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ACR-202 Finals Assessment-Mr. Graham

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The evaporator of a chiller can be used to absorb heat from ____.

a)

water

b)

a solution of water and polyethylene glycol

c)

the refrigerant

d)

both a and b

2.

Two basic categories of chillers are the ____.

a)

compression cycle and absorption

b)

purge and absorption

c)

absorption and lithium bromide

d)

purge and lithium bromide

3.

A benefit of operating a compressor unloaded is ____.

a)

reduced energy costs

b)

reduced compression ratios

c)

increased cooling

d)

both a and b

4.

A reciprocating compressor with six cylinders, three banks of two cylinders each, can have its capacity reduced by unloading to ____% of full capacity.

a)

33

b)

50

c)

66

d)

25

5.

Speeds up to ____ rpm are used in centrifugal compressors.

a)

15,000

b)

20,000

c)

25,000

d)

30,000

6.

A centrifugal compressor uses ____ for capacity control.

a)

guide vanes

b)

block vanes

c)

guide blocks

d)

control vanes

7.

The compressors used in low pressure chillers are the ____ type.

a)

reciprocating

b)

scroll

c)

screw

d)

centrifugal

8.

When a chiller using a low-pressure refrigerant is operating, the low pressure side of the system ____.

a)

always shows a positive pressure

b)

is always in a vacuum

c)

contains a mixture of oil and air

d)

rejects oxygen and moisture

9.

A purge unit ____.

a)

helps to provide subcooling in the condenser

b)

helps to provide superheat in the suction line

c)

relieves non-condensable gases from the system to the atmosphere

d)

provides capacity control

10.

To unload a reciprocating compressor, hot gas bypass across the cylinder is the best method.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

When referring to evaporators, the terms "direct expansion" and "dry type" can be used interchangeably.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

High pressure chillers use either air- or water-cooled condensers.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Thermostatic expansion valves are the only metering devices used in high pressure chillers.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Low pressure chillers use either air- or water-cooled condensers.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Lithium bromide is ideal for use in absorption systems because it is non-corrosive.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Electronic starters are much smaller than conventional starters.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

A chiller typically cools ____________________ (what liquid?) for the purpose of air conditioning.

a)

water

b)

oil

c)

alcohol

d)

mercury

18.

In centrifugal compressors, capacity control is accomplished by the use of __________________________________________ at the impeller inlet.

a)

guide vanes

b)

diffusers

c)

intercoolers

d)

volute casings

19.

The pressure difference in a low-pressure chiller is produced by a(n) ____________________ compressor.

a)

centrifugal

b)

reciprocating

c)

scroll

d)

rotary

20.

The device that automatically helps to remove non-condensables from a chiller is called a(n) ____________________.

a)

purge unit

b)

expansion valve

c)

compressor

d)

condenser

21.

The pressure difference in an absorption chiller where the source of energy is steam or hot water is produced with the use of a(n) ____________________ solution.

a)

absorption

b)

refrigerant

c)

compressor

d)

expansion

22.

The refrigerant in an absorption chiller whose source of energy is steam or hot water is _____________________.

a)

water

b)

ammonia

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

freon

23.

Two methods commonly used to unload a reciprocating compressor are:

a)

Suction valve unloading and clearance pocket unloading

b)

Intercooling and aftercooling

c)

Oil injection and water cooling

d)

Variable speed drive and belt tension adjustment

24.

Multiple smaller compressors are sometimes preferred over one large compressor because:

a)

They are less expensive to install

b)

They provide better reliability and flexibility

c)

They consume less power overall

d)

They require less maintenance

25.

What is accomplished by having a compressor that is equipped with unloaders?

a)

It increases the cooling capacity.

b)

It reduces the compressor's power consumption during low load conditions.

c)

It increases the compressor speed.

d)

It eliminates the need for lubrication.

26.

What is the reason to use cylinder unloading in high pressure chillers?

a)

Provide capacity control for longer running time and closer control of chilled water temperatures.

b)

Increase the pressure of the refrigerant beyond safe limits.

c)

Reduce the efficiency of the chiller during peak load conditions.

d)

Cause excessive wear and tear on compressor components.

27.

Since there are no "valves" in a scroll compressor, what must be done to prevent refrigerant from flowing backward when the compressor cycles off?

a)

Install check valves.

b)

Increase the compressor speed.

c)

Reduce the refrigerant charge.

d)

Use a larger condenser.

28.

Centrifugal compressors are designed with the lubrication isolated from the refrigerant vapor. Why?

a)

Oil mixed with the liquid refrigerant in the evaporator reduces the capacity of the system.

b)

It increases the pressure in the condenser.

c)

It causes excessive cooling in the compressor.

d)

It leads to higher energy consumption.

29.

Explain the difference, with respect to superheat, between a dry type evaporator and a flooded evaporator.

a)

The dry type evaporator (direct expansion) operates with a certain amount of superheat, while a flooded evaporator operates with no superheat.

b)

The dry type evaporator operates with no superheat, while a flooded evaporator operates with a certain amount of superheat.

c)

Both dry type and flooded evaporators operate with the same amount of superheat.

d)

Superheat is not relevant to either dry type or flooded evaporators.

30.

The ends of a chiller evaporator are closed off by standard or marine boxes. What is the difference?

a)

Supply and return piping is connected to a standard return plate. When the end plates do not contain pipe connections, they are called marine boxes. Marine box ends can be removed easily.

b)

Standard boxes are only used for heating, while marine boxes are used for cooling.

c)

Marine boxes are always welded, while standard boxes are bolted.

d)

Standard boxes are made of plastic, while marine boxes are made of metal.

31.

In a lithium bromide system, the refrigerant boils at 40°F. What is the corresponding absolute pressure required?

a)

0.122 lb/in² or 0.248 in Hg

b)

0.500 lb/in² or 1.02 in Hg

c)

1.000 lb/in² or 2.04 in Hg

d)

0.050 lb/in² or 0.102 in Hg

32.

How is the capacity of a screw compressor controlled? (Unit 47 - High-Pressure, Low-Pressure, and Absorption Chilled-Water Systems) The capacity is controlled by a ________ that blocks off the inlets to the screw involutes.

a)

slide valve

b)

pressure switch

c)

expansion valve

d)

thermostatic bulb

33.

If the blower on a cooling tower breaks down on a hot day, the ____.

a)

approach temperature will increase

b)

water supplied to the condensers will be warmer

c)

efficiency of the tower will increase

d)

Both a and b.

34.

The heat that the cooling tower must reject from the water in the chiller is the cooling load of the conditioned area plus the heat of ____.

a)

absorption

b)

compression

c)

vortexing

d)

cavitation

35.

Cooling towers are designed to reduce the entering water temperature to within ____°F of the air's wet-bulb.

a)

5°F

b)

1°F

c)

10°F

d)

15°F

36.

When sizing a cooling tower, the tower is sized to handle the cooling load of the conditioned area plus about % for heat of compression.

a)

0

b)
15
c)

25

d)

35

37.

Natural draft towers and spray ponds are designed to produce a difference in water and air temperatures of ____°F.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

38.

Two methods used to aid the evaporation rate of water in a forced or induced draft tower are ____.

a)

vortexing and cavitation

b)

spray pond and prevailing wind

c)

float type valve and by-pass valve

d)

splash and wetted-surface (or fill)

39.

A blowdown system for a cooling tower ____.

a)

reduces the concentration of sediment in the sump

b)

provides extra draft for higher evaporation rate

c)

promotes vortexing

d)

provides a means for balancing the water flow

40.

The purpose of the cooling tower bypass valve is to ____.

a)

route debris away from the tower sump

b)

prevent cavitation at the pump

c)

provide makeup water to the tower sump

d)

help maintain the correct water temperature to the condenser

41.

Two types of shaft seals used for centrifugal pumps are ____.

a)

stuffing box and mechanical types

b)

stuffing box and splash types

c)

ceramic and splash types

d)

ceramic and bellows types

42.

Spray ponds on rooftops have made a comeback in the last few years because they cool the roof and reduce the solar load on the structure.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

A well-designed and installed cooling tower requires only a minimum of maintenance.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Distilled water is added to the cooling tower to make up for water lost during blowdown.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The condenser water pump is the device that moves the water through the condenser and cooling tower circuit.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

If vortexing occurs, it is an indication that there is not enough air in the tower.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The difference between the entering air wet-bulb temperature and the temperature of the water leaving the tower is called the _____________________.

a)

approach

b)

range

c)

drift

d)

blowdown

48.

Natural draft cooling towers usually has an approach temperature of about _____________________°F because of relying only on the winds.

a)

10

b)

2

c)

25

d)

40

49.

A spray pond would be an example of a(n) _____________________ draft cooling application.

a)

natural

b)

forced

c)

induced

d)

mechanical

50.

Larger cooling towers generally use _____________________-type fans.

a)

propeller

b)

centrifugal

c)

axial

d)

radial

51.

The two air flow patterns for cooling towers are _____________________ and counterflow.

a)

crossflow

b)

parallel flow

c)

upflow

d)

downflow

52.

____________________ allow the motor to soft start and to coast down without abruptly shutting the motor off.

a)

VFDs; Variable-frequency drives; Variable-frequency drives (VFDs); Variable frequency drives; Variable frequency drives (VFDs)

b)

Contactors; Magnetic starters; Magnetic relays; Electromagnetic switches

c)

Fuses; Circuit breakers; Overload relays; Thermal protectors

d)

Transformers; Power supplies; Voltage regulators; Rectifiers

53.

Condenser water pumps are normally ____________________ pumps.

a)

centrifugal

b)

reciprocating

c)

gear

d)

diaphragm

54.

Drift is defined as:

a)

A slow movement or change in position.

b)

A sudden increase in speed.

c)

A decrease in temperature.

d)

A type of chemical reaction.

55.

The water that leaves a cooling tower passes through a strainer to:

a)

remove debris and particles.

b)

increase water temperature.

c)

add chemicals to the water.

d)

reduce water pressure.

56.

What prevents the water in a cooling tower from freezing in cold weather?

a)

A sump heater prevents freezing. Antifreeze products may also be added.

b)

The water is constantly boiled to prevent freezing.

c)

Cooling towers are only operated in warm weather.

d)

The water is replaced with oil during winter.

57.

Describe vortexing.

a)

Vortexing is the whirlpool action of water entering a drain. It introduces air which may interfere with the pump action.

b)

Vortexing is the process of removing all air from a pump system.

c)

Vortexing is the method of increasing water pressure by adding chemicals.

d)

Vortexing is the filtration of water using a mesh screen.

58.

Define angular alignment.

a)

In angular alignment, both the motor shaft and pump shaft are at the same angle with each other.

b)

Angular alignment refers to the process of balancing rotating parts to reduce vibration.

c)

Angular alignment is the method of connecting two shafts using a flexible coupling.

d)

Angular alignment is the process of ensuring the shafts are parallel to each other.

59.

Define parallel alignment.

a)

In parallel alignment, both the motor shaft and the pump shaft are aligned end to end.

b)

Parallel alignment means the shafts are at a 90-degree angle to each other.

c)

Parallel alignment refers to the shafts being misaligned intentionally.

d)

Parallel alignment is when the shafts are not connected at all.

60.

The first step in starting a chilled-water system is to ____.

a)

activate the compressor unloading system

b)

establish the chilled-water flow

c)

activate the condenser heat removal system

d)

start the compressor operation sequence

61.

There should be a ____ test point at the inlet and outlet of any water heat exchanger, chiller, or condenser.

a)

temperature

b)

pressure

c)

vapor

d)

moisture

62.

When a water-cooled chiller is operating normally, it can usually be left unattended, except for which component?

a)

The condenser.

b)

The evaporator.

c)

The metering device.

d)

The cooling tower.

63.

Reciprocating chillers have crankcase heaters to ____.

a)

preheat the chilled water for better efficiency

b)

prevent refrigerant migration to the crankcase

c)

preheat the compressor bearings for longer wear

d)

minimize condenser subcooling

64.

Chillers manufactured in the last few years all have ____ controls.

a)

electronic

b)

hydraulic

c)

pneumatic

d)

pressure-based

65.

Water-cooled chillers must have water treatment to ____.

a)

increase the pH content of the water in the sump

b)

decrease the pH content of the water in the sump

c)

prevent minerals and algae from forming in the water circuit

d)

help preheat the water in the condenser water circuit

66.

Centrifugal chillers range in size from ____ tons for a single chiller.

a)

10 to 50

b)

10 to 80

c)

50 to 500

d)

100 to 10,000

67.

A typical chilled water system is designed to operate with a leaving water temperature of ____°F.

a)

35

b)

40

c)

45

d)

50

68.

What may happen if a lithium-bromide absorption system is started with the cooling water too cold?

a)

High head pressure in the system.

b)

Low head pressure in the absorber.

c)

Removal of system load, compressor cylinders will unload.

d)

Crystallization occurs.

69.

After chemically cleaning a condenser, it is extremely important to make sure that the chemicals are neutralized or the tubes may be damaged.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

If an absorption chiller makes an "ice-crackling" sound, it is an indication that no condenser water is flowing.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

If the purge unit on a chiller is operating very frequently, the system may have a leak.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Low-pressure chillers operate in a vacuum and will stay in a vacuum if the equipment room is not warm enough to keep the refrigerant warm.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

The technician should also be aware of the ____________________ through the contactors that must be satisfied before startup.

a)

interlocks

b)

voltages

c)

timers

d)

relays

74.

The safety switch in the chilled water line that is activated by water flow is called a(n) _________________?

a)

flow switch

b)

pressure switch

c)

temperature switch

d)

level switch

75.

Ball valves for refrigerant piping are used for larger applications and come in sizes up to about ________________.

a)

2 7/8 in.

b)

1 in.

c)

4 in.

d)

6 in.

76.

The scroll-chiller compressor needs crankcase heat and it must be energized for the length of time the manufacturer requires, usually ________________ hours.

a)

24

b)

2

c)

8

d)

48

77.

The ________________ is used in water circuits and is a quick-shutoff valve as it only needs to be turned one-quarter turn from on to off, like a ball valve.

a)

butterfly valve

b)

gate valve

c)

globe valve

d)

needle valve

78.

To remove particles that may be in suspension and circulating in a water circuit, a(n) ____________________ is used.

a)

strainer

b)

pump

c)

valve

d)

compressor

79.

If the compressor motor megohm value begins to decrease, it is a sign that ____________________ or some other foreign matter may be getting into the system.

a)

moisture

b)

oil

c)

dust

d)

air

80.

There are three lines of defense against refrigerant leaks in a service valve: the back seat, the packing gland, and the ____________________.

a)

protective cap

b)

expansion valve

c)

filter drier

d)

suction line

81.

If an absorption unit is started with very cold water in the cooling tower, the lithium bromide in the unit may _________________.

a)

crystallize

b)

evaporate

c)

dissolve

d)

oxidize

82.

Before allowing the compressors of a water-cooled chiller to start up, what two things must be done?

a)

Ensure the condenser water pump and chilled water pump are running.

b)

Check the refrigerant level and oil pressure.

c)

Verify the electrical connections and control panel settings.

d)

Inspect the compressor belts and motor alignment.

83.

Reciprocating, scroll and rotary compressors are lubricated by:

a)

Water cooling

b)

Oil lubrication

c)

Air cooling

d)

Refrigerant only

84.

After being cleaned, the condenser tubes may be checked for stress cracks, erosion, wear on the outside and other defects, by means of what type of instrument?

a)

Micrometer

b)

Borescope

c)

Thermometer

d)

Pressure gauge

85.

Package units are factory-assembled, factory-charged, self-contained systems that have all of the major system components contained in a single housing.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The rooftop unit houses the fans and blowers that move air through the heating and cooling portions of the unit but not through the condenser.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Although packaged air-conditioning equipment comes precharged with refrigerant and no field piping must be done, the installation of a rooftop package unit involves many steps and can be very dangerous.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Improper clearances do not affect the ability of service personnel to perform their jobs adequately.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Some roofs are bonded, which are roofs that carry a written warranty or insurance policy that protects the building owner in the event damage from leaks occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

Curbs can be prefabricated, but many larger curbs are shipped unassembled.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Gasketing materials and foam panels that are shipped with the curb are not part of the curb and should be discarded.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

By raising the forearm in the air, index finger pointing upward and holding the hands straight, the operator will know to raise the cable on the crane.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

The term enthalpy refers to the total heat content in the air, which accounts for both the temperature and the moisture content of the air.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

By utilizing a strategy called demand control ventilation, DCV, the amount of outside air being brought into the building can be varied based on the actual occupancy level in the structure.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

In order to deliver different volumes of air to various areas in an occupied space, the blowers used on VAV systems must be able to modulate their openings to accommodate the changing needs of the system.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

The unit’s location should be carefully selected so the system’s operation is not adversely affected by air being able to ____ the condenser coil.

a)

bypass

b)

circulate back through

c)

recirculate

d)

induce cooling in

97.

It is good field practice to double-check and possibly triple-check the ____ decision, since the cost of repairing an improperly cut roof can be very high.

a)

location

b)

size

c)

capacity

d)

operational

98.

If the curb is mounted as part of a new construction process, it can be assembled and installed as soon as the ____ support system is in place.

a)

walls

b)

ceiling

c)

roof

d)

utility

99.

____ are intended to help provide the correct amount of ventilation and also help reduce cooling costs by allowing outside air to be introduced to the conditioned space when conditions are correct.

a)

Minimizers

b)

Maximizers

c)

Economizers

d)

Recirculators

100.

The economizer is able to increase or decrease the amount of outside air that is brought into the structure with two ____.

a)

blowers

b)

dampers

c)

valves

d)

diverters

101.

An enthalpy sensor includes solid state temperature and ____ sensors.

a)

entropy

b)

barometer

c)

pressure

d)

humidity

102.

When multiple rooftop units are used to condition the air in a building, it is common practice to label the units and their corresponding _____________________.

a)

thermostats

b)

ducts

c)

filters

d)

compressors

103.

Many rooftop package units are equipped with multiple _____________________ fans.

a)

condenser

b)

evaporator

c)

supply

d)

exhaust

104.

A frame that is used to mount HVAC equipment is called a(n) _____________________.

a)

curb

b)

duct

c)

vent

d)

plenum

105.

The water coil in a dry cooler can contain 100% water or can be a mix of water with _____________________.

a)

glycol

b)

salt

c)

oil

d)

alcohol

106.

The temperature sensor used in chilled-water VAV systems to detect when the outside air is cold enough to cause freezing, is typically called a(n) _____________________.

a)

freezestat

b)

humidistat

c)

thermistor

d)

pressure switch

107.

Name the four common types of VAV boxes.

a)

Cooling and heating, cooling only, parallel blower-assisted, and series blower-assisted.

b)

Cooling only, heating only, dual duct, and bypass.

c)

Single duct, dual duct, reheat, and induction.

d)

Constant air volume, variable air volume, dual duct, and fan-powered.

108.

What are some drawbacks of adding more antifreeze than needed to prevent freezing in the chilled water piping system?

a)

It reduces the heat-transfer rate of the solution and requires larger pumps to circulate the solution through the piping.

b)

It increases the risk of pipe corrosion and scaling.

c)

It causes the water to freeze at a higher temperature.

d)

It eliminates the need for regular maintenance of the system.

109.

Free cooling refers to:

a)

A method of using outside air to cool indoor spaces, reducing the need for mechanical refrigeration.

b)

A process of heating air using renewable energy sources.

c)

A technique for increasing humidity in a building.

d)

A system for recycling waste heat from industrial processes.