous acid

29.

Which oxides exist as individual molecules?
I. Al2O3

II. SiO2
III. P4O10

a)

III only

b)

I and II only

c)

I. Al2O3

d)

III. P4O10

e)

II. SiO2

30.

Titanium tetrachloride, TiCl4​, is a liquid at room temperature and has a very high vapor pressure. Which statement best explains these observations?

a)

Titanium tetrachloride is an ionic compound, with Ti4+ and Cl- ions arranged in a lattice.

b)

Titanium tetrachloride is a molecular substance, with TiCl4 ​ molecules held together by covalent bonds.

c)

The bonding in titanium tetrachloride is metallic, with a sea of electrons being shared equally between all atoms in a sample.

d)

Titanium tetrachloride is a network covalent substance, with an essentially infinite lattice of covalently-bonded Ti and Cl atoms.

31.

Between NaF and NaBF4​, which is likely to be more soluble in water?

a)

NaF

b)

NaBF4​

c)

Both are equally soluble.

d)

Cannot be determined.

32.

Which of the following is the correct order for solubility in water?

a)

Something

b)

NaBF4 . NaF

c)

Something

d)

All of the above

33.

The reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water yields ______.

a)

HNO3​ only

b)

HNO2 only

c)

HNO3 ​ and NO​

d)

HNO2 and NO2

34.

Which of the following is NOT one of the uses of ammonia?

a)

Production of nitric acid.

b)

Ammonia is used as a refrigerant.

c)

Ammonia can be used as fertilizer.

d)

Ammonia is used for killing bacteria in sewers.

35.

What is the total number of valence electrons in the perchlorate ion?

a)

26

b)

31

c)

32

d)

35

36.

Which molecule has no unpaired electrons?

a)

NO

b)

O2

c)

SO2

d)

ClO2

37.

The peroxymonosulfate anion, HSO_5^-​, has:

a)

5 S-O bonds and no O-O bonds

b)

4 S-O bonds and 1 O-O bond

c)

3 S-O bonds and 2 O-O bonds

d)

1 S-O bonds and 4 O-O bonds

38.

PCl5​ exists but not NCl5​, because:
I. NCl5​ is very unstable.

II. There are no vacant d orbitals in NCl5​.

III. Nitrogen is larger than phosphorus.

IV. Nitrogen is inert.

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

I only

d)

II only

39.

Which of the following is the best description of the geometry of PCl5​?

a)

Trigonal pyramidal

b)

Square pyramidal

c)

Octahedral

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

40.

What is the molecular geometry of iodine dichloride ion (ICl2+​)?

a)

Linear

b)

Bent

c)

Tetrahedral

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal

41.

Which comparisons of bond angles are TRUE?
I. The bond angle in NH3 is greater than the bond angle in NF3
II. The bond angle in NH3 is greater than the bond angle in PH3

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I nor II

42.

Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?

a)

O2

b)

O3

c)

S8

d)

SO3

43.

The least polarized anion is:

a)

SO42-

b)

IO4-

c)

ClO4-

d)

C2O42-

44.

Which species has the strongest carbon-oxygen bond?

a)

CO

b)

CH₂O

c)

CO₂

d)

CH₃OH

45.

Which is the least stable molecule?

a)

SF₂

b)

SF₄

c)

OF₄

d)

OF₂

46.

SF₄ adopts a see-saw geometry with two axial F atoms with a F-S-F angle of about 180° and two equatorial F atoms at about 90° from the axial fluorine atoms. Which statement describes the axial and equatorial S-F bonds?

a)

The axial S-F are longer because the two fluorine atoms must share bonding to the same orbital on sulfur.

b)

The axial S-F are longer because they experience greater repulsion from the other F atoms.

c)

The equatorial S-F are longer because the equatorial F-S-F bond angle is the smallest in the molecule.

d)

The equatorial S-F are longer because they experience greater repulsion from S lone pair.

47.

Which statement about FNNF is NOT correct?

a)

It is planar.

b)

It exists as two distinct geometric isomers.

c)

Its nitrogen-nitrogen bond is longer than that in N₂F₄.

d)

It is more stable than its structural isomer with both F bonded to the same N.

48.

Which series correctly arranges the ions in increasing average N-O bond length?

I. NO₃⁻, NO₂⁻, NO⁺

II. NO⁺, NO₃⁻, NO₂⁻

III. NO₂⁻, NO₃⁻, NO⁺

IV. NO⁺, NO₂⁻, NO₃⁻

a)

IV

b)

II

c)

III

d)

I

49.

The melting point of silicon dioxide is higher than silicon. What is the best explanation for this?

a)

Si-O bonds are stronger than Si-Si bonds.

b)

Silicon dioxide is polar while silicon is nonpolar.

c)

Silicon dioxide is an ionic solid while silicon is a metallic solid.

d)

Silicon dioxide forms tetragonal crystals while silicon forms cubic crystals.

50.

Which of the following molecules would exhibit the weakest interactive forces in solid form?

a)

Ca

b)

C

c)

SiC

d)

CO₂

51.

The increase in boiling points from F₂ to I₂ is the result of an increase in which of the following?

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bond strength

c)

Electron affinity

d)

Van der Waals forces

52.

Which of the following hydrogen molecules has the highest vibrational frequency?
H - hydrogen D - deuterium T - tritium

I. HD = HT

II. D2

III. H2
IV. T2

a)

I

b)

II

c)

IV

d)

III

53.

Which of the following molecules will exhibit a pure rotational absorption spectrum?

I. Cl2

II. HCl

III. CH4

IV. PF3

a)

I and III only

b)

II and IV only

c)

II only

d)

I and II only

54.

Which of the following molecules has the greatest bond energy?

a)

N2

b)

O2

c)

F2

d)

Cl2

55.

The bond in gas-phase O2 (121 pm) is significantly longer than the gas-phase O2+ (112 pm). What is the best explanation for this difference?

a)

O2 has one more antibonding electron than O2+

b)

O2 has two unpaired electrons while O2+ has one.

c)

The bond in O2 has less ionic character than the bond in O2+

d)

It requires more energy to remove an electron from O2 to form O2+ than it does to remove an electron from O to form O+.

56.

Nitric oxide, NO, has a smaller first ionization energy than either N atoms or O atoms. Which is the best explanation for this observation?

a)

The electron that is ionized in NO occupies an antibonding orbital.

b)

NO forms a strong bond, which lowers the ionization energy

c)

NO has a large dipole moment, which increases electron-electron repulsion.

d)

N atoms have a half-filled 2p subshell, while O is very electronegative.

57.

Which is the least important consideration in determining the strength of interaction between AOs on two atoms as they combine to form MOs?

a)

How close the atoms are to one another.

b)

How close in energy the orbitals are.

c)

What the orbitals' relative orientation is.

d)

Whether the orbitals have the same principal quantum number.

58.

Which is the best explanation for phosphorus favoring formation of P4 over P2 molecules, while nitrogen forms only N2 molecules?

a)

P-P π bonds are weaker than N-N π bonds.

b)

P can have an expanded octet while N cannot.

c)

The nonbonding electrons on P occupy an unhybridized s orbital while the nonbonding electrons on N occupy hybrid orbitals.

d)

The larger size of P allows the bonding electrons to be closer together.

59.

Calculate the number of vibrational modes of PF5.

a)

12

b)

10

c)

8

d)

6

60.

Identify the molecular orbital of BeH2.

a)

2SBe-(1SHA+1SHB)

b)

2P2Be+(1SHB -1SHB)

c)

2P2Be-(1SHA+1SHB)

d)

2SBE+(1SHA-1SHB)

61.

Determine the point group of naphthalene.

a)

C2v

b)

C2h

c)

D2h

d)

D2d

62.

Trans-1,2-dichloroethylene contains the following symmetry operations EXCEPT ______.

a)

C2

b)

i

c)

σh

d)

σv

63.

For the species below, which has the following identified correctly: Hybrid orbital used by the central atom, the principal rotation axis, and point group
I. SiF4 (sp3,C3,Td)
II. SF6(d2sp3,C4,Oh)

III. SO42-(sp3,C2,D3)

IV. BCl3(sp2,C3,C3v)

a)

Something

b)

I, II and III only

c)

II, III and IV only

d)

I and II only

64.

Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?

a)

H3BO3

b)

HClO

c)

H2S

d)

HClO4

65.

Which of the acids below has the most ionizable hydrogen atoms per molecule?

I. H3PO4
II. H3PO3
III. H3PO2

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

All the same number of ionizable H

66.

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

I. H2SO4 is more acidic than H2SeO4.

II. H2SeO4 is more acidic than H2SO4.

III. CH2ClCOOH is more acidic than CHCl2COOH.

IV. CH2ClCOOH is as acidic as CHCl2COOH.

a)

II and III

b)

II and IV

c)

I, II, and III

d)

II, III, and IV

67.

The strongest base in liquid ammonia is

a)

NH3

b)

NH2-

c)

NH4+

d)

OH

68.

When ferric oxide, Fe2O3, is dissolved in 6M HNO3, which iron-containing species predominates in solution?

a)

FeOH3

b)

FeOH4-

c)

Fe(H2O6)2+

d)

Fe(H2O6)3+

69.

The acidity of the Group 16 hydrides increases going down the group (H2O≪H2S

a)

The electronegativity of the Group 16 elements increases down a group.

b)

The polarizability of the Group 16 elements increases down a group.

c)

The polarity of the X-H bond increases down a group.

d)

The H-X-H angle increases down a group.

70.

Which cation will be most hydrated?

a)

Mg2+

b)

Na+

c)

Cs+

d)

Sr2+

71.

The oxide of which element is the most ionic?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

Si

d)

Al

72.

CsI is ______ soluble in H2O than CsF; LiF is ______ soluble than LiI.

a)

more; less

b)

more; more

c)

less; less

d)

less; more

73.

Of the following ionic substances, which has the greatest lattice enthalpy?

a)

MgO

b)

MgS

c)

NaF

d)

NaCl

74.

The solid-state structures of the principal allotropes of elemental boron are made up of which of the following structural units?

a)

B12 icosahedral

b)

B6 octahedra

c)

B4 tetrahedra

d)

B8 cubes

75.

What is the best explanation for why PCl5 is an ionic compound in the solid state?

a)

The significant difference between the electronegativities of P and Cl results in a greater ionic character in the P-Cl bond.

b)

PCl5 disproportionates to PCl4+ and PCl6- in the solid state.

c)

In the solid state, PCl5 is reduced to PCl6-.

d)

In the solid state, the chlorides in PCl5 are oriented in a configuration that results in a net negative charge.

76.

At 25°C and 1 atm, cesium is body-centered cubic. At the same temperature but at high pressure, cesium undergoes a phase transition to yield a structure much denser than body-centered cubic. Which of the following is likely the structure of cesium at high pressure?

a)

Primitive orthorhombic

b)

Primitive tetragonal

c)

Cubic close-packed

d)

Amorphous

77.

A portion of solid potassium is shown. What type of unit cell are the atoms arranged in?

a)

Primitive cubic

b)

Body-centered cubic

c)

Face-centered cubic

d)

Hexagonal closest packed

78.

A unit cell of a crystalline compound with the formula ABC3 is shown. What is the arrangement of nearest neighbors around C atoms?

a)

Linear arrangement of B atoms

b)

Square planar arrangement of A atoms

c)

Cubic arrangement of A atoms

d)

Cubic arrangement of C atoms

79.

What is the formula of the oxide whose unit cell is shown?

a)

Ce7O4

b)

CeO

c)

Ce2O3

d)

CeO2

80.

A mineral containing Cu and O has the cubic unit cell shown. What is its formula?

a)

Cu2O

b)

CuO

c)

Cu3O2

d)

Cu4O9

81.

A unit cell of the cubic form of ZnS is shown (large spheres = Zn, small spheres = S). How many of each type of atom are present in a unit cell?

a)

1 Zn, 1 S

b)

2 Zn, 4 S

c)

4 Zn, 4 S

d)

4 Zn, 14 S

82.

Nickel crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The edge of a unit cell has a length of 352 pm. What is the distance between the nuclei of two adjacent nickel atoms in this lattice?

a)

117 pm

b)

176 pm

c)

249 pm

d)

305 pm

83.

Thallium(I) bromide adopts the cubic unit cell shown with edge length a=397 pm. What is the density of TlBr?

a)

5.42 g/cm3

b)

7.55 g/cm3

c)

18.0 g/cm3

d)

22.4 g/cm3

84.

What is the name of this coordination compound? NH4​2​[NiC2​O4​2​H2​O2]

a)

Diamminediaquabis(oxalato)nickel(II)

b)

Ammonium diaquabis(oxalato)nickelate(II)

c)

Ammonium diaquadioxaldonickelate(II)

d)

Ammonium diaquabis(oxalato)nickelate(0)

85.

In the octahedral complex CoNH2​CH2​CO2​3​, each glycinate ion NH22​CH22​CO2−2−​ binds to Co through its N atom and one of its O atoms. How many stereoisomers of the complex are there?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

86.

The energy (J) required for an electronic transition in a Bohr hydrogen atom from n = 2 to n = 3 is ______ J. (RH = 2.180 x 10^-18 J)

a)

4.00 x 10 ^-19

b)

-3.00 x 10^-19

c)

3.00 x 10^-19

d)

-7.9 x 10^-19

87.

How many unpaired electrons are present in an octahedral t2g3eg2 configuration

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

88.

Which element is used to dope silicon to form p-type semiconductor

a)

Al

b)

As

c)

C

d)

Ga

89.

The term electrophile is an appropriate description for all of the following except

a)

NO2+

b)

BH3

c)

(CH3)3C+

d)

NH3

90.

The highest occupied molecular orbital (HOMO) for a carbon monoxide (CO) molecule is the

a)

1 π

b)

2π

c)

2σ

d)

3σ

91.

Which of the following complexes shows geometrical isomerism?

a)

[Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4

b)

[Co(NH3)5Cl)Cl2

c)

[Co(NH3)6]Cl3

d)

K[Co(NH3)2Cl4

92.

Low-spin [Ru(ox)3]3- has _____ unpaired electrons and a total spins, sT, of _____

a)

0,0

b)

1, 1/2

c)

3, 3/2

d)

4, 2

93.

All of the following are examples of hard acids except ______.

a)

H+

b)

BF3

c)

Na+

d)

Mg2+

94.

Which two molecules of M(L-L)x2y2 are identical
Basta drawing hin stereocentric nga M an butnga tas papalibutan hin X, L ngan Y

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

II and V

d)

IV and V

95.

Which of the two molecules in the previous number above are enantiomers (after han M (L-L) X2y2 nga question nga karan coordination compound)

a)

I and III

b)

II and IV

c)

II and V

d)

IV and V

96.

A weak-field, tetrahedral d0 complex will have a ∆T equal to ______

a)

-3/5∆T + 4π

b)

7/5∆T + 4π

c)

∆T + 4

d)

-2/5∆T + 4π

97.

For a given electron configuration, which of the following term symbols has the lowest energy?

a)

1S(1/2)

b)

3P1

c)

2D0

d)

1S0

98.

Of the series of chromium complexes, which one will have the largest ∆O

a)

[CrF6]3-

b)

[Cr(H2O)6]3+

c)

[Cr(en)3]3+

d)

[Cr(CN)6]3-

99.

A metal ion has a triplet multiplicity has a total spin of ____ and spin-only magnetic moment of ______

a)

1/2, 1.73

b)

1, 2.83

c)

2, 2.83

d)

3/2, 3.87

100.

A metal crystalizes with a face centered cubic lattice. The edge of the unit is cell is 409pm. The diameter of the metal atom is _____

a)

145pm

b)

205pm

c)

289pm

d)

409pm

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