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Interrelationships in Earth/Space Systems

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

what is at the center of our solar system?

a)

The Earth

b)

The Sun

c)

The Moon

d)

Jupiter

2.

Which of the following is NOT included in our solar system?

a)

Dwarf planets

b)

Asteroids

c)

Comets

d)

Black holes

3.

The Sun is the closest star to Earth. It is a giant, spinning ball of very hot gas that is fueled by ________ reactions.

a)

nuclear

b)

chemical

c)

mechanical

d)

electrical

4.

Which planet is described as a small, rocky planet with a very elliptical orbit and almost no atmosphere?

a)

Mercury

b)

Jupiter

c)

Neptune

d)

Venus

5.

Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system, with a dense atmosphere that is about 95% carbon dioxide.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

According to the diagram, which planet is located between Earth and Jupiter?

a)

Mars

b)

Venus

c)

Saturn

d)

Mercury

7.

How many moons does Earth have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

0

8.

What is the average surface temperature range of Earth?

a)

15°C – 20°C

b)

-87°C to -5°C

c)

-148°C

d)

-216°C

9.

Mars is known as the ______ planet because of its red color.

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

green

d)

yellow

10.

Which planet is about half the size of Earth and has a dry, rocky surface with a very thin atmosphere?

a)

Mars

b)

Jupiter

c)

Saturn

d)

Uranus

11.

Jupiter is the largest planet in our solar system.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Saturn is known for its ______ and colorful rings.

a)

bright

b)

dull

c)

faint

d)

invisible

13.

Which planet has the coldest average surface temperature out of the choices below?

a)

Uranus

b)

Neptune

c)

Saturn

d)

Mars

14.

Uranus' blue color is caused by the ______ in its atmosphere.

a)

methane

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

hydrogen

15.

Neptune is the ______ planet from the Sun.

a)

eighth

b)

fifth

c)

sixth

d)

seventh

16.

Which planet has strong winds due to the release of thermal energy from its core?

a)

Earth

b)

Mars

c)

Neptune

d)

Jupiter

17.

What is the surface temperature of Saturn?

a)

about -178°C

b)

about -216°C

c)

about -214°C

d)

15°C – 20°C

18.

What is a dwarf planet?

a)

A planet that is larger than Earth

b)

A planet that is smaller than Earth's moon and cannot exert much force on other objects

c)

A planet that is closer to the Sun than Earth

d)

A planet that has rings

19.

Which of the following statements about Pluto is true?

a)

Pluto is larger than Earth's moon

b)

Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet in 2006

c)

Pluto is closer to the Sun than Neptune

d)

Pluto has a strong gravitational pull

20.

A moon is a natural satellite that revolves around a planet.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Asteroids are rock fragments of various shapes and sizes that revolve around the Sun. Most asteroids are found in a region called the _______ belt, between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

a)

asteroid

b)

comet

c)

Kuiper

d)

meteor

22.

When a meteoroid enters Earth's atmosphere and burns up, it is called a _______.

a)

meteor

b)

asteroid

c)

comet

d)

planet

23.

A comet is a small object that orbits the Sun in a highly elliptical path and is made up of ______, gas, and dust.

a)

ice

b)

rock

c)

metal

d)

plasma

24.

The Sun's mass is ______ times greater than the mass of the Earth.

a)

3,300

b)

33,000

c)

330,000

d)

3,300,000

25.

The time it takes a planet to travel once around the Sun is called a _______.

a)

revolution

b)

rotation

c)

orbit

d)

cycle

26.

The imaginary rod extending through Earth between the North Pole and the South Pole is called the _______.

a)

axis of rotation

b)

equator

c)

prime meridian

d)

tropic of Cancer

27.

As Earth spins on its axis, half of Earth is always facing toward the Sun and experiences _______.

a)

daylight

b)

nighttime

c)

sunset

d)

moonlight

28.

Each rotation (day) of Earth takes about how many hours?

a)

12 hours

b)

16.1 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

365 hours

29.

Each planet and moon have a different length of time for one rotation. For instance, on Neptune one rotation (one day) takes ______ Earth hours.

a)

16.1

b)

9.8

c)

24.6

d)

10.7

30.

Refer to the diagram showing Earth's axis and Sun's rays. What does the diagram illustrate?

a)

Earth's revolution around the Sun

b)

Earth's axis of rotation and how it causes day and night

c)

The asteroid belt

d)

The orbit of a comet

31.

The phases of the moon are caused by the moon’s position relative to Earth and the Sun. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the moon?

a)

The moon produces its own light.

b)

The moon takes about 29.5 days to revolve around Earth.

c)

The far side of the moon is always visible from Earth.

d)

The moon does not rotate on its axis.

32.

The moon completes one rotation in the same amount of time it takes to orbit Earth once, so the same side of the moon always faces _______.

a)

Earth

b)

the Sun

c)

Mars

d)

the stars

33.

Which phase of the moon appears dark from Earth and is not visible in the night sky?

a)

New Moon

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waxing Half

34.

During which moon phase does a thin sliver of light appear on the right side of the moon’s disk as seen from Earth?

a)

New Moon

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waxing Half

35.

When the right half of the moon’s face is illuminated, what is this phase called?

a)

New Moon

b)

Waxing Crescent

c)

Waxing Half (First Quarter)

36.

At full moon, the moon is on the _______ side of Earth from the Sun, and the side of the moon facing Earth is completely illuminated by the Sun.

a)

opposite

b)

same

c)

left

d)

right

37.

Which moon phase occurs when more than half of the moon’s face is illuminated and the sunlit portion gets larger until it is fully illuminated?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Full Moon

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waning Crescent

38.

During which moon phase are the Earth, moon, and Sun aligned so that the full sunlit portion of the moon’s face is visible from Earth?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Full Moon

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Waning Half

39.

Fill in the blank: During the waning gibbous phase, the portion of the moon that is lit becomes (a)  

40.

What is another name for the Waning Half moon phase?

a)

Last quarter moon or halfmoon

b)

First quarter moon

c)

New moon

d)

Full moon

41.

Which moon phase begins when less than half of the moon’s face is illuminated and the portion that is lit will grow smaller until the moon is no longer visible?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

Full Moon

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waning Gibbous

42.

The cause of seasonal changes on Earth is the tilt of Earth's axis (23.5°) and the revolution of Earth around the Sun. True or False: The axis always points in the same direction, almost directly toward the North Star, while Earth orbits the Sun.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What is the main reason the Northern Hemisphere experiences summer?

a)

The Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun part of the year.

b)

The Earth is closer to the Sun during summer.

c)

The Sun moves closer to the Northern Hemisphere in summer.

d)

The Northern Hemisphere spins faster during summer.

44.

The cause of seasonal changes on Earth is the tilt of Earth's axis (23.5°) and the revolution of Earth around the Sun. True or False: The seasons are determined by Earth's distance from the Sun.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

What causes tides on Earth?

a)

The gravitational interaction between the Earth, moon, and Sun.

b)

The rotation of the Earth on its axis.

c)

The Earth's distance from the Sun changes daily.

d)

Winds blowing across the surface of the ocean.

46.

Tides are the periodic rise and falling of large bodies of water. True or False: The moon has more influence on Earth's tides than the Sun because it is closer to Earth.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What happens to the ocean level between the tidal bulges?

a)

The ocean level is lowest between the tidal bulges, producing low tides.

b)

The ocean level is highest between the tidal bulges, producing high tides.

c)

The ocean level remains unchanged between the tidal bulges.

d)

The ocean level rises rapidly between the tidal bulges.

48.

How long does it take for the water level to change from high to low tide?

a)

About 6.25 hours.

b)

About 12 hours.

c)

About 24 hours.

d)

About 3 hours.

49.

Who was the Greek philosopher who believed in an Earth-centered (geocentric) solar system and whose ideas lasted almost 2,000 years?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Galileo

c)

Aristotle

d)

Ptolemy

50.

Who was the first person to look at the moon through a telescope and discovered four of Jupiter's moons?

a)

Copernicus

b)

Galileo

c)

Aristotle

d)

Ptolemy

51.

Fill in the blank: The idea that 'scientific ideas about the universe are durable yet subject to change as new data become available' illustrates the (a)   of science.

52.

In what year was the first satellite, Sputnik, launched?

a)

1957

b)

1961

c)

1945

d)

1969

53.

Who was the first man in space?

a)

Russian, Gagarin

b)

American, Armstrong

c)

Russian, Tereshkova

d)

American, Glenn

54.

Which country achieved the first manned orbital mission of the USA, and who was the astronaut?

a)

USA, Glenn

b)

Russia, Gagarin

c)

USA, Armstrong

d)

China, Yang

55.

Who was the first man to walk on the moon?

a)

Armstrong

b)

Aldrin

c)

Collins

d)

Gagarin

56.

What is the name of the telescope that went into orbit in 1990?

a)

Hubble telescope

b)

Kepler telescope

c)

James Webb telescope

d)

Spitzer telescope

57.

What is a thunderstorm?

a)

A large, severe tropical storm lasting over a week

b)

The most violent type of storm with funnel-shaped clouds

c)

A storm of short duration that produces lightning, heavy rain, strong winds, hail, and sometimes tornadoes

d)

A snowstorm with high winds

58.

What are the conditions needed for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a)

Moisture, unstable air, and lift

b)

Low-pressure system over warm ocean water

c)

Rapid rotation of updrafts

d)

Cold, dry air

59.

Where and when are thunderstorms most likely to occur? With the right conditions, thunderstorms can form anywhere. They are most likely to happen in ______ and ______ late in the day.

a)

spring and summer

b)

fall and winter

c)

morning and afternoon

d)

autumn and early winter

60.

What is a hurricane?

a)

A storm of short duration

b)

A large, severe tropical storm lasting over a week, spinning around an 'eye' with high winds and flooding rains

c)

The most violent type of storm with funnel-shaped clouds

d)

A snowstorm with high winds

61.

What are the conditions needed for the formation of a hurricane?

a)

Moisture, unstable air, and lift

b)

A low-pressure system over warm ocean water, convection, and the Coriolis effect

c)

Rapid rotation of updrafts

d)

Cold, dry air

62.

Where do hurricanes form and what causes them to weaken? Hurricanes form over ______ and weaken over land when they no longer gain thermal energy from ______.

a)

warm ocean water; warm waters

b)

cold ocean water; cold winds

c)

mountain ranges; dry air

d)

deserts; sand

63.

What is a tornado?

a)

A large, severe tropical storm

b)

The most violent type of storm, with rotating, funnel-shaped clouds that extend from the base of a storm cloud to the ground

c)

A storm of short duration

d)

A snowstorm with high winds

64.

What are the conditions needed for the formation of a tornado?

a)

Moisture, unstable air, and lift

b)

A low-pressure system over warm ocean water

c)

Associated with severe thunderstorms and rapid rotation of updrafts within a thunderstorm

d)

Cold, dry air

65.

When and where do tornadoes most often occur? Tornadoes occur at any time of year and just about anywhere in the world where there are ______ over land. Many occur in the stormy spring when warm and cold air masses collide.

a)

thunderstorms

b)

earthquakes

c)

volcanoes

d)

hurricanes

66.

Which of the following best describes cirrus clouds?

a)

Low-level clouds that form a layer or sheet and often produce light rain or drizzle.

b)

High-level clouds made of ice crystals with a feathery, wispy appearance that usually predict fair weather until they thicken.

c)

Individual, puffy, white clouds with flat bases seen on dry, sunny days.

67.

Cumulus clouds are individual, puffy, white clouds with fairly flat bases. They are often seen on ______ days.

a)

dry, sunny

b)

rainy, stormy

c)

foggy, cold

d)

windy, cloudy

68.

Stratus clouds can sometimes cover the entire sky and are found at ______ levels in the atmosphere.

a)

low

b)

high

c)

middle

d)

upper

69.

Refer to the diagram of cloud types and their altitudes. Which cloud type is found at the highest altitude?

a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Cumulonimbus

70.

What does the term 'nimbus' indicate when used in a cloud name?

a)

The cloud is high-level

b)

The cloud is low-level

c)

Rain or snow is falling from the cloud

d)

The cloud is puffy

71.

Cumulonimbus clouds are the classic thunderheads with a flat base and anvil top. They may predict which of the following?

a)

Fair weather

b)

Thunderstorms, lightning, rain, hail, flash floods, and tornadoes

c)

Light rain or drizzle

d)

Snow only

72.

Drought occurs when there is a prolonged period of ______ average precipitation.

a)

below

b)

above

c)

normal

d)

excess

73.

What does a low-pressure system (labeled 'L' on a weather map) usually indicate?

a)

Calm and sunny weather

b)

Strong winds and heavy rain

c)

High air pressure

d)

No precipitation

74.

In the Northern Hemisphere, air flows in which direction around a low-pressure area?

a)

Clockwise

b)

Counterclockwise

75.

A high-pressure system (labeled 'H' on a weather map) usually means there will be ________ days and calm weather, with little or no precipitation.

a)

sunny

b)

stormy

c)

cloudy

d)

rainy