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Physics 1st QA

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Scalar quantities have and suitable unit.

a)

magnitude

b)

direction

c)

both a and b

d)

None of them

2.

Vector quantities have along with magnitude and unit.

a)

magnitude

b)

direction

c)

both a and b

d)

None of them

3.

Which one is a vector quantity?

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

c)

Time

d)

temperature

4.

Which one is a scalar quantity?

a)

Time

b)

Force

c)

Velocity

d)

Acceleration

5.

Distance is a _____ quantity.

a)

Vector

b)

Scalar

c)

both a and b

d)

None of these

6.

What is S.1 unit of acceleration?

a)

ms-1

b)

ms-2

c)

nm

d)

m2

7.

What is a S.I Unit of velocity?

a)

Nm

b)

ms-1

c)

ms-2

d)

m2s

8.

Shortest distance between two points is called:

a)

distance

b)

speed

c)

displacement

d)

velocity

9.

The branch of physics which is related with the study of motion of objects is called:

a)

thermodynamics

b)

kinematics

c)

dynamics

d)

mechanics

10.

The word kinematics is derived from Greek word "Kinema" which means:

a)

motion

b)

rest

c)

speed

d)

body

11.

The branch of Mechanics which deals with motion of objects without reference of force which cause motion is called:

a)

thermodynamics

b)

kinematics

c)

dynamics

d)

mechanics

12.

All objects in universe are:

a)

in motion

b)

at rest

c)

oval in shape

d)

None of them

13.

Types of motion are:

a)

five

b)

four

c)

three

d)

two

14.

Motion of a body along a straight line is called:

a)

translatory motion

b)

random motion

c)

vibratory motion

d)

linear motion

15.

The motion of a rider on the Ferris wheel is an example of:

a)

circular motion

b)

rotatory motion

c)

random motion

d)

vibratory motion

16.

Back and forth motion of a body about its mean position is called:

a)

vibratory motion

b)

oscillatory motion

c)

Both 'a' & 'b'

d)

None of them

17.

The motion of the clock's pendulum is an example of:

a)

circular motion

b)

rotatory motion

c)

translatory motion

d)

vibratory motion

18.

The body moves back and forth about mean position in:

a)

vibratory motion

b)

rotatory motion

c)

circular motion

d)

translatory motion

19.

Speed of an object in a certain direction is:

a)

acceleration

b)

velocity

c)

displacement

d)

distance

20.

Acceleration is produced whenever:

a)

the velocity of an object changes

b)

direction of motion of the object changes

c)

Both 'a' & 'b'

d)

None of these

21.

Due to decrease in velocity, acceleration will be:

a)

positive & is in the direction of velocity

b)

negative & is in the direction of velocity

c)

positive & is opposite to that of change velocity

d)

negative & is opposite to that of change velocity

22.

Density is a:

a)

scalar quantity

b)

vector quantity

c)

Both 'a' & 'b'

d)

None of these

23.

The gradient on the distance-time graph is numerically equal to the:

a)

acceleration

b)

speed

c)

force

d)

momentum

24.

When bus travels with non-uniform speed, the distance time graph is a:

a)

broken line

b)

straight line

c)

circle

d)

curve

25.

The gradient on speed - time graph gives the:

a)

acceleration

b)

speed

c)

force

d)

momentum

26.

The basic equations of motion for bodies moving with uniform acceleration are:

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

27.

vi + at =:

a)

aS

b)

2aS

c)

vf

d)

vf2

28.

S = vit + 1/ 2 _____.

a)

vf

b)

vf2

c)

at

d)

at2

29.

2aS = ___.

a)

vf + vi

b)

vf2 + vi2

c)

vf - vi

d)

vf2 - vi2

30.

If two stones of different sizes are dropped from same height simultaneously, which of them will hit the ground first?

a)

Heavier stone

b)

Lighter stone

c)

Both hit the ground at the same time

d)

Depends on the weather

31.

The value of acceleration due to gravity 'g' near the surface of earth is found to be:

a)

9.81 ms-2

b)

9.81 ms-1

c)

9.81 ms

d)

9.81 ms2

32.

Gravitational acceleration is taken negative for objects moving:

a)

upward

b)

downward

c)

left direction

d)

right direction

33.

A pair of unlike parallel forces having different lines of force produce _______.

a)

equilibrium

b)

torque

c)

a couple

d)

unstable equilibrium

34.

Head to tail rule can be used to add ______ forces.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

five

d)

any number of

35.

A force of 15 N makes an angle of 60° with horizontal. Its vertical component will be:

a)

15 N

b)

10 N

c)

13 N

d)

7 N

36.

A body is in equilibrium when it has:

a)

uniform speed

b)

uniform acceleration

c)

both a and b

d)

zero acceleration

37.

A body is in stable equilibrium after slight tilt if its center of gravity:

a)

remains above the point of contact

b)

remains on one side of point of contact

c)

passes over the point of contact

d)

is at lowest position

38.

A body is in unstable equilibrium after slight tilt if its center of gravity:

a)

remains on one side of the point of contact

b)

remains above the point of contact

c)

passes over the point of contact

d)

is positioned at its bottom

39.

A body is in neutral equilibrium when its center of gravity:

a)

is at the lowest position

b)

remains at same height

c)

is at highest position

d)

is at its base

40.

Bunsen burner is made stable by:

a)

increasing its length

b)

increasing its mass

c)

decreasing its base area

d)

increasing its base area

41.

A right rope walker carries a long pole to:

a)

increase his weight

b)

raise his centre of gravity

c)

lower his centre of gravity

d)

keep his centre of gravity in fixed position

42.

Stability of a racing car is increased by:

a)

increasing its height

b)

raising its centre of gravity

c)

decreasing its width

d)

lowering its centre of gravity

43.

The forces that act along opposite directions are called:

a)

parallel forces

b)

like parallel forces

c)

unlike parallel forces

d)

None of these

44.

Force has:

a)

only magnitude

b)

only direction

c)

both magnitude & direction

d)

None of these

45.

Graphical method is used for addition of:

a)

one-dimensional vector quantities

b)

two-dimensional vector quantities

c)

three-dimensional vector quantities

d)

All of these

46.

sin θ = :

a)

base / hypotenuse

b)

perpendicular / hypotenuse

c)

base / perpendicular

d)

perpendicular s/ base

47.

perpendicular / base = :

a)

sin θ

b)

cos θ

c)

tan θ

d)

cosec θ

48.

The turning effect of force is called:

a)

moment of force

b)

torque

c)

Both 'a' & 'b'

d)

None of these

49.

Torque depends upon:

a)

the magnitude of the velocity and fulcrum

b)

the mass & fulcrum

c)

the direction of the force & fulcrum

d)

the magnitude of the force & fulcrum

50.

Moment of force about a point is equal to:

a)

𝜏 = d x F

b)

𝜏 = F x d

c)

𝜏 = d . F

d)

𝜏 = F . d

51.

SI unit of the torque or moment of force is:

a)

Newton

b)

Newton per second

c)

Newton-second

d)

Newton-metre

52.

The Center of gravity of uniform square or a rectangular sheet is the:

a)

point of intersection of its diagonals

b)

the mid-point on its axis

c)

the point of intersection of its medians

d)

its center

53.

The Center of gravity of a uniform triangular sheet is:

a)

point of intersection of its diagonals

b)

the mid-point on its axis

c)

the point of intersection of its medians

d)

its center

54.

They form a couple.

a)

two unlike parallel forces of the same magnitude acting along the same line

b)

two unlike parallel forces of the same magnitude not acting along the same line

c)

two like parallel forces of the same magnitude acting along the same line

d)

two like parallel forces of the same magnitude not acting along the same line

55.

To form a couple, two forces must be:

a)

equal in magnitude

b)

parallel, but opposite in direction

c)

separated by a distance

d)

All of these

56.

A wall hanging, buildings, bridges or any object lying in rest on the ground are some examples of:

a)

dynamic equilibrium

b)

static equilibrium

c)

inertia

d)

acceleration due to gravity

57.

A body must satisfy _____ conditions to be in equilibrium.

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

58.

According to the first condition for equilibrium:

a)

sum of the all forces acting on a body must be constant

b)

sum of the all forces acting on a body must be equal to zero

c)

sum of all torques acting on a body is constant

d)

sum of all torques acting on a body is zero

59.

The following expression represents: F = ma

a)

Newton's first law of motion

b)

Newton's second law of motion

c)

the first condition of equilibrium

d)

the second condition of equilibrium

60.

A paratrooper moving down with terminal velocity satisfies:

a)

law of gravitation

b)

Newton's second law of motion

c)

the first condition of equilibrium

d)

the second condition of equilibrium

61.

According to the second condition for equilibrium:

a)

sum of the all forces acting on a body must be constant

b)

sum of the all forces acting on a body must be equal to zero

c)

sum of all torques acting on a body is constant

d)

sum of all torques acting on a body is zero

62.

States of equilibrium are:

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

63.

When a body is slightly displaced and then released it returns to its previous position then the equilibrium will be:

a)

stable equilibrium

b)

unstable equilibrium

c)

neutral equilibrium

d)

None of these

64.

If a body is slightly titled and does not return back to its previous position, the body is said to be in:

a)

stable equilibrium

b)

unstable equilibrium

c)

neutral equilibrium

d)

None of these

65.

An object with particles close together and vibrating describes a _______.

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

All three

66.

A burning candle is an example of ______ state of matter.

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

All three

67.

During which process a gas becomes a liquid ______.

a)

Melting

b)

Freezing

c)

Condensing

d)

Boiling

68.

A solid can _______.

a)

have a fixed shape

b)

be easily compressed

c)

take a shape of container

d)

have freely moving molecules

69.

According to kinetic molecular theory, the pressure exerted by a gas is caused by the _______.

a)

bombardment of the gas molecules on the walls of the container.

b)

collision between gas molecules.

c)

large distances between gas molecules.

d)

random motion of the gas molecules.

70.

If a gas is heated in a sealed cylinder, then _______ increases.

a)

pressure inside the container

b)

average kinetic energy of the particles

c)

temperature of the gas

d)

All of them

71.

A gas in a container of fixed volume is heated. What happens to the molecules of the gas?

a)

They collide less frequently.

b)

They expand.

c)

They move faster.

d)

They move further apart.

72.

In a liquid, some energetic molecules break free from the surface even when the liquid is too cold for bubbles to form. What is the name of this process?

a)

boiling

b)

condensation

c)

convection

d)

evaporation

73.

Which states of matter are incompressible?

a)

Solid & Liquid

b)

Solid & Gas

c)

Liquid & Gas

d)

Solid, Liquid & Gas

74.

Which state of matter has low density?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

None of these

75.

Drying of wet clothes and drying of wet floor are the examples of:

a)

freezing

b)

melting

c)

condensation

d)

evaporation

76.

Conversion of matter between three states involves:

a)

physical changes

b)

chemical changes

c)

Both 'a' & 'b'

d)

None of them

77.

Matter is made up of tiny particles called:

a)

atoms

b)

molecules

c)

ions

d)

cells

78.

In 1827, the evidence of molecular motion first discovered by:

a)

Newton

b)

Einstein

c)

Robert Brown

d)

Kepler

79.

A group of atoms is called:

a)

element

b)

molecule

c)

ion

d)

cell

80.

The molecules of the following state of matter are usually arranged in a regular pattern called lattice:

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

All of them

81.

Which state of matter has the highest densities?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

All of them

82.

In which state of matter, molecules are found in clusters?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

None of them

83.

In which state of matter, particles are very far apart?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

All of them

84.

Boiling and melting points of gases are:

a)

very low

b)

low

c)

high

d)

very high

85.

The molecules of which state of matter have extremely lowest energies?

a)

Gases

b)

Liquids

c)

Solids

d)

Gases & Liquids

86.

It has lowest boiling and melting points as compared to other substances.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Helium

c)

Mercury

d)

Oxygen

87.

It is the only metal that is not solid at room temperature.

a)

Tungsten

b)

Helium

c)

Mercury

d)

Copper

88.

If we compress a gas, its pressure:

a)

becomes zero

b)

remains the same

c)

decreases

d)

increases

89.

If a gas is compressed to half of its original volume, its pressure will be:

a)

zero

b)

remains the same

c)

doubled

d)

becomes half

90.

If we decrease the pressure of a gas, the volume of the gas will be:

a)

becomes zero

b)

remains the same

c)

decreases

d)

increases

91.

It is determined by the average translational kinetic energy of molecules of a gas:

a)

Temperature

b)

Pressure

c)

Density

d)

Volume

92.

Heat is the form of:

a)

Pressure

b)

Weight

c)

Energy

d)

All

93.

Heat capacity is the product of mass and ___.

a)

Boiling point

b)

Freezing point

c)

Energy

d)

Specific heat of material

94.

The amount of heat needed to convert a substance from liquid to gas is called:

a)

Heat of vaporization

b)

Specific heat

c)

Latent heat of fusion

d)

All

95.

A fixed temperature at which a pure liquid boils is called:

a)

Melting point

b)

Freezing point

c)

Boiling point

d)

Both 'a' and 'b'

96.

The melting point of ice at normal atmospheric pressure is:

a)

0 °C

b)

0 K

c)

100 °C

d)

Both 'a' and 'b'

97.

Thermal energy transfer required to change a solid into liquid without changing its temperature is called:

a)

Latent heat of Fusion

b)

Latent heat of vaporization

c)

Latent heat of boiling

d)

Specific heat capacity

98.

Thermal energy transfer required to change a liquid into gas without changing its temperature is called:

a)

Latent heat of freezing

b)

Latent heat of vaporization

c)

Latent heat of boiling

d)

Latent heat of melting

99.

Evaporation can occur at:

a)

Freezing point

b)

Melting point

c)

Boiling point

d)

All temperatures

100.

The S.I unit of heat is:

a)

calorie

b)

joule

c)

Celsius

d)

Kelvin

101.

It is the degree of hotness of a body:

a)

Heat

b)

Specific heat

c)

Temperature

d)

Latent heat

102.

Thermometer is a device, used to measure:

a)

temperature

b)

heat

c)

specific heat

d)

latent heat

103.

This scale of temperature is mostly used for environmental measurements:

a)

Kelvin scale

b)

Fahrenheit scale

c)

Celsius scale

d)

Both `a' & 'b'

104.

This scale of temperature is mostly used for industrial measurements:

a)

Kelvin scale

b)

Fahrenheit scale

c)

Celsius scale

d)

Both 'a' & 'b'

105.

Which one is correct to convert temperature from Celsius scale to Kelvin scale?

a)

K = 1.8 °C + 273

b)

K= 1.8 °C - 273

c)

K = °C - 273

d)

K = °C + 273

106.

Which one is correct to convert temperature from Celsius scale to Fahrenheit scale?

a)

°F = 1.8 °C - 32

b)

°F = 1.8 °C + 32

c)

°F = 1.8 °C - 273

d)

°F = 1.8 °C + 273

107.

Which one is correct to convert temperature from Fahrenheit scale to Celsius scale?

a)

°C = °F - 32 / 1.8

b)

°C = °F + 32 / 1.8

c)

°C = °F - 1.8 / 32

d)

°C = °F + 1.8 / 32

108.

Specific heat of water is:

a)

240 Jkg-1K-1

b)

2400 Jkg-1K-1

c)

420 Jkg-1K-1

d)

4200 Jkg-1K-1

109.

Boiling point of water is:

a)

100 K

b)

100 °F

c)

100 °C

d)

92.8 °F

110.

It is a term in physics that describe how much heat is added to a substance to raise its temperature by 1°C:

a)

Latent heat of Fusion

b)

Latent heat of vaporization

c)

Specific heat capacity

d)

Heat capacity

111.

Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance through 1 °C is called:

a)

Latent heat of Fusion

b)

Latent heat of vaporization

c)

Specific heat capacity

d)

Heat capacity

112.

Equation of specific heat capacity 'c' is as under:

a)

Q / ΔT

b)

ΔQ / mΔT

c)

ΔT / mΔQ

d)

mΔQ / ΔT

113.

The heat of fusion for water at 0 °C is approximately:

a)

2230 Joules per gram

b)

2130 Joules per gram

c)

1230 Joules per gram

d)

334 Joules per gram

114.

The heat of vaporization for water at 100°C is about:

a)

2230 Joules per gram

b)

2130 Joules per gram

c)

1230 Joules per gram

d)

334 Joules per gram

115.

Wet clothes dry in sun due to the:

a)

heat capacity

b)

specific heat

c)

evaporation

d)

latent heat

116.

Evaporation causes:

a)

boiling

b)

freezing

c)

fusion

d)

cooling

117.

Volatile liquids have:

a)

low boiling point

b)

high boiling point

c)

low freezing point

d)

high freezing point

118.

The co-efficient of volume expansion of liquids is:

a)

zero

b)

equal to that of solids

c)

greater than solids

d)

less than solids

119.

If 'β' is the coefficient of volume expansion and 'α' is the coefficient of linear expansion than:

a)

β = 2α

b)

β = 3α

c)

α = 2β

d)

α = 3β

120.

It is used to control temperature of ovens, irons water heaters, refrigerators, air conditioners and so on:

a)

Bimetallic thermostat

b)

Rivet

c)

Radiator

d)

Mercury