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RAD 205 Ch. 7 Review

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Early tissue reactions are also known as:

a)

Stochastic effects

b)

Deterministic effects

c)

Somatic effects

d)

Genetic effects

2.

Deterministic effects typically occur when:

a)

Any dose is received

b)

Low doses accumulate

c)

A threshold dose is exceeded

d)

Indirect DNA damage occurs

3.

Which characteristic defines a deterministic effect?

a)

Random occurrence

b)

Severity increases with dose

c)

No threshold exists

d)

Long latent period

4.

What is a common example of a deterministic effect?

a)

Cancer

b)

Genetic mutation

c)

Skin erythema

d)

Leukemia

5.

Which of the following is an early tissue reaction?

a)

Cataracts

b)

Cancer

c)

Epilation

d)

Genetic damage

6.

The severity of early tissue reactions:

a)

Is independent of dose

b)

Decreases with increased dose

c)

Increases as dose increases

d)

Is random

7.

What term describes hair loss due to radiation exposure?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Epilation

8.

What radiation exposure can result in early tissue reactions?

a)

Low-dose dental x-rays

b)

Repeated small exposures

c)

High-dose, whole-body exposure

d)

Background radiation

9.

Which organ system is most sensitive to radiation?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Nervous

c)

Hematopoietic

d)

Muscular

10.

Skin erythema usually appears at what radiation dose?

a)

0.1 Gy

b)

0.5 Gy

c)

2.0 Gy

d)

10 Gy

11.

Temporary hair loss (epilation) begins at approximately:

a)

0.25 Gy

b)

2 Gy

c)

3.5 Gy

d)

5.0 Gy

12.

Permanent epilation generally occurs at doses of:

a)

1 Gy

b)

2 Gy

c)

7 Gy

d)

0.5 Gy

13.

Which type of radiation effect shows a threshold and increases in severity with dose?

a)

Stochastic

b)

Genetic

c)

Early tissue reaction

d)

Teratogenic

14.

What determines the likelihood and severity of tissue reactions?

a)

LET only

b)

Duration only

c)

Total radiation dose and time

d)

Type of scanner

15.

Which is more sensitive to radiation: bone or intestinal lining?

a)

Bone

b)

Intestinal lining

c)

Cartilage

d)

Ligaments

16.

Cell division rate and maturity influence:

a)

LET

b)

Radiosensitivity

c)

RBE

d)

Cancer risk only

17.

Skin effects from fluoroscopic procedures are most likely due to:

a)

Leakage radiation

b)

Direct beam exposure

c)

Scatter from the room

d)

Light exposure

18.

Radiation-induced skin injury is more common during:

a)

CT of the head

b)

Chest x-ray

c)

Interventional fluoroscopy

d)

Dental imaging

19.

Acute Radiation Syndrome occurs after what type of exposure?

a)

Fractionated

b)

Chronic

c)

Whole-body, high dose

d)

Natural background

20.

What is the minimum whole-body dose for ARS?

a)

0.1 Gy

b)

1 Gy

c)

5 Gy

d)

10 Gy

21.

Which ARS stage occurs immediately after exposure?

a)

Prodromal

b)

Latent

c)

Manifest illness

d)

Recovery

22.

What symptoms occur during the prodromal stage?

a)

Skin burns

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Bone marrow suppression

d)

Hair loss

23.

What follows the prodromal stage?

a)

Death

b)

Manifest illness

c)

Latent period

d)

Incubation

24.

During the latent period, the person:

a)

Gets sicker

b)

Appears to recover

c)

Experiences hair loss

d)

Has blood cell changes

25.

The third stage of ARS is called:

a)

Latent

b)

Chronic

c)

Manifest illness

d)

Recovery

26.

Which is not a major ARS syndrome?

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Cardiovascular

d)

Pulmonary

27.

Which ARS syndrome occurs at 1–10 Gy?

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Cerebrovascular

d)

Integumentary

28.

Which ARS syndrome is most likely at 6–10 Gy?

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Cerebrovascular

d)

Respiratory

29.

The hematopoietic syndrome primarily affects the:

a)

Skin

b)

Brain

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Lungs

30.

What is the average survival time for untreated hematopoietic syndrome?

a)

Few hours

b)

Few days

c)

6–8 weeks

d)

1 year

31.

Which system fails during the gastrointestinal syndrome?

a)

CNS

b)

Liver

c)

Intestinal lining

d)

Lymphatic

32.

Gastrointestinal syndrome results in death within:

a)

1–2 days

b)

3–10 days

c)

2–3 weeks

d)

1 month

33.

Which ARS syndrome occurs above 50 Gy?

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Cerebrovascular

d)

Respiratory

34.

What symptoms are common with cerebrovascular syndrome?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Vision loss

c)

Confusion and convulsions

d)

Vomiting only

35.

Death from cerebrovascular syndrome occurs within:

a)

Minutes

b)

Hours to 3 days

c)

2–4 weeks

d)

Months

36.

Whole-body dose causing 100% death without treatment:

a)

1 Gy

b)

3.5 Gy

c)

6–10 Gy

d)

0.5 Gy

37.

Which ARS syndrome affects the fastest-dividing cells?

a)

Gastrointestinal

b)

Hematopoietic

c)

Cerebrovascular

d)

Renal

38.

Cells most affected in ARS are:

a)

Mature neurons

b)

Rapidly dividing cells

c)

Cartilage cells

d)

Adipose cells

39.

Radiation doses used in diagnostic imaging are:

a)

High enough to cause ARS

b)

Too low to cause deterministic effects

c)

Likely to induce death

d)

Equal to therapeutic levels

40.

Which diagnostic procedure has the highest skin dose potential?

a)

MRI

b)

Dental x-ray

c)

Fluoroscopy

d)

Chest x-ray

41.

A deterministic effect seen in radiation therapy patients is:

a)

Cancer

b)

Genetic mutation

c)

Skin ulceration

d)

Cataracts

42.

The concept of dose threshold helps predict:

a)

Stochastic risks

b)

When early effects may occur

c)

LET levels

d)

Bone aging

43.

Which factor reduces risk of deterministic effects during imaging?

a)

Higher mA

b)

Decreased beam filtration

c)

Shorter exposure time

d)

Removing shielding

44.

Radiation burns are usually caused by:

a)

Diagnostic x-rays

b)

Background radiation

c)

Prolonged interventional procedures

d)

Routine CT scans

45.

Who is most vulnerable to early tissue reactions?

a)

Middle-aged adults

b)

Young children

c)

Elderly patients

d)

Males only

46.

Fractionation of dose refers to:

a)

One-time high dose

b)

Splitting dose over time

c)

Doubling the dose

d)

Random exposure

47.

Early tissue reactions are best prevented by:

a)

Lowering image resolution

b)

Increasing patient exposure

c)

Adhering to ALARA principles

d)

Repeating exams frequently

48.

The LD 50/30 for humans is approximately:

a)

1 Gy

b)

3.5 Gy

c)

6.0 Gy

d)

10 Gy

49.

A dose-response curve for early tissue reactions is typically:

a)

Linear non-threshold

b)

Linear threshold

c)

Non-linear non-threshold

d)

Exponential

50.

Early effects are common in diagnostic imaging

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Somatic effects are effects upon future generations

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Genetic effects are effects upon future generations

a)

True

b)

False

53.

What are the classifications of somatic effects? (Select all that apply)

a)

Developing

b)

Late

c)

Established

d)

Early

54.

Deterministic effects are: (Select all that apply)

a)

Direct dose relation

b)

Do not have a threshold

c)

Have a threshold

d)

Amount of biologic response is not dependent on absorbed dose

55.

What are the three separate dose related syndromes?

(a)  

56.

What is the threshold dose for Hematopoietic syndrome?

a)

1 Gyt

b)

1 - 5 Gyt

c)

1 -10 Gyt

d)

5 - 10 Gyt

57.

What is the threshold dose for Gastrointestinal syndrome?

a)

2 - 3 Gyt

b)

6 Gyt

c)

6 - 10 Gyt

d)

1 - 10 Gyt

58.

What is the threshold dose for Cerebrovascular syndrome?

a)

10 Gyt

b)

20 Gyt

c)

30 Gyt

d)

50 Gyt

59.

ARS presents in how many response stages?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

60.

LD is expressed:

a)

LD 50/30

b)

LD 50/60

c)

LD 100/60

d)

LD 100/50

61.

When referring to humans, LD is best expressed:

a)

LD 50/30

b)

LD 50/60

c)

LD 50/90

d)

LD 100/60

62.

Estimated LD for humans is:

a)

1 - 2 Gyt

b)

3 - 4 Gyt

c)

6 - 8 Gyt

d)

8 -10 Gyt

63.

Repeated radiation injuries do not have a cumulative effect

a)

True

b)

False

64.

What percent of radiation damage is irreparable?

(a)