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COMPREHENSIVE LAW HONORS FINAL 2024-2025

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If a criminal defendant is acquitted in a criminal trial, he or she can still be subsequently sued in civil court.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

A civil battery involves an unpermitted, unprivileged, intentional contact with another’s body.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Plaintiffs in Tort cases generally are not seeking monetary damages.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Negligence is generally defined as the failure to exercise reasonable care.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

One can be found liable for an intentional tort even if they have no conscious desire to cause harm.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

If a PRIVATE person is defamed in a newspaper, the person would be entitled to sue for libel.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

In a case of negligence, the harm caused must be foreseeable by the defendant.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

In a case of comparative negligence, the party that the court determines is most liable pays the FULL damage amount.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Strict liability applies in cases involving abnormally dangerous activities.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Which of the following is not an Intentional Tort?

a)

Assault

b)

Conversion

c)

Trespass

d)

Negligence

11.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a tort?

a)

Breach of Contract

b)

Conversion

c)

Negligence

d)

Invasion of Privacy

12.

What is one basic difference between assault and battery?

a)

Assault is determined by threatening conduct while Battery requires physical contact.

b)

Assault requires physical contact while Battery is determined by threatening conduct.

c)

Assault is a criminal offense while battery can be a tort.

d)

Battery is a criminal offense while assault can be a tort.

13.

If you lend your car to a dealer to sell and the dealer takes the car out for a 1,000 mile “test drive,” what has the dealer most likely committed?

a)

Trespass

b)

Interference with a contract

c)

Conversion

d)

Invasion of Privacy

14.

What is tort law designed to do?

a)

Punish criminal offenders.

b)

Restore equity in contracts.

c)

Address issues where there is no fault.

d)

Compensate victims for their civil injuries.

15.

The plaintiffs were detained at a store because employees believed they saw them shoplifting. Whether the store is entitled to protection from tort liability under a merchant protection statute, or the common law, will primarily depend on what?

a)

The detention was for a reasonable amount of time and in a reasonable manner.

b)

The plaintiffs took valuable merchandise.

c)

Store employees conducted a full investigation before calling the police.

d)

The police were called immediately.

16.

While shopping with her mother in Arnold’s Super Market, eight-year-old Janet was allowed to roam around freely. Without her mother’s knowledge, Janet opened a jar of jelly and spilled the contents on the floor. Two hours later while intently watching a good-looking butcher, a shopper named Bernadette slipped on the jelly and broke her leg. Bernadette sued the supermarket. Which of the following is Arnold’s status?

a)

They are liable for negligence.

b)

They are not liable because Janet is the culprit.

c)

They are not liable because the mother should have done something.

d)

They are not liable because neither Jane nor her mother is an employee.

17.

While shopping with her mother in Arnold’s Super Market, eight-year-old Janet was allowed to roam around freely. Without her mother’s knowledge, Janet opened a jar of jelly and spilled the contents on the floor. Two hours later while intently watching a good-looking butcher, a shopper named Bernadette slipped on the jelly and broke her leg. Bernadette sued the supermarket. Since Bernadette was looking at the butcher and not where she was going, what defense might be successfully asserted against her?

a)

Imputed Negligence

b)

Strict Liability

c)

Contributory Negligence

d)

Proximate cause

18.

In a state that has a comparative negligence statute, a jury determined that the plaintiff has sustained damages of $50,000 and that the percentages of fault are plaintiff 40 percent negligent, defendant 60 percent negligent. What would be the plaintiff’s award of damages in this case?

a)

$30,000, or 60 percent.

b)

$50,000, as she was negligent.

c)

Nothing because her negligence bars recovery.

d)

$10,000, or 20 percent, the comparative difference in their negligence.

19.

What does strict liability require?

a)

That a plaintiff shows lack of due care.

b)

That a plaintiff must show the defendant had bad faith.

c)

That an abnormally dangerous activity was involved.

d)

That there is no duty to warn.

20.

To commit an Intentional Tort, you must have an intent to do harm.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Prosecutors can be charged for malicious prosecution.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The truth of the statement is a complete defense in a lawsuit for defamation

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the most claimed tort in business dealings?

a)

breach of contract

b)

fraud

c)

intentional interference with contractual relations

d)

Negligence

24.

You do not need to prove duty or breach to state a claim for negligence.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Civil wrongs are called torts.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The tort standard for certain professionals, such as nurses, electricians, and plumbers, is that of the skilled professional acting as a reasonably prudent professional in that situation.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

If a minor has an accident while driving a car, the minor’s negligence is judged according to other minors of the same age, intelligence, and experience.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

In states that permit a contributory negligence defense to negligence, the defendant will escape all liability if the plaintiff was at fault in any way.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Jake, a city employee working in a manhole, forgets to replace the cover over the street. No one falls in. Jake has not committed negligence because this element of negligence is missing.

a)

Duty

b)

Breach

c)

Causation

d)

Damages

30.

The reasonable person in tort law refers to:

a)

the typical person

b)

average person

c)

idealized typical, average person

d)

none of the above

31.

While cooking pasta with her friends, 15-year-old Tanya picks up the pot without using oven mitts. The pot slips out of her hand, and she spills boiling water on her fiend’s back, causing serious burns. In a suit for negligence, Tanya’s actions will be judged by:

a)

the reasonable person standard.

b)

the reasonable 15-year-old with her intelligence and experience.

c)

no standard as minors cannot be sued for their torts.

d)

none of the above

32.

A contract is a set of legally enforceable promises.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following are the requirements for a contract?

a)

Agreement

b)

Consideration

c)

Capacity

d)

Legality of purpose

e)

All of the above

34.

An agreement requires an offer and acceptance.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The terms of acceptance do not need to be identical to the terms of the offer.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Under contract law, what is "consideration"?

a)

An agreement

b)

Caring about another person

c)

a bargained for exchange

d)

an offer

37.

Most minors have the “legal capacity” to enter into contracts.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

"I will buy your car if it has less than 10,000 miles" is what kind of consideration?

a)

Illusory promise

b)

past consideration

c)

pre-existing duty

d)

subsequent consideration

39.

Past consideration is valid consideration for a present contract.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

A voidable contract is a contract that can be terminated by either party.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the term for a minors’ right, in which within a reasonable time after reaching the age of majority, he or she may avoid his or her contracts?

a)

Ratification

b)

Withdrawal

c)

Termination

d)

Disaffirmance

42.

If a minor disaffirms his or her contract, he or she must return the item contracted for, in any condition.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Minors can disaffirm all contracts, including contracts for necessities.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Contracts with an illegal purpose are void.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which of the following is NOT an obstacle to legal assent?

a)

Ignorance

b)

Mistake

c)

Misrepresentation

d)

Duress

46.

What is the term for when a party's obligation under a contract is terminated?

a)

Disaffirmance

b)

Withdrawal

c)

Discharge

d)

None of the above

47.

What is the term for a particular event that must occur for a party’s duty to arise.

a)

Condition precedent

b)

Condition subsequent

c)

Concurring condition

d)

None of the above

48.

A breach occurs when a party fails to perform their obligations under the contract.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

What is the term for when an unforeseen circumstance makes it impossible or illegal to perform a contract.

a)

Impossibility of performance

b)

Frustration of purpose

c)

Commercial impracticability

d)

None of the above

50.

What is the term for when the performance of a contract is possible, but due to unforeseeable circumstances, it would be extraordinarily expensive or dangerous to perform?

a)

Impossibility of performance

b)

Frustration of purpose

c)

Commercial impracticability

d)

None of the above

51.

What is the term for when a contract is entered into for a particular purpose, but the purpose does not occur.

a)

Impossibility of performance

b)

Frustration of purpose

c)

Commercial impracticability

d)

None of the above

52.

What is the term for damages for breach of contract specified in the contract itself?

a)

Compensatory damages

b)

Nominal damages

c)

Liquidated damages

d)

Pain and suffering

53.

The non-breaching party has a duty to mitigate his or her damages.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

What is the legal term for the termination of a contract?

a)

Rescission

b)

Restitution

c)

Discharge

d)

Specific performance

55.

Property refers to a person’s ownership rights to things, and to a person’s interests in things owned by someone else.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

A song cannot be property.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Property can refer to tangible as well as intangible items.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Trademarks, patents, and copyrights are examples of intangible property.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The Nike “Swoosh” is an example of a trademark

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A patent is the grant of rights to an inventor from the government.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Which of the following would not be considered real property?

a)

An individual’s house that has a bank mortgage

b)

A camping trailer parked in an individual’s driveway

c)

A grove of black walnut trees on an individual’s farm

d)

A gold deposit on an individual’s rural property

62.

Which of the following would not be considered tangible personal property?

a)

A laptop computer

b)

Furniture

c)

A Bank account

d)

A motorcycle

63.

Which of the following would not be considered intangible property?

a)

Stocks and bonds

b)

Trademarks, patents and copyrights

c)

Computer software

d)

Computer hardware

64.

What might patents be granted for?

a)

Underground rights

b)

A newly created plant species

c)

Music and fine art

d)

A new design or logo

65.

What is the power of the government to take private property rights, provided that just compensation is provided, and due process is afforded, referred to as?

a)

Eminent Domain

b)

Comity

c)

Habeas Corpus

d)

Res Judicata

66.

The Government has a legitimate right to prevent maltreatment and abuse of family members.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

The eligibility requirements for a marriage license are the same from state to state.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

In the United States, there is a single, universally accepted legal definition of a family.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

In some states, adoption records are closed. This means that the adopted child does not have a legal right to identify his or her birth parents.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Common reasons for divorce or annulment include bigamy, incest, fraud, and religious concerns.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Although property divisions can be decided by a judge, they are often negotiated by the divorcing parties before court proceedings begin.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

In most states, what is the age at which a minor legally becomes an adult?

a)

18

b)

16

c)

19

d)

21

73.

Throughout history, at one point the U.S. Supreme Court ruled against the marriages of many individuals. However, it HAS NOT ruled against the marriages of:

a)

Marriages between siblings

b)

Marriages between people of the same gender

c)

Marriages involving people who are widowed or divorced

d)

Marriages between people of different races

74.

Which of the following is true about parents’ legal obligations to support a child?

a)

It ends the dissolution of marriage for the non-custodial parent.

b)

It depends on the child’s needs and the parents’ financial situation.

c)

It typically does not include paying for the child’s college education.

d)

It ends when the child reaches 16.

75.

Which of the following is generally true of divorce?

a)

It is much harder to obtain today than in the past.

b)

It is much easier to obtain today than in the past.

c)

All of the above.

d)

None of the above.

76.

Which of the following factors should NOT be considered by a judge when deciding which parent in a divorce should have custody of the child or children?

a)

Parental Misconduct

b)

Gender

c)

Employment stability

d)

Parental ability to provide for the child’s needs.

77.

The legislature is the dominant criminal law policy maker.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Common law, rather than statutes or penal codes, is the basis of most state criminal law in the United States.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

State statutes establishing minimum age requirements to consume alcoholic beverages and to smoke tobacco products are examples of mala in se offenses?

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Mala Prohibita offences are intrinsically bad.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

The U.S. Constitution specifically guarantees all citizens a general right of personal privacy.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Solicitation and conspiracy are examples of inchoate crimes.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

If the government cannot prove the defendant’s guilt beyond a reasonable doubt with its own evidence, the law provides that the accused is not guilty.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The M’Naghten Rule specifies that a defendant is not guilty if they had a diseased mind at the time of the act and were unable to distinguish right from wrong.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

If the police fail to inform a person of their Miranda rights when required, statements made in the subsequent interrogation will be excluded from trial.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Which of the following is NOT a part of the Miranda Warnings:

a)

You have the Right to Remain Silent

b)

You have the Right to an Attorney

c)

Anything you say can and will be used against you in court.

d)

If you cannot afford an attorney, one will be provided after an accounting of your finances takes place.

87.

What is today’s definition of a crime based on?

a)

A definition from an 18th Century English judge

b)

The Model Penal Code

c)

The U.S. Constitution

d)

Individual State Statutes

88.

Why did the legislative branch replace the judiciary as the dominant criminal law policymaker in the twentieth century?

a)

Judiciaries were bound by precedent and tradition in dealing with issues.

b)

Legislatures were dissatisfied with judicial rulings.

c)

Technological innovations produced new and previously unforeseen criminal opportunities

d)

Legislatures were more open to reform and innovation than were judiciaries.

89.

Who is always the plaintiff in a criminal case?

a)

The person who was wronged

b)

The government

c)

The person being charged with the criminal offence

d)

An anonymous person such as John Doe or Jane Roe

90.

Assume that a criminal defendant claims that she was the victim of a criminal kidnapping and was forced by her kidnappers to commit the crimes with which she is accused. Assume further that she could prove that she had complied with their demands only because her captors had threatened to kill her if she resisted. What defense would be appropriate for her to adopt at trial?

a)

Entrapment

b)

Self-Defense

c)

Insanity

d)

Duress

91.

Which of the following are types of Alternative Dispute Resolution tactics, and what is a key pro and con of each?

a)

Mediation and Arbitration; Mediation allows parties to control the outcome (pro) but may not result in a binding decision (con), Arbitration is faster than court (pro) but can be expensive (con).

b)

Negotiation and Litigation; Negotiation is always binding (pro) but litigation is informal (con).

c)

Arbitration and Trial; Arbitration is always public (pro) but trial is confidential (con).

d)

Mediation and Litigation; Mediation is always binding (pro) but litigation is less expensive (con).