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Part 107 NAS Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the acronym NAS stand for in aviation?

a)

National Airspace System

b)

National Aeronautics Society

c)

National Aviation Service

d)

National Aircraft System

2.

Which classes of airspace are considered controlled airspace?

a)

Class A, B, C, D, and E

b)

Class G only

c)

Class F and G

d)

Class B, D, and G

3.

What is the primary purpose of the Chart Supplement U.S.?

a)

To provide key information about airports, seaplane bases, heliports, and navigational facilities

b)

To list all aircraft manufacturers

c)

To provide weather forecasts

d)

To display only military airspace

4.

Which type of airspace is Class G airspace referred to as?

a)

Uncontrolled airspace

b)

Controlled airspace

c)

Restricted airspace

d)

Prohibited airspace

5.

Why is it necessary for a remote PIC to check NOTAMs before each flight?

a)

To determine if there are any applicable airspace restrictions

b)

To check the weather forecast

c)

To find out about new aircraft models

d)

To review pilot training schedules

6.

What is the scale of the Sectional Aeronautical Chart most commonly used by manned pilots?

a)

1:500,000

b)

1:250,000

c)

1:100,000

d)

1:1,000,000

7.

How often is the Chart Supplement U.S. reissued in its entirety?

a)

Every 56 days

b)

Every 30 days

c)

Every 12 months

d)

Every 7 days

8.

What is the main difference between the Sectional Aeronautical Chart and the Terminal Area Chart (TAC)?

a)

TAC shows more significant detail but has smaller area coverage

b)

Sectional Chart is only for military use

c)

TAC is only for international flights

d)

Sectional Chart is not updated regularly

9.

Which of the following is NOT a category of NOTAM information?

a)

Weather NOTAMs

b)

NOTAM (D) or distant

c)

Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs

d)

Special Activity Airspace (SAA) NOTAMs

10.

Which type of NOTAM is issued by the National Flight Data Center (NFDC) and contains regulatory information such as temporary flight restrictions?

a)

Military NOTAM

b)

FDC NOTAM

c)

Pointer NOTAM

d)

SAA NOTAM

11.

What is the main purpose of a Pointer NOTAM?

a)

To designate temporary flight restrictions

b)

To highlight or point out another NOTAM

c)

To provide weather reports

d)

To issue military airspace information

12.

Which of the following is NOT a common type of Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) related to sUAS operations?

a)

Presidential TFRs

b)

Emergency response TFRs

c)

Standing TFRs for sporting events

d)

Commercial airline TFRs

13.

Where can TFRs also be found online?

a)

faa.gov

b)

tfr.faa.gov

c)

aim.faa.gov

d)

notam.faa.gov

14.

What is the purpose of Advisory Circulars (ACs) issued by the FAA?

a)

To provide regulatory requirements

b)

To inform the aviation community of non-regulatory material of interest

c)

To issue temporary flight restrictions

d)

To publish NOTAMs

15.

Why is it important for sUAS remote PICs to be aware of the type of airspace in which they will be operating?

a)

To avoid weather changes

b)

To ensure compliance with airspace restrictions

c)

To increase flight speed

d)

To reduce fuel consumption

16.

Which publication is the official guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures, issued yearly with ongoing revisions?

a)

AC

b)

AIM

c)

NOTAM

d)

TFR

17.

If a remote PIC is planning a flight near a stadium during a major sporting event, which type of NOTAM or TFR should they check for?

a)

Presidential TFR

b)

Emergency response TFR

c)

Standing TFR

d)

Military NOTAM

18.

A remote PIC is preparing for a flight and finds both a Pointer NOTAM and an FDC NOTAM for the area. How should the PIC use this information to ensure a safe and legal flight?

a)

Ignore both NOTAMs as they are not relevant

b)

Only check the FDC NOTAM for restrictions

c)

Use the Pointer NOTAM to find additional relevant NOTAMs and review the FDC NOTAM for regulatory restrictions

d)

Only check the Pointer NOTAM for information

19.

Which classes of airspace are considered controlled airspace where sUAS operations require prior authorization from ATC?

a)

Class B, Class C, and Class D only

b)

Class G and Class E only

c)

Class B, Class C, Class D, and within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E designated for an airport

d)

Class F and Class G only

20.

What must a remote PIC do before operating a sUAS in controlled airspace?

a)

Obtain prior authorization from ATC

b)

Notify local law enforcement

c)

File a flight plan with the FAA

d)

Request permission from the airport manager

21.

According to the text, what is the primary reason for the FAA to approve or deny aircraft operations in controlled airspace?

a)

The type of sUAS being used

b)

The operational parameters and potential impact on the safe and expeditious flow of air traffic

c)

The weather conditions

d)

The time of day

22.

How are the lateral limits and floors of Class E airspace of 700 feet defined on a Sectional Chart?

a)

By a green vignette

b)

By a magenta vignette (shading)

c)

By a red dashed line

d)

By a yellow border

23.

Why is it important for a remote PIC to refer to current aeronautical charts and navigation tools before sUAS operations?

a)

To determine the weather forecast

b)

To determine position and related airspace

c)

To find the nearest gas station

d)

To check for wildlife in the area

24.

A remote PIC is planning to operate a sUAS in Class G airspace. What is required before conducting the operation?

a)

Prior authorization from ATC

b)

No further permission or authorization is required

c)

Filing a flight plan with the FAA

d)

Approval from the local government

25.

If the floor of controlled airspace is other than 700 feet or 1,200 feet, how is it indicated on a Sectional Chart?

a)

By a blue vignette

b)

By a number indicating the floor

c)

By a red circle

d)

By a green dashed line

26.

Which class of airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level (FL) 600 (60,000 feet)?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

27.

What is required before operating within Class B airspace?

a)

ATC clearance

b)

No clearance required

c)

Only a radio call

d)

Visual flight rules only

28.

On aeronautical charts, how is Class B airspace depicted?

a)

Outlined in blue with delimiting arcs, radials, and altitudes

b)

Outlined in red with dashed lines

c)

Outlined in green with solid lines

d)

Outlined in black with dotted lines

29.

Which of the following statements best describes the structure of Class C airspace?

a)

Two circles centered on the primary airport, with an inner area of 5 NM radius and an outer shelf of 10 NM radius

b)

A single cylinder extending from the surface to 18,000 feet

c)

A rectangular area extending 20 NM from the airport

d)

A triangular area with no vertical limits

30.

Why might some large, busy airports designated as Class B Primary airports require a pilot to hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate?

a)

Due to additional operating requirements or limitations

b)

Because of the lack of ATC services

c)

To allow for glider operations

d)

To reduce noise pollution

31.

If a pilot is flying in the outer area of Class C airspace, what is encouraged but not required?

a)

Participation in two-way radio communication with ATC

b)

Filing a flight plan

c)

Flying above 10,000 feet

d)

Using only visual navigation

32.

What is the typical vertical extent of Class D airspace above ground level (AGL)?

a)

Up to 2,500 feet AGL

b)

Up to 14,500 feet AGL

c)

Up to 700 feet AGL

d)

Up to 60,000 feet AGL

33.

Which color is used on Sectional Charts to identify Class E airspace starting at 700 feet AGL?

a)

Blue shading

b)

Magenta shading

c)

Green shading

d)

Red shading

34.

What distinguishes Class G airspace from other classes of airspace?

a)

It is controlled by ATC at all times

b)

It has no ATC authority or responsibility for air traffic control

c)

It is only used for military operations

d)

It requires a transponder at all times

35.

Why might entry into a Restricted Area be hazardous to aircraft and occupants?

a)

Due to high commercial air traffic

b)

Due to the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards such as artillery firing or guided missiles

c)

Due to frequent weather changes

d)

Due to low visibility only

36.

What is the primary purpose of Military Operations Areas (MOAs)?

a)

To separate commercial flights from private flights

b)

To separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic

c)

To provide airspace for agricultural aviation

d)

To restrict all civilian flights

37.

A pilot is flying through an Alert Area. What should they be particularly aware of?

a)

High volume of pilot training activities or unusual aerial activity

b)

Severe weather conditions

c)

High mountain terrain

d)

International border crossing

38.

If a pilot wants to enter a Restricted Area, what must they do according to regulations?

a)

Enter without any permission

b)

Obtain authorization from the using or controlling agency

c)

Only notify ATC after entering

d)

File a flight plan only

39.

Which of the following is true about Prohibited Areas?

a)

Aircraft may enter with ATC clearance

b)

Flight of aircraft is prohibited within these areas

c)

Only military aircraft are prohibited

d)

Only helicopters are allowed

40.

How is a Class E airway depicted on a sectional chart?

a)

By a magenta dashed line

b)

By a blue dashed line

c)

By a centerline, shown in blue

d)

By a green solid line

41.

What is a key difference between Warning Areas and Restricted Areas?

a)

Warning Areas are only over land

b)

Warning Areas are located in international airspace, while Restricted Areas are not

c)

Restricted Areas are always open to civilian traffic

d)

Warning Areas have no hazards

42.

What is the primary purpose of Military Training Routes (MTRs)?

a)

To conduct low-altitude, high-speed military training

b)

To provide commercial airline routes

c)

To designate international airspace boundaries

d)

To mark areas for agricultural aviation

43.

Which of the following best describes how IFR Military Training Route (IR) operations are conducted?

a)

In accordance with instrument flight rules, regardless of weather conditions

b)

Only during clear weather conditions

c)

With visual flight rules only

d)

At altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL

44.

How are VFR Military Training Routes (VR) at and below 1,500 feet AGL identified?

a)

By four digit numbers

b)

By three digit numbers

c)

By color codes

d)

By airport codes

45.

According to Advisory Circular 91-36, what is the minimum distance aircraft are requested to remain above the surface of National Parks and similar areas?

a)

2,000 feet

b)

1,000 feet

c)

500 feet

d)

3,000 feet

46.

Which of the following is NOT considered a noise-sensitive area as defined by Advisory Circular 91-36?

a)

Urban city centers

b)

National Parks

c)

National Monuments

d)

National Wildlife Refuges

47.

What is the function of a Local Airport Advisory (LAA) service?

a)

To provide advisory service at airports using a discrete ground-to-air frequency or the tower frequency when the tower is closed

b)

To control all air traffic in the region

c)

To provide weather forecasts for pilots only

d)

To issue pilot licenses

48.

When is ATC authorization required for remote pilots?

a)

At or near an airport with a control tower and/or when operating within controlled airspace

b)

Only when flying above 10,000 feet

c)

When flying over water bodies

d)

When operating in rural areas

49.

What should remote pilots do when ATC authorization is not required?

a)

Monitor the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) of any nearby airport(s)

b)

Ignore all communications

c)

Contact the Department of Defense

d)

Only fly during daylight hours

50.

Why is it important for remote pilots to contact the appropriate ATC facility as soon as possible prior to any operation in Class B, C, and D airspace?

a)

Because approval depends on traffic density, controller workload, and safety issues

b)

Because it is required for all types of airspace

c)

Because it is only necessary for international flights

d)

Because it guarantees immediate approval

51.

A remote pilot is planning to operate near a National Wildlife Refuge at 1,800 feet AGL. What considerations should the pilot take into account based on the provided information?

a)

The pilot should remain at least 2,000 feet above the surface and be aware of the lateral boundaries of the area to minimize noise impact.

b)

The pilot can fly at any altitude as long as the weather is clear.

c)

The pilot only needs to contact the local airport advisory service.

d)

The pilot should only be concerned with visual flight rules.

52.

What is the name of the imaginary circle that is equidistant from the poles and runs around the earth?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

Longitude

d)

Tropic of Cancer

53.

Which lines run east and west, parallel to the equator, and are used to measure angular distance north or south of the equator?

a)

Meridians of longitude

b)

Parallels of latitude

c)

Prime meridians

d)

Contour lines

54.

What is the angular distance from the equator to either pole?

a)

45°

b)

60°

c)

90°

d)

180°

55.

Where does the prime meridian pass through?

a)

Paris, France

b)

New York, USA

c)

Greenwich, England

d)

Tokyo, Japan

56.

How are measurements made from the prime meridian?

a)

Only easterly up to 90°

b)

Only westerly up to 90°

c)

Both easterly and westerly up to 180°

d)

Both easterly and westerly up to 90°

57.

A location is given as 39°N 77°W. What does the 'N' and 'W' indicate in this coordinate?

a)

North latitude and West longitude

b)

North longitude and West latitude

c)

North latitude and West latitude

d)

North longitude and West longitude

58.

What is a Sectional Chart used for?

a)

To measure temperature changes

b)

To show topographical information of a portion of the Earth's surface

c)

To calculate time zones

d)

To display ocean currents

59.

Why should remote pilots become familiar with Sectional Chart Legends?

a)

To understand weather patterns

b)

To interpret all topographical information and symbols on the chart

c)

To calculate distances between cities

d)

To find population data

60.

What does the diagram in Figure 2-2 illustrate?

a)

The distribution of continents

b)

Meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude

c)

The Earth's magnetic field

d)

Ocean currents

61.

How is each degree (°) further subdivided to describe a location more precisely?

a)

Into 100 minutes and 100 seconds

b)

Into 60 minutes and 60 seconds

c)

Into 10 minutes and 10 seconds

d)

Into 30 minutes and 30 seconds

62.

What must a remote PIC do when operating in the vicinity of an airport?

a)

Ignore all other aircraft

b)

Yield right-of-way to all other aircraft

c)

Only follow the runway lights

d)

Land immediately

63.

Which of the following is a source for airport data that remote PICs should consult?

a)

The Weather Channel

b)

The Chart Supplement U.S.

c)

The local newspaper

d)

The airport gift shop

64.

Why are ATC towers established at airports?

a)

To provide food services to pilots

b)

To promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic

c)

To sell tickets to passengers

d)

To manage airport parking lots

65.

A small unmanned aircraft (sUA) hovering 200 feet above a runway may cause which of the following?

a)

Faster takeoff for manned aircraft

b)

Delay in takeoff or landing for manned aircraft

c)

No effect on airport operations

d)

Increased fuel efficiency for manned aircraft

66.

What is the main reason remote PICs are prohibited from operating their sUA in a manner that interferes with airport traffic patterns?

a)

It increases airport revenue

b)

It may present a potential conflict or affect the safe outcome of a flight

c)

It makes the airport busier

d)

It helps pilots practice emergency procedures

67.

If a remote PIC observes a manned aircraft on the downwind leg of the traffic pattern, what should the remote PIC do?

a)

Ignore the manned aircraft

b)

Yield right-of-way and avoid interfering with the traffic pattern

c)

Attempt to land before the manned aircraft

d)

Request priority from ATC

68.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of legs in a standard manned aircraft traffic pattern as shown in the diagram?

a)

Upwind Leg, Crosswind Leg, Downwind Leg, Base Leg, Final

b)

Downwind Leg, Upwind Leg, Base Leg, Crosswind Leg, Final

c)

Crosswind Leg, Downwind Leg, Base Leg, Upwind Leg, Final

d)

Base Leg, Downwind Leg, Upwind Leg, Crosswind Leg, Final

69.

According to the text, what should remote PICs do to avoid interfering with manned aircraft operations in a traffic pattern?

a)

Operate in the traffic pattern at all times

b)

Avoid operating in the traffic pattern or published approach corridors used by manned aircraft

c)

Fly at higher altitudes than manned aircraft

d)

Ignore the presence of manned aircraft

70.

What is the main reason the FAA may approve or deny aircraft operations near airports?

a)

To increase the number of flights

b)

To reduce fuel consumption

c)

To ensure safe and expeditious flow of air traffic

d)

To promote private aviation

71.

When is ATC authorization required for remote PICs operating near airports?

a)

Only when flying at night

b)

When operating at or near an airport with a control tower and/or within controlled airspace

c)

When flying below 400 feet

d)

Only during emergency situations

72.

Why is it advisable for remote PICs to announce their sUAS activity on the CTAF when ATC authorization is not required?

a)

To avoid paying fees

b)

To make manned pilots aware of such operations for safety

c)

To increase air traffic

d)

To request weather updates

73.

What is a Letter of Agreement (LOA) used for in the context of sUAS operations?

a)

To purchase new aircraft

b)

To establish prior authorization for recurring or long-term operations with the controlling ATC facility

c)

To request weather information

d)

To report lost drones

74.

What does SIDA stand for in the context of airport security?

a)

Security Identification Display Area

b)

Special Identification Display Area

c)

Security Identification Designated Area

d)

Special Identification Designated Area

75.

Which of the following is required for individuals in a Security Identification Display Area (SIDA)?

a)

Display an airport-issued or approved identification

b)

Wear a reflective vest at all times

c)

Carry a pilot’s license

d)

Submit a flight plan

76.

How are runway numbers determined at airports?

a)

By rounding the magnetic heading of the runway to the nearest 10°

b)

By the length of the runway in meters

c)

By the number of flights per day

d)

By the airport’s elevation above sea level

77.

If a runway has a magnetic azimuth of 076°, what would its runway number be?

a)

8

b)

7

c)

18

d)

76

78.

Why might a runway have a letter such as L, R, or C after its number?

a)

To differentiate between left, right, or center runways facing the same direction

b)

To indicate the length of the runway

c)

To show the runway’s surface type

d)

To identify the airport’s location

79.

A remote pilot should be familiar with airport markings and signs primarily to:

a)

Exercise vigilant collision avoidance and not interfere with manned aircraft operations

b)

Increase the speed of their aircraft

c)

Reduce fuel consumption

d)

Improve communication with air traffic control

80.

Suppose a runway is facing an azimuth of 183°. What would be its runway number?

a)

18

b)

19

c)

8

d)

1

81.

What is the designated beginning of the runway that is available and suitable for the landing of aircraft called?

a)

The threshold

b)

The apron

c)

The taxiway

d)

The displaced area

82.

Which of the following best describes a displaced threshold?

a)

The end of the runway used for takeoff only

b)

A threshold not at the beginning of the full-strength runway pavement

c)

The area where aircraft park

d)

The centerline of the runway

83.

What is the purpose of the paved area behind a displaced threshold?

a)

It is used for parking aircraft

b)

It is available for taxiing, takeoff, and landing rollout, but not for landing

c)

It is used for emergency landings only

d)

It is reserved for maintenance vehicles

84.

Why is a displaced threshold usually implemented on a runway?

a)

To increase the length of the runway for takeoff

b)

Because of an obstruction in the approach path

c)

To allow more aircraft to land simultaneously

d)

To mark the end of the runway

85.

What do the numbers and letters on the runways represent?

a)

The length of the runway in meters

b)

The magnetic heading and position of the runway

c)

The number of aircraft that can land at once

d)

The altitude of the runway

86.

What is the purpose of chevrons marked on certain areas extending beyond usable runways?

a)

They indicate areas suitable for landing.

b)

They mark areas suitable only as overrun areas.

c)

They show where aircraft should begin takeoff.

d)

They indicate the location of taxiways.

87.

What marking is used to indicate a closed runway that may appear usable but is actually hazardous?

a)

A circle

b)

A chevron

c)

An "X"

d)

A triangle

88.

According to the diagrams, what is the function of a displaced threshold on a runway?

a)

It marks the end of the runway.

b)

It designates an area for taxiing only.

c)

It separates the non-landing portion from the landing portion of the runway.

d)

It indicates a closed runway.

89.

Why are stopways not suitable for normal landing or takeoff operations, even though they may appear usable?

a)

They are too short for aircraft to use.

b)

They are only designed for use as overrun areas in emergencies.

c)

They are reserved for maintenance vehicles.

d)

They are used for parking aircraft.

90.

If a pilot sees an "X" marking on a runway, what should they infer?

a)

The runway is open for use.

b)

The runway is under construction but still usable.

c)

The runway is closed and may be hazardous.

d)

The runway is reserved for emergency landings only.

91.

What markings might a basic runway have?

a)

Only centerline markings and runway numbers

b)

Only edge markings and runway numbers

c)

Only stop bars and clearance bar lights

d)

Only taxiway edge markings and position markings

92.

How are taxiways identified?

a)

By a continuous yellow centerline stripe

b)

By a continuous white edge stripe

c)

By red and white dashed lines

d)

By blue lights only

93.

What is the purpose of a holding position marker on a taxiway approaching a runway?

a)

To indicate where aircraft must stop before entering the runway

b)

To show the direction of the wind

c)

To mark the location of the terminal

d)

To indicate the end of the taxiway

94.

Which of the following best describes the composition of a holding position marker?

a)

Four yellow lines: two solid and two dashed

b)

Four white lines: all solid

c)

Two yellow lines: both dashed

d)

Three red lines: two solid and one dashed

95.

What information does Figure 2-7 provide?

a)

Selected airport markings and surface lighting

b)

Weather patterns at airports

c)

Aircraft types and their capacities

d)

Airport terminal layouts

96.

Which type of airport sign has a red background with white inscription and denotes an entrance to a runway, critical area, or prohibited area?

a)

Mandatory instruction sign

b)

Location sign

c)

Direction sign

d)

Information sign

97.

What is the primary purpose of location signs at airports?

a)

To identify a taxiway or runway location, boundary, or ILS critical area

b)

To provide information on areas not visible from the control tower

c)

To indicate the direction of intersecting taxiways

d)

To show the remaining runway distance in thousands of feet

98.

Which airport sign has a yellow background with black inscription and identifies the designation of intersecting taxiways leading out of an intersection?

a)

Direction sign

b)

Destination sign

c)

Runway distance remaining sign

d)

Mandatory instruction sign

99.

What information do runway distance remaining signs provide to pilots?

a)

The distance of the remaining runway in thousands of feet

b)

The location of taxiways and runways

c)

The direction to terminals and cargo areas

d)

The boundaries of critical areas