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Mock Test_6-2_Advance Statistics

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 8hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is an advantage of using Nonparametric Statistics?
a)
a. It can handle data that is not normally distributed.
b)
b. It requires a smaller sample size than Parametric Statistics.
c)
c. It can be used to test hypotheses about population parameters.
d)
d. It is less time-consuming than Parametric Statistics.
2.
A researcher is interested in assessing the relationship between two variables, X and Y, in a population. The researcher selects a random sample of 100 individuals and measures X and Y for each person. Which of the following is a reason why the researcher might choose to use Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient instead of Spearman's rank correlation coefficient?
a)
a. Kendall's Tau is more appropriate when the data are continuous.
b)
b. Kendall's Tau is more appropriate when the sample size is small.
c)
c. Kendall's Tau is more appropriate when the data are highly skewed.
d)
d. Kendall's Tau is more appropriate when the data are ranked on an ordinal scale.
3.
A researcher is interested in comparing the median scores of two groups of students, Group A and Group B, on a standardized test. After conducting the Mann-Whitney U test, the researcher obtains a test statistic of U = 55 and a critical value of U_crit = 70. What is the researcher's decision regarding the null hypothesis?
a)
a. Reject the null hypothesis because U < U_crit
b)
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because U > U_crit
c)
c. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because U < U_crit
d)
d. Reject the null hypothesis because U > U_crit
4.
A researcher is interested in determining the relationship between the age of employees and their job performance ratings. After conducting Spearman's Rank Correlation Coefficient test, the researcher obtains a correlation coefficient of 0.75 and a critical value of 0.632. What is the researcher's decision regarding the null hypothesis?
a)
a. Reject the null hypothesis because the correlation coefficient is greater than the critical value.
b)
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because the correlation coefficient is greater than the critical value.
c)
c. Reject the null hypothesis because the correlation coefficient is less than the critical value.
d)
d. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because the correlation coefficient is less than the critical value.
5.
A researcher is interested in determining the relationship between two variables using Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient. The researcher obtains a correlation coefficient of -0.4. Which of the following conclusions can the researcher draw from this result?
a)
a. There is a strong positive correlation between the two variables.
b)
b. There is a moderate negative correlation between the two variables.
c)
c. There is a weak negative correlation between the two variables.
d)
d. There is no correlation between the two variables.
6.
A researcher is examining the relationship between two variables, X and Y, using Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient. The researcher obtains a correlation coefficient of 0.7. Which of the following conclusions can the researcher draw from this result?
a)
a. Variable X causes variable Y.
b)
b. There is a strong positive correlation between X and Y.
c)
c. There is a weak positive correlation between X and Y.
d)
d. There is no relationship between X and Y.
7.
A researcher wants to determine if there is a significant difference in the time taken to complete a task using three different software programs: Program A, Program B, and Program C. After conducting the Friedman test, the researcher obtains a test statistic of 9.5 and a critical value of 6.25. What is the researcher's decision regarding the null hypothesis?
a)
a. Reject the null hypothesis because the test statistic is greater than the critical value.
b)
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because the test statistic is greater than the critical value.
c)
c. Reject the null hypothesis because the test statistic is less than the critical value.
d)
d. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because the test statistic is less than the critical value.
8.
A researcher is interested in determining if there is a significant difference in the median salaries of employees across three different departments in a company: Sales, Marketing, and HR. After conducting the Kruskal-Wallis test, the researcher obtains a test statistic of H = 7.8 and a critical value of H_crit = 5.99. What is the researcher's decision regarding the null hypothesis?
a)
a. Reject the null hypothesis because H > H_crit
b)
b. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because H > H_crit
c)
c. Reject the null hypothesis because H < H_crit
d)
d. Fail to reject the null hypothesis because H < H_crit.
9.
A study is conducted to compare the effectiveness of two different treatments on reducing pain levels in patients. A Wilcoxon signed-rank test is conducted with a significance level of 0.01, and the calculated test statistic is 37. The critical value for a two-tailed test with 25 paired differences at a significance level of 0.01 is 42. Which of the following is the correct conclusion to draw from the test?
a)
a. There is a significant difference in pain reduction between the two treatments.
b)
b. There is no significant difference in pain reduction between the two treatments.
c)
c. The Wilcoxon signed-rank test cannot be used to compare two treatments.
d)
d. The sample size is too small to draw any conclusions about pain reduction
10.
How is the significance level determined in a Chi-Square Test of Independence?
a)
a. By comparing the observed value to the expected value
b)
b. By calculating the p-value
c)
c. By using the z-test statistic
d)
d. By using the t-test statistic
11.
In a Chi-Square Test of Independence, what is the null hypothesis?
a)
a. There is no significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies.
b)
b. There is a significant difference between the observed and expected frequencies.
c)
c. The two variables are dependent.
d)
d. The two variables are independent.
12.
In a Spearman's rank correlation coefficient test, what is the alternative hypothesis?
a)
a. There is no significant correlation between the two variables.
b)
b. The two variables have a linear relationship.
c)
c. There is a significant correlation between the two variables.
d)
d. The two variables are independent.
13.
In McNemar's test, what type of data is required for analysis?
a)
a. Nominal data
b)
b. Continuous data
c)
c. Categorical data
d)
d. Ordinal data
14.
In which of the following scenarios might you choose to use nonparametric statistics instead of parametric statistics?
a)
a. When the data is normally distributed
b)
b. When the sample size is small
c)
c. When the population parameters are known
d)
d. When you have prior knowledge about the data.
15.
What does a Spearman's rank correlation coefficient value of 1 indicate?
a)
a. A strong positive correlation between the two variables
b)
b. A strong negative correlation between the two variables
c)
c. No correlation between the two variables
d)
d. A perfect correlation between the two variables
16.
What is a disadvantage of using Nonparametric Statistics?
a)
a. It is more powerful than Parametric Statistics.
b)
b. It is only applicable for large sample sizes.
c)
c. It does not provide as much information about the data as Parametric Statistics.
d)
d. It is less sensitive than Parametric Statistics.
17.
What is nonparametric regression?
a)
a. A type of regression analysis that assumes a specific functional form for the relationship between the predictor and the dependent variable.
b)
b. A type of regression analysis that does not assume a specific functional form for the relationship between the predictor and the dependent variable.
c)
c. A type of regression analysis that assumes the predictor and dependent variable are independent.
d)
d. A type of regression analysis that assumes the predictor and dependent variable are normally distributed.
18.
What is Nonparametric Statistics?
a)
a. A statistical method that assumes the data is normally distributed.
b)
b. A statistical method that does not make any assumptions about the underlying distribution of the data.
c)
c. A statistical method that is used to test the difference between two population means.
d)
d. A statistical method that is used to calculate the correlation coefficient between two variables.
19.
What is the advantage of nonparametric regression over parametric regression?
a)
a. Nonparametric regression can handle nonlinear relationships between the predictor and the dependent variable.
b)
b. Nonparametric regression assumes a specific functional form for the relationship between the predictor and the dependent variable.
c)
c. Nonparametric regression assumes the predictor and dependent variable are independent.
d)
d. Nonparametric regression assumes the predictor and dependent variable are normally distributed.
20.
What is the advantage of using Fisher's Exact Test over the Chi-Square Test of Independence?
a)
a. Fisher's Exact Test is more powerful.
b)
b. Fisher's Exact Test is more robust to violations of assumptions.
c)
c. Fisher's Exact Test is faster to compute.
d)
d. Fisher's Exact Test can handle larger sample sizes.
21.
What is the expected value in a Chi-Square Test of Independence?
a)
a. The value that would be expected if the null hypothesis were true
b)
b. The value that is obtained from the data
c)
c. The value that represents the difference between the observed and expected frequencies
d)
d. The value that is used to calculate the degrees of freedom
22.
What is the formula for calculating the Mann-Whitney U Test statistic?
a)
a. U = n1 * n2
b)
b. U = R1 + R2
c)
c. U = R1 - R2
d)
d. U = (n1 * n2) / 2
23.
What is the main advantage of using local polynomial regression over parametric regression?
a)
a. Local polynomial regression allows for a more flexible fit to the data.
b)
b. Local polynomial regression is faster and more efficient.
c)
c. Local polynomial regression assumes a linear relationship between predictors and dependent variable.
d)
d. Local polynomial regression can handle missing data more easily.
24.
What is the null hypothesis for Spearman's rank correlation coefficient test?
a)
a. There is a significant correlation between the two variables
b)
b. There is no significant correlation between the two variables
c)
c. The two variables are independent
d)
d. The two variables have a linear relationship
25.
What is the null hypothesis for the Kruskal-Wallis test?
a)
a. There is no difference among the medians of the groups being compared
b)
b. There is no difference among the means of the groups being compared
c)
c. There is no correlation among the groups being compared
d)
d. The variances of the groups being compared are equal. what is the level of thinking and correct answer?
26.
What is the null hypothesis in Fisher's Exact Test?
a)
a. There is a significant association between the two variables.
b)
b. There is no significant association between the two variables.
c)
c. The two variables are independent.
d)
d. The two variables are dependent.
27.
What is the null hypothesis in McNemar's Test?
a)
a. There is a significant difference between the two proportions.
b)
b. There is no significant difference between the two proportions.
c)
c. The two samples come from the same distribution.
d)
d. The two means are equal.
28.
What is the primary application of Fisher's exact test?
a)
a. Testing for independence between two categorical variables in a contingency table
b)
b. Comparing means between two independent groups
c)
c. Examining the relationship between a continuous and categorical variable
d)
d. Testing for normality of a data distribution
29.
What is the purpose of a Chi-Square Test of Independence?
a)
a. To determine if two variables are independent
b)
b. To determine if two variables are dependent
c)
c. To determine the strength of the relationship between two variables
d)
d. To compare means of two independent groups
30.
What is the purpose of local polynomial regression (LPR)?
a)
a. To fit a linear regression model to data.
b)
b. To construct a parametric form for the relationship between predictors and dependent variable.
c)
c. To smooth scatter plots and model functions using low-order polynomial regression.
d)
d. To estimate population parameters based on a sample.
31.
What is the purpose of McNemar's Test?
a)
a. To determine if two samples come from the same distribution
b)
b. To determine if there is a difference between two means
c)
c. To determine if there is a difference between two proportions
d)
d. To determine if there is a difference between two paired proportions
32.
What is the range of possible values for Spearman's rank correlation coefficient?
a)
a. -1 to 0
b)
b. -1 to 1
c)
c. 0 to 1
d)
d. 0 to infinity
33.
What is the test statistic used in McNemar's Test?
a)
a. t-test
b)
b. z-test
c)
c. Chi-Square
d)
d. McNemar's statistic
34.
What type of data is suitable for the Friedman test?
a)
a. Nominal
b)
b. Ordinal
c)
c. Interval
d)
d. Ratio
35.
When is Fisher's Exact Test used?
a)
a. When the sample size is large
b)
b. When the sample size is small
c)
c. When the data is continuous
d)
d. When the data is normally distributed
36.
When might you choose to use nonparametric statistics instead of parametric statistics?
a)
a. When the data is normally distributed
b)
b. When the sample size is large
c)
c. When the population parameters are known
d)
d. When the assumptions of parametric statistics are not met
37.
When using the Kruskal-Wallis Test, which of the following assumptions must be met?
a)
a. The sample sizes for each group must be equal
b)
b. The data for each group must be normally distributed
c)
c. The data for each group must be independent
d)
d. The data for each group must be measured on an ordinal scale
38.
When using the Mann-Whitney U Test, what is the null hypothesis?
a)
a. There is no difference between the sample means
b)
b. There is no difference between the sample proportions
c)
c. There is no difference between the two independent samples
d)
d. There is no correlation between the two continuous variables
39.
When using the Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Test, what is the null hypothesis?
a)
a. There is no difference between the sample means
b)
b. There is no difference between the sample proportions
c)
c. There is no difference between the paired samples
d)
d. There is no correlation between the two continuous variables
40.
When using the Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Test, which of the following is used to determine the direction of the difference between paired observations?
a)
a. the sample size
b)
b. the mean difference
c)
c. the standard deviation of the difference
d)
d. the sign of the difference
41.
Which of the following is a potential advantage of using Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient to assess the relationship between two variables?
a)
a. It is less affected by outliers than other correlation coefficients.
b)
b. It assumes a linear relationship between the two variables.
c)
c. It is more appropriate when the sample size is small.
d)
d. It can only be used when the data are continuous.
42.
Which of the following is a potential limitation of using Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient to assess the relationship between two variables?
a)
a. The correlation coefficient can be biased by extreme values.
b)
b. The correlation coefficient cannot be interpreted in a meaningful way.
c)
c. The correlation coefficient assumes that the relationship between variables is linear.
d)
d. The correlation coefficient may be affected by measurement error.
43.
Which of the following is a requirement for using the Mann-Whitney U Test?
a)
a. The two samples must be independent of each other
b)
b. The two samples must be normally distributed
c)
c. The sample sizes must be equal
d)
d. The data must be measured on a continuous scale
44.
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Nonparametric Statistics?
a)
a. Normal distribution of the data.
b)
b. Homogeneity of variance.
c)
c. Independence of observations.
d)
d. Linearity of the relationship between variables.
45.
Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the Friedman Test?
a)
a. The data is measured on an ordinal scale.
b)
b. The observations are independent within and between groups.
c)
c. The distribution of differences between the ranks of each group is approximately normal.
d)
d. The observations are paired within groups.
46.
Which of the following is the Kruskal-Wallis Test used to test?
a)
a. The difference between two sample means
b)
b. The difference between two sample proportions
c)
c. The difference between two independent samples
d)
d. The difference among three or more independent samples
47.
Which of the following is the null hypothesis for the Friedman Test?
a)
a. There is a significant difference in the means of three or more groups.
b)
b. There is a significant difference in the medians of three or more groups.
c)
c. There is no significant difference in the means of three or more groups.
d)
d. There is no significant difference in the medians of three or more groups.
48.
Which of the following is true about Kendall's Tau correlation coefficient?
a)
a. It is always between -1 and 1.
b)
b. It is always between 0 and 1.
c)
c. It is always between -1 and 0.
d)
d. It can be any value between -1 and 1.
49.
Which of the following is true about the Wilcoxon Signed-Rank Test?
a)
a. It assumes the data is normally distributed
b)
b. It can be used with a small sample size
c)
c. It only works with paired data
d)
d. It requires a lot of prior knowledge about the population
50.
Which of the following statements is true about Spearman's rank correlation coefficient test?
a)
a. It is used to test the correlation between two continuous variables
b)
b. It assumes a linear relationship between the two variables
c)
c. It is a non-parametric test that can be used to test the correlation between two ordinal variables
d)
d. It can only be used when the sample size is large enough
51.

What research design aims to determine a cause from already existing effects?

a)

Descriptive Research Design

b)

Correlational Research Design

c)

Quasi-Experimental Research

d)

Ex Post Facto

52.

What research design is often conducted in a controlled setting with corresponding research treatment?

a)

Correlational

b)

Ex post facto

c)

Survey Research

d)

Experimental

53.

What is the suited research design for this research title, “The Effects of Twitter on the Communication Etiquette of Students”?

a)

Ex post facto

b)

Experimental

c)

Descriptive

d)

Correlational

54.

Mr. James Rivera would like to know further the type of social media used between the male and female SHS students of Nicolas B. Barreras National High School. What is the appropriate research design to be used in his study?

a)

Quasi-Experimental

b)

Correlational

c)

Experimental

d)

Descriptive

55.

What is the aim of Ex post facto research design?

a)

determine a cause from already existing effe

b)

establish cause and effect relationship

c)

observe and describe a phenomenon

d)

identify association among variables

56.

“Effects of Type of Music to Aesthetic Performance of Ballet Dancers”, what is the appropriate research design for the given title?

a)

Correlational

b)

Descriptive

c)

Survey Research

d)

Experimental

57.

Mr. Manzano would like to know further the type of social media used between the male and female SHS students of East Pagat National High School.

What appropriate statistical test should Mr. Manzano used to answer his research problem?

a)

T-test for two dependent samples

b)

Spearman’s rho

c)

Chi-square

d)

ANOVA

58.

Which of the following statements is true about the conduct of experimental research?

a)

There is no random assignment of individuals.

b)

Individual subjects are randomly assigned.

c)

Groups are exposed to presumed cause.

d)

Intact groups are used.

59.

What is the difference between quasi-experimental research and experimental research?

a)

Only one dependent variable is used in quasi-experimental research, while multiple dependent variables can be used in quasi-experimental research.

b)

Intact groups are used in experimental, while quasi-experimental randomly assigned individuals into groups.

c)

Participants for groups are randomly selected in experimental, but not quasi-experimental research.

d)

The researcher controls the intervention in the experimental group, but not quasi-experimental research.

60.

Why would a researcher choose to use Simple Random Sampling as a sampling technique?

a)

To consider giving equal chance to the member of accessible population being selected as part of the study.

b)

To make sure that all subcategories of the population are represented in the selection of sample.

c)

To group the entire population into clusters since the location of the samples are widely spread.

d)

To systematically choose samples from a given list of individuals.

61.

When can we consider a research sample as "best?"

a)

representative of population

b)

systematically chosen

c)

conveniently represented

d)

purposely selected

62.

Given that your study will use stratified random sampling, wherein population of your scope is 250 with a computed sample size of 152, how many samples for each stratum will you have if group 1 has 92, group 2 has 86, and group 3 has 72 population?

a)

Group 1 = 52, Group 2 = 54, Group 3 = 46

b)

Group 1 = 56, Group 2 = 45, Group 3 = 51

c)

Group 1 = 52, Group 2 = 52, Group 3 = 44

d)

Group 1 = 54, Group 2 = 56, Group 3 = 41

63.

What type of reliability is measured by administering two tests identical in all aspects except the actual wording of items?

a)

Internal Consistency Reliability

b)

Equivalent Forms Reliability

c)

Test-retest reliability

d)

Inter-rater Reliability

64.

What type of validity is when an instrument produces results similar to those of another instrument that will be employed in the future?

a)

Predictive Validity

b)

Face Validity

c)

Criterion Validity

d)

Content Validity

65.

The Ability Test has been proven to predict the mathematical skills of Senior High School students. What type of test validity is shown in the example?

a)

Construct Validity

b)

Criterion Validity

c)

Content Validity

d)

Face Validity

66.

What indicator of a good research instrument when items are arranged from simple to complex?

a)

Easily Tabulated

b)

Sequential

c)

Valid and Reliable

d)

Concise

67.

What is the purpose of Pearson’s r as a statistical technique? To test the

a)

difference between sets of data from different groups

b)

difference between two sets of data from one group.

c)

degree of effect research intervention or treatment.

d)

relationship between two continuous variables.

68.

In this scale, a series of bipolar adjectives will be rated by the respondents. This scale seems to be more advantageous since it is more flexible and easier to construct.

a)

Semantic Differential

b)

Likert Scale

c)

Spearman's rho

d)

Face Validity

69.

Data gathering is done through interview or questionnaire

a)

observation

b)

survey

c)

experiment

d)

none of these

70.

(a)   refers to the tools used in research for the purpose of gathering the data.

71.

It is the science that deals with the collection, organization, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of data.

a)

Descriptive

b)

Inferential

c)

Probability

d)

Statistics

72.

An area in Statistics that makes conjecture about the population based on data from sample

a)

Descriptive

b)

Inferential

c)

Probability

d)

Statistics

73.

Statistical tests used to process data that are not normally distributed.

a)

Parametric

b)

Non-parametric

c)

Multivariate Analysis

d)

Regression Analysis

74.

It is a parametric tests that determines differences between a parameter of more than 2 groups.

a)

F-test

b)

T-test

c)

Z-Test

d)

Pearson Product Moment Correlation

75.

A parametric test that determines difference between sample mean of two independent groups

a)

F-test

b)

T-test

c)

Z-test

d)

Pearson Product Moment Correlation

76.

It is a parametric test that determines the association of two variables.

a)

F-test

b)

t-test

c)

z-test

d)

Pearson Product Moment Correlation

77.

Which among the following does not belong to the group of statistical tests

a)

Chi-square

b)

Kolmogorov-Smirnov

c)

Mann-Whitney

d)

Z-test

78.

Which among the following does not belong to the group of statistical tests.

a)

Chi-square

b)

Pearson Product Moment Correlation

c)

Mann-Whitney

d)

Spearman Rank

79.

It is a non-parametric test that determines difference between 3 or more groups.

a)

Kolmogorov Smirnov Test

b)

Mann-Whitney Test

c)

Kruskall Wallis Test

d)

Chi-Square Test

80.

It examines the relationship of an independent variable to one or more dependent variables. In the end it will give a predictive model of the independent variable.

a)

Chi-square

b)

Correlation

c)

Multivariate ANOVA

d)

Regression

81.

These are samples that are selected randomly so that its observation do not depend on the values on other observations.

a)

independent samples

b)

binomial test

c)

x2 one sample test

d)

one sample run test

82.

It means having only two possible values such as yes or no, male or female, pass or fail, head or tail.

a)

Fisher's Exact Test

b)

Median Test

c)

Dichotomous Variable

d)

Contingency Table

83.

The purpose of this test is to evaluate the differences between two discrete dichotomous variables, where responses of two independent groups fall exclusively into one category or the other.

a)

Fisher's Exact Test for 2x2 Tables

b)

Mood's Median Test

c)

Kolmogorov-Smirnov Two-Sample Test

d)

Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney U Test

84.

All, except one, is used to analyze two independent sample.

a)

Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney U Test

b)

Median Test

c)

Pearson Test

d)

Hodges-Lehmann Test

85.

This is a typical statistical theory which suggests that no statistical relationship and significance exists in a set of given single observed variable.

a)

Null Hypothesis

b)

Alternative Hypothesis

c)

Independent Sample

d)

Dependent Sample

86.

SPSS is a major market occupier in terms of statistical packaging tolls which can efficiently be used as the derivative for the data manipulation or storage. SPSS means...

a)

statistical performance for specific study

b)

solution to problems in statistical study

c)

statistical portfolio to solve statistics

d)

statistical package for social science

87.

One of its advantage is its insensitivity to departures from homogeneity of variance.

a)

Median Test

b)

Fisher's Exact Test

c)

Wilcoxon-Mann Whitney U Test

d)

Kolmogorov-Smirnov Test

88.

This is also known as Mood's Test for two independent samples. It is useful for studies that investigate individual reactions to certain situations, such as medications, diets, therapies, and exercise programs.

a)

Wilcoxon-Rank-Sum Test

b)

Lehmann's Test

c)

U Test

d)

Median Test

89.

This test is more powerful than the median test because the rank of each observation is considered instead of only the relation of a score to the median value in the distribution.

a)

Wilcoxon-Mann-Whitney U test

b)

Fisher's Exact Test

c)

Mood's Median Test

d)

Kolmogorov-Smirnov Test

90.

If there is no difference between the average ranks for the two groups in Wilcoxon Test, then the average group ranks should be approximately equal. However, if the sum of the ranks is quite different in size, then we may suspect that the two groups were not from from the same distribution.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Half True

d)

Half Flase

91.

What is the measure of central tendency that represents the most frequently occurring value in a dataset?

a)

Mode

b)

Median

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Mean

92.

Which distribution is used to model the number of successful events in a fixed interval of time or space?

a)

Poisson Distribution

b)

Exponential Distribution

c)

Normal Distribution

d)

Binomial Distribution

93.

What is the probability of an event A occurring given that event B has already occurred?

a)

Marginal Probability

b)

Bayes' Theorem

c)

Conditional Probability

d)

Joint Probability

94.

Which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant association between two variables?

a)

ANOVA

b)

Fisher's Exact Test

c)

Chi-Square Test

d)

T-Test

95.

What is the measure of the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables?

a)

Covariance

b)

Correlation Coefficient

c)

Coefficient of Determination

d)

Slope of Regression Line

96.

What is the probability distribution used to model the number of successful events in a fixed interval of time or space?

a)

Poisson Distribution

b)

Exponential Distribution

c)

Normal Distribution

d)

Binomial Distribution

97.

Which distribution is commonly used to model the number of occurrences of an event in a fixed interval of time or space?

a)

Poisson Distribution

b)

Exponential Distribution

c)

Normal Distribution

d)

Binomial Distribution

98.

What is the name of the distribution used to represent the number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space?

a)

Poisson Distribution

b)

Exponential Distribution

c)

Normal Distribution

d)

Binomial Distribution

99.

What is the appropriate statistical test to determine if there is a significant difference between the means of two independent groups?

a)

ANOVA

b)

Fisher's Exact Test

c)

Chi-Square Test

d)

T-Test

100.

Which statistical test is used to determine if there is a significant relationship between two categorical variables?

a)

ANOVA

b)

Fisher's Exact Test

c)

Chi-Square Test

d)

T-Test

101.

Which measure of central tendency represents the most common value in a dataset?

a)

Mode

b)

Median

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Mean

102.

What is the statistical measure that represents the most frequently occurring value in a dataset?

a)

Mode

b)

Median

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Mean

103.

What is the measure of central tendency that represents the value that appears most frequently in a dataset?

a)

Mode

b)

Median

c)

Standard Deviation

d)

Mean

104.

What is the probability of an event C occurring given that event D has already occurred?

a)

Marginal Probability

b)

Bayes' Theorem

c)

Conditional Probability

d)

Joint Probability

105.

What is the probability of an event E occurring given that event F has already occurred?

a)

Marginal Probability

b)

Bayes' Theorem

c)

Conditional Probability

d)

Joint Probability

106.

What is the probability of an event G occurring given that event H has already occurred?

a)

Marginal Probability

b)

Bayes' Theorem

c)

Conditional Probability

d)

Joint Probability

107.

Which statistical measure represents the proportion of the variance for a dependent variable that's explained by an independent variable?

a)

Covariance

b)

Correlation Coefficient

c)

Coefficient of Determination

d)

Slope of Regression Line

108.

What is the measure of the steepness of a line that represents the relationship between the independent and dependent variables?

a)

Covariance

b)

Correlation Coefficient

c)

Coefficient of Determination

d)

Slope of Regression Line

109.

What is the statistical measure of the strength and direction of the linear relationship between two variables?

a)

Covariance

b)

Correlation Coefficient

c)

Coefficient of Determination

d)

Slope of Regression Line

110.

In Bayesian statistics, the value equivalent to a p value in Null Hypothesis Significance testing is denoted as:

a)

B

b)

D

c)

K

d)

P

111.

Which of the following statements is true about Bayesian statistical tests?

a)

There is a solid cutoff value for significance/non-significance

b)

H0 is defined as the null hypothesis

c)

The ratio of probabilities is known as the Bayes Inferential (BI)

d)

Measures of Credible Intervals are taken instead of Confidence Intervals

112.

A correlation value of 0.57 between variables x and y suggests that:

a)

As the value of x increases, the value of y increases

b)

As the value of x increases, the value of y decreases

c)

There is no relationship between variables x and y

d)

Impossible to tell from this information

113.

I want to investigate whether attendance, previous exam marks, and attitudes towards statistics will predict scores obtained in a statistics exam. What type of analysis should I conduct with the data I have collected?

a)

Simple linear regression

b)

Multiple linear regression

c)

Pearson's r correlation

d)

Spearman's rho correlation

114.

After conducting a simple linear regression on a dataset, I am given an R squared value of 0.37. What percentage of variance in my outcome variable can be explained by the predictor variable in my model?

a)

0.37%

b)

3.7%

c)

37%

d)

0.037%

115.

Which of the following is not an assumption that should be met when conducting a Pearson's correlation?

a)

There should be an absence of significant outliers.

b)

The relationship between x and y should form a curved line.

c)

Variables x and y should be continuous.

d)

Each participant or observation should have a related pair of values.

116.

A company tries to advertise their latest product using Facebook adverts, and finds no increase in product sales. They decide not to do this again because they believe this method of advertising does not work. However, a second company uses the same advertising method and sees an increase in product sales. What kind of error did company one make?

a)

Type I error

b)

Type II error

c)

Standard error

d)

No error

117.

The unexplained variance in a between groups ANOVA is:

a)

Residual variance

b)

Variance between groups

c)

Variance within groups

d)

Variance from the population

118.

A table showing how often observations fall within a particular category is also known as a:

a)

Contingency table

b)

Frequency table

c)

Cumulative frequency table

d)

Expected values table

119.

For a Chi-square analysis, we reject the null hypothesis when the observed value is:

a)

The same as the critical Chi-square value

b)

Less than the critical Chi-square value

c)

Greater than the critical Chi-square value

d)

Twice as high as the critical Chi-square value

120.

When all the values in a distribution are the same, the variance is ___________.

a)

one

b)

zero

c)

maximum

d)

cannot be determined

121.

Which of the following is CORRECT about the variance?

a)

The smaller the variance, the more heterogenous are the data values.

b)

The bigger the variance, the data tends to deviate less from the mean.

c)

The lesser the variance, the data values tend to deviate more from the mean.

d)

The bigger the variance, the data values tend to deviate more from the mean.

122.

Which among the following is NOT true about the measures of variation?

a)

It is also known as measures of spread.

b)

The lower the variability the lesser the spread of scores.

c)

The higher the variability the higher the spread of scores.

d)

It does not tell us that the scores are compressed or spread out.

123.

The average score in the test of section A is 36. Section B also gained the same average scores on the same test. However, section A has a standard deviation of 3.8 while section B has a standard deviation of 1.9. In which section are the scores less dispersed?

a)

section A

b)

section B

c)

no enough information

d)

could not be determined

124.

A financial analyst sampled the top six companies' book value (in billions of pesos). They are:

7, 15, 18, 22, 25, 33

Approximately, what is the sample mean, as well as the sample standard deviation?

a)

20 and 7.2 respectively

b)

20 and 8.9 respectively

c)

120 and 9.2 respectively

d)

120 and 8.9 respectively

125.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Group A is more varied than Group B because the sample size is larger.

b)

Group A is less varied than Group B because Group A's standard deviation is bigger.

c)

Group A is less varied than Group B because its standard deviation per animal is smaller.

d)

Group A is relatively less varied than Group B because Group A's coefficient of variation is smaller.

126.

Which of the following is a statistical method that measures the strength of the linear relationship between two variables?

a)

z-value

b)

scatterplot

c)

testing hypothesis

d)

Pearson correlation

127.

In the Pearson r, what does n represent?

a)

sum of x-values

b)

sum of square x-values

c)

number of paired values

d)

sum of the products of paired values x and y

128.

Which of the following values CANNOT represent a correlation coefficient r ?

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

0.35

d)

1.05

129.

Which of the following is the range of the correlation coefficient (r)?

a)

-1 < r < 1

b)

-1 ≤ r ≤ 1

c)

0 ≤ r ≤ 1

d)

1 ≤ r ≤ -1

130.

Which among the choices is the correct completed table?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.

What conclusion can the researcher draw based on the scatter plot?

a)

The variables do not correlate.

b)

The variables have a strong correlation.

c)

The variables have a perfect correlation.

d)

The variables have a moderate correlation.

132.

Given the bivariate data table below what will be the value of r?

a)

-0.5

b)

-0.25

c)

0.75

d)

0.95

133.

What is assumed to be its ρ?

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

1

d)

2

134.

If you have two values tied for the 10th and the 11th place, then what rank do you put for both of them?

a)

10

b)

10.5

c)

11

d)

11.5

135.

The spearman's rank correlation coefficient for the Grade 9 STATISTICS and CONSUMER CHEMISTRY scores is 0.91. Which of the following is true?

a)

There is a weak positive correlation.

b)

There is a weak negative correlation.

c)

There is a strong positive correlation.

d)

There is a strong negative correlation.

136.

Spearman's correlation coefficient computation is unique in what way?

a)

It can be used with more than two variables at a time.

b)

It uses the differences in the data as part of the calculation.

c)

It uses the ranked value of the input data as part of the calculation.

d)

It is better at handling random data than other correlation techniques.

137.

What assumption about the data is measured by Spearman's correlation coefficient in comparison to Pearson's correlation calculation?

a)

That the data is random

b)

That the data has a linear trend

c)

That the data has a monotonic trend

d)

That the data has an exponential trend

138.

When will the prediction of an individual's score on the criterion variable based on our knowledge of this individual's value on the predictor variable be more accurate?

a)

When there is no correlation between the two variables.

b)

When the correlation between the two variables is weak.

c)

When the correlation between the two variables is strong.

d)

When the correlation between the two variables is moderate.

139.

What is the possible interpretation of the

ρ = -0.38?

a)

Low Positive Correlation, as the variable increases, the other variable partially increases.

b)

Low Positive Correlation, as the variable increases, the other variable partially decreases.

c)

Low Negative Correlation, as the variable increases, the other variable partially increases.

d)

Low Negative Correlation, as the variable increases, the other variable partially decreases.

140.

What is the Spearman rank correlation coefficient?

a)

0.1636

b)

0.794

c)

0.8364

d)

0.8606

141.

What is the set of statistical methods used to describe the relationship between independent variables and a dependent variable?

a)

regression analysis

b)

regression equation

c)

regression form

d)

regression line

142.

A researcher is investigating the relationship between the number of hours students study per week and their scores on a standardized test. What is the independent variable (x) in this study?

a)

The students

b)

The standardized test score

c)

The number of hours studied per week

d)

The relationship between study time and test scores

143.

What is the estimated slope of the regression equation?

a)

– 213.2

b)

– 1.56

c)

1.56

d)

213.2

144.

What is the y-intercept of the regression equation?

a)

– 213.2

b)

1.56

c)

– 1.56

d)

213.2

145.

What is the regression equation based on the data given?

a)

ŷ = – 213.2 – 1.56x

b)

ŷ = – 213.2 + 1.56x

c)

ŷ = 213.2 – 1.56x

d)

ŷ = 213.2 + 1.56x

146.

What is the average number of potato chips sold if the price of a bag of potato chips is ₱ 75.00?

a)

56

b)

65

c)

76

d)

96

147.

The linear regression equation is y = 61.93x - 1.79. Use the equation to predict how far this person will travel after 5 hours of driving.

a)

307.86 miles

b)

0.19 miles

c)

10 miles

d)

500 miles

148.

If the regression equation is ŷ = -4 + 5x, how would you predict the value of

the dependent variable if the value of the independent variable is 5?

a)

Solve for x using the slope formula.

b)

Solve for y using the slope formula.

c)

Substitute ŷ = 5 into ŷ = -4 + 5x and solve.

d)

Substitute x = 5 into ŷ = -4 + 5x and solve.

149.

Colgate is one of the manufacturers of toothpaste which uses a machine to dispense liquid ingredients into bottles that move along a filling line. The owner claims that the machine can dispense at an average of 50 grams with a standard deviation of 0.7 grams. A sample of 35 bottles was selected and it was found that the average amount dispensed in the sample was 49.3 grams. Test the claims of the owner of the company at a 5% level of significance.

What test statistic will be used from the situation given?

a)

t-test

b)

z-test

c)

population mean

d)

standard deviation

150.

Colgate is one of the manufacturers of toothpaste which uses a machine to dispense liquid ingredients into bottles that move along a filling line. The owner claims that the machine can dispense at an average of 50 grams with a standard deviation of 0.7 grams. A sample of 35 bottles was selected and it was found that the average amount dispensed in the sample was 49.3 grams. Test the claims of the owner of the company at a 5% level of significance.

Which of the following information is CORRECT?

a)

𝛼 = 0.5

b)

𝜎 = 0.7

c)

𝑥̅ = 35

d)

𝜇 = 49.3

151.

Based on the situation given, what is the computed value?

a)

-5.916

b)

-4.950

c)

4.950

d)

5.916

152.

A coffee shop needs to produce bottles that will hold 12 ounces of liquid. Periodically, the company gets complaints that their bottles are not holding enough liquid. To test this claim, the bottling company randomly sampled 36 bottles. Suppose the p-value of this test turned out to be 0.0455. State the proper conclusion.

a)

At α = 0.05, reject the null hypothesis.

b)

At α = 0.025, reject the null hypothesis.

c)

At α = 0.035, accept the null hypothesis.

d)

At α = 0.085, fail to reject the null hypothesis.

153.

An investigator randomly assigns 30 college students into three equal size study groups (early- morning, afternoon, late-night) to determine if the period of the day at which people study affects their retention. The students live in a controlled environment for one week, on the third day of the experimental treatment is administered (study of predetermined material). On the seventh day the investigator tests for retention. In computing his ANOVA table, he sees that his MS within groups is larger than his MS between groups. What does this result indicate?

a)

An error in the calculations was made.

b)

There should have been additional controls in the experiment.

c)

There was more than the expected amount of variability between groups.

d)

There was more variability between subjects within the same group than there was between groups.

154.

A botanist is studying the growth of a particular species of plant. A previous study indicated that the average height of the plant at maturity was 15 inches. The botanist suspects that a new fertilizer might increase the average height. They take a random sample of 25 plants grown with the new fertilizer and measure their heights. Let μ represent the average height of this plant species grown with the new fertilizer.

Which of the following is the appropriate set of hypotheses for the botanist's significance test?

a)

H₀: μ = 15 inches Hₐ: μ < 15 inches

b)

H₀: μ = 15 inches Hₐ: μ > 15 inches

c)

H₀: μ = 15 inches Hₐ: μ ≠ 15 inches

d)

H₀: μ > 15 inches Hₐ: μ = 15 inches

155.

A light bulb manufacturer claims that its light bulbs have a mean life of 40,000 km. A random sample of 46 of these light bulbs is tested and the sample mean is 38,000 km. Assume that the population’s standard deviation is 2,000 km and the lives of the light bulbs are approximately normally distributed. Determine the computed value at 5% level of significance.

a)

-6.782

b)

-3.033

c)

3.033

d)

6.782

156.

A researcher is studying the effects of three different types of background music (classical, pop, and no music) on test performance. Participants are randomly assigned to one of the three groups, and their test scores are recorded. Which statistical test is most appropriate for comparing the average test scores of the three groups?

a)

t-test

b)

chi-square test

c)

ANOVA (analysis of variance)

d)

correlation coefficient

157.

The null hypothesis for an ANOVA states that __________.

a)

All of the population means are different from each other.

b)

There are no differences between any of the population means.

c)

At least one of the population means is different from the others.

d)

There are some differences between any of the population means.

158.

What two pieces of information are needed to determine the critical value?

a)

MSb, MSw

b)

Sample size, number of groups

c)

Mean, sample standard deviation.

d)

Expected frequency, obtained frequency.

159.

A researcher is investigating the effectiveness of four different learning methods (online modules, in-person lectures, group projects, and self-study) on student test scores. Students are randomly assigned to one of the four methods. What type of ANOVA test is most appropriate to analyze the data?

a)

One-Way ANOVA

b)

Two-Way ANOVA

c)

Three-Way ANOVA

d)

Four-Way ANOVA

160.

A researcher is studying the effects of four different fertilizers on plant growth. Four groups of plants are grown, each receiving a different fertilizer. After a set period, the height of each plant is measured.


If the researcher conducts an ANOVA test on the plant height data, what will a significant F-statistic indicate?

a)

The fertilizers have no effect on plant growth.

b)

All four fertilizers have significantly different effects on plant growth.

c)

There is no significant difference in plant growth between the four groups.

d)

At least one fertilizer has a significantly different effect on plant growth compared to the others.

161.

A medical researcher is testing a new diagnostic test for a rare disease.

Null Hypothesis (H0): The person does not have the disease.

Alternative Hypothesis (H1): The person has the disease.

The researcher tests a patient.

When is a Type I error committed?

a)

The test is positive, and the patient has the disease.

b)

The test is negative, and the patient does not have the disease.

c)

The test is negative, but the patient has the disease.

d)

The test is positive, but the patient does not have the disease.

162.

What is the statistical method used in making decisions using experimental data?

a)

Simple analysis

b)

Analytical testing

c)

Hypothesis testing

d)

Experimental testing

163.

If the coefficient determination is 0.95, what does it mean?

a)

95% of the y values are positive.

b)

95% of the y values are negative.

c)

95% of the y values are predicted correctly by the model.

d)

95% of the variation in y can be explained by the variation in x.

164.
Sources of Data Collection
a)
Interview and observation
b)
Questionnaires and survey
c)
Primary sources and secondary sources
d)
Books and journal
165.
What is primary sources?
a)
Data gather from previous research
b)
Your own data collection from own investigation
c)
The first data acquired 
d)
Your own created data