wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology Semester 2

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As cells grow in size, which of the following does not change?

a)

The surface area

b)

The volume

c)

The surface area to volume ratio

d)

The distance solutes diffuse into the cell

2.

Choose the following statement that is most correct:

a)

As a cell grows, cell surface area increases at a faster rate than cell volume

b)

As a cell grows, cell volume increases at a faster rate than cell surface area

c)

As a cell grows, cell surface area and cell volume increase at the same rate

d)

As a cell grows, cell volume and cell surface area decrease at the same rate.

3.

Which of the following is not a reason cells divide?

a)

To Maintain a surface area to volume ratio that allows for efficient diffusion

b)

To Replace dead cells

c)

To increase the chromosome number

d)

To allow the organism to grow

4.

During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA duplicated?

a)

M

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

5.

During what phase does the cell spend most of its life?

a)

Cytokinesis phase

b)

M phase

c)

Interphase

d)

Prophase

6.

A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical strands of coiled up DNA. What are these strands called?

a)

Sister chromatids

b)

Alleles

c)

Centrioles

d)

Centromeres

7.

What is the proper order of phases in mitosis?

a)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

c)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase

8.

During mitosis, chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell. During what phase does this occur?

a)

Telophase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

9.

During mitosis, the nuclear membrane reforms and the DNA unwinds. During what phase does this occur?

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

10.

The Picture above best represents a cell in which phase of mitosis?

a)

Telophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

11.

Which of the following best describes the results of mitosis?

a)

4 daughter cells with half of the original cells chromosomes

b)

2 daughter cells, each identical to the original cell

c)

24 daughter cells, 12 identical to the original, and 12 different form the original

d)

2 daughter cells with twice the chromosomes of the original

12.

What’s cancer?

a)

An inability to clot blood

b)

Loss of nerve function over time

c)

3 copies of chromosome number 15

d)

Uncontrolled cell reproduction

13.

What are proteins that regulate the cell cycle called?

a)

Cell Captains

b)

Factor VIII

c)

Lysine, Leucine and Theorine

d)

Cyclins

14.

What does a tumor suppressor gene do?

a)

Slows down cell reproduction

b)

Causes cancer

c)

Causes a biopsy

d)

Triggers chemotherapy

15.

What happens when a cancerous tumor metastasizes?

a)

It stops growing

b)

It grows faster

c)

Part of the tumor breaks off and moves to another part of the body spreading the cancer

d)

Its replicated by a PCR machine

16.

Cancer can be treated by using chemicals to kill off cancerous cells. What is this called?

a)

Radiotherapy

b)

Stem Cell Therapy

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Immunotherapy

17.

What kind of cells does meiosis produce?

a)

Body cells

b)

Diploid cells

c)

Haploid cells

d)

Exact duplicate cells

18.

Humans have a diploid number of 46. What is a human’s haploid number?

a)

92

b)

46

c)

23

d)

4

19.

Which phase of meiosis does the picture above most accurately represent?

a)

Metaphase II

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

20.

During which phase of meiosis are sister chromatids separated?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Anaphase I

21.

During what phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Prophase I

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

22.

Cells containing two alleles for each trait are best described as:

a)

Gametes

b)

Haploid

c)

Diploid

d)

Gonads

23.

When two haploid cells come together in fertilization, what is formed?

a)

Sperm

b)

Egg

c)

Zygote

d)

Ovary

24.

Normal human genetic males have a chromosome combination of XY. Normal human genetic females have a chromosome combination of XX. What is the probability of a male and a female human having an offspring that is male?

a)

¼ or 25%

b)

½ or 50%

c)

1/8 or 12.5%

25.

What is the probability of a man and a woman having 3 male offspring in a row?

a)

¼ or 25%

b)

1/8 or 12.5%

c)

½ or 50%

d)

1 or 100%

26.

If the couple from the problem above were to have a 4th child, what is the probability that the 4th child would be male?

a)

1/8 or 12.5%

b)

½ or 50%

c)

¼ or 25%

d)

1/16 or 6.2%

27.

Why does Gregor Mendel have his picture in almost every high school Biology textbook?

a)

He discovered that genetic traits were passed from one generation to another by “factors.”

b)

He discovered natural selection

c)

He took an x ray photograph of a DNA molecule

d)

He invented chemotherapy.

28.

If your grandma is the P generation, who are you?

a)

F1

b)

F2

c)

P

d)

P1

29.

What is the law of segregation?

a)

One gene is independent of another gene as long as they are on different chromosomes

b)

One allele may be dominant over another

c)

Alleles separate during meiosis to different gametes

d)

The more pea plants you grow, the less your deviation will be.

30.

TT is best described as a:

a)

Archetype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genotype

d)

Prototype

31.

Which of the following is heterozygous?

a)

Yy

b)

YY

c)

TT

d)

rr

32.

Which of the following would have a short wrinkled green phenotype?

a)

TtRrYy

b)

TTRRYy

c)

ttrryy

d)

Ttrryy

33.

Cross a heterozygous tall pea plant with another heterozygous tall pea plant. What would the expected percentage of tall pea plant offspring be?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

75%

34.

A yellow pea plant and a green pea plant (P generation) are crossed and 100 offspring (F1) are observed. Here is what they looked like: Yellow Peas: 55 plants Green Peas: 45 plants. What are the most likely genotypes of the P generation?

a)

Yy x Yy

b)

YY x Yy

c)

yy x Yy

d)

yy x YY

35.

A yellow pea plant and a green pea plant (P generation) are crossed and 100 offspring (F1) are observed. Here is what they looked like: Yellow Peas: 55 plants Green Peas: 45 plants. What is the deviation in the problem above?

a)

50

b)

.2

c)

.1

d)

5

36.

A heterozygous tall, heterozygous round pea is crossed with a heterozygous tall wrinkled pea. What are the correct genotypes for this cross?

a)

TtRr x TtRr

b)

TtRr x Ttrr

c)

TTRR x TtRr

d)

TtRR x Ttrr

37.

A heterozygous tall, heterozygous round pea is crossed with a heterozygous tall wrinkled pea. What is the chance of a tall wrinkled offspring?

a)

9/16

b)

6/16 or 3/8

c)

3/16

d)

1/16

38.

A woman has type B blood, her mother was type O. If this woman has a child with a man who has type O blood, what are the possible genotypes of the child?

a)

100% oo

b)

100% Bo

c)

½ Bo, ½ oo

d)

¾ Bo, ¼ oo

39.

A man has type A blood and he has a child with a woman with type AB blood. Which of the following blood types is not a possible type for their child?

a)

B

b)

A

c)

AB

d)

O

40.

What term best describes human blood types?

a)

Polygenetic

b)

Incomplete dominant

c)

Multiple alleles

d)

100% dominant

41.

Color blindness is a X linked recessive trait. If a normal sighted woman whose father was color blind has a child with a normal sighted man, what is the probability that they will have a color blind child?

a)

100%

b)

1/2

c)

3/4

d)

1/4

42.

Huntington Disease is an autosomal dominant disease in humans. If a Heterozygous male has a child with a woman who does not have the disease, which of the following statements would be true?

a)

The male parent has the disease and there is a 50% chance his child will inherit it.

b)

The female parent has the disease and there is a 50% chance her child will inherit it.

c)

There is a 25% chance the child will have the disease

d)

There is a 100% chance the child will have the disease.

43.

A RR red flower is crossed with a R’R’ (or WW) white flower. The F1 generation of flowers are RR’ (or RW) pink. What type of inheritance is this an example of?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Polygenic

d)

X linked

44.

People with blue eyes have a genotype of Aabbcc. What kind of inheritance is this an example of?

a)

Multiple alleles

b)

X linked

c)

Incomplete dominance

d)

Polygenic

45.

Some people inherit a X linked recessive trait and their blood lacks the ability to clot and stop bleeding. What is this condition called?

a)

Hemophilia

b)

Polydactyly

c)

Huntington Disease

d)

Marfan syndrome

46.

A female human is diagnosed with a rare genetic disease. Neither of her parents have the disease. How might the child have inherited the disease?

a)

The disease is dominant and carried by at least one parent.

b)

The disease is sex linked and inherited only from the father

c)

It’s impossible, one of her “parents” cannot be her biological parent.

d)

The disease is recessive and carried by both parents.

47.

Which of the following genetic disorders can be detected by analyzing the person’s chromosome number?

a)

Tay Sachs

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Sickle cell anemia

48.

What’s a Karyotype?

a)

A diagram showing a human and all of his or her relatives that have or carry a genetic disease

b)

A picture of a human’s chromosomes in metaphase

c)

A perfect example of a person carrying a genetic disease

d)

When a person sings along with prerecorded music.

49.

The failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis is called:

a)

X chromosome inactivation

b)

Sticky centromere syndrome

c)

Tetrad disconnect failure

d)

Nondisjunction

50.

A person with Klinefelter syndrome would have which of the following genotypes?

a)

YY

b)

XY

c)

XXX

d)

XXY

51.

Because the gene for red green color blindness is located on the X chromosome, which of the following is not possible?

a)

A carrier mother to pass the gene on to her daughter

b)

A color blind father to pass the gene on to his son

c)

A carrier mother to pass the gene on to her son

d)

A color blind father to pass the gene on to his daughter.

52.

What will individual 9 look like?

a)

They will not have any melanin in their skin and have pink eyes

b)

They will have 6 toes and fingers

c)

They will not be able to digest phenylalanine.

d)

Their blood will not be able to clot and stop bleeding.

53.

What is the relationship between individual 17 and 6?

a)

6 is 17’s grandparent

b)

6 is 17’s great uncle

c)

17 is 6’s second cousin

d)

17 and 6 are not genetically related.

54.

How many of individual 6 and 7’s offspring are female?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

2

d)

0

55.

What is the genotype of individual 6?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

Aa or AA

56.

What is the genotype of individual 6?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHXh

c)

XhY

d)

XHY

57.

Which statement best describes the picture above?

a)

It’s a double helix and its DNA

b)

It’s a single helix and its RNA

c)

It’s a double helix and its RNA

d)

It’s a single helix and its DNA

58.

In what way is DNA the "instructions for life?"

a)

DNA is the molecule that the cell uses to attack other cells

b)

The cell uses DNA to make proteins, and then uses the proteins to do many important things.

c)

The cell uses DNA to digest food and build cell walls

d)

The cell reads DNA like a computer reads a program. This "program" is made up of more and more DNA strands.

59.

How many nucleotides are there in a codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

60.

1 codon codes for how many amino acids?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

Where does translation happen?

a)

The nucleus

b)

The ribosome

c)

The Golgi Apparatus

d)

The DNA factory

62.

What is the process of producing a mRNA molecule from a sequence of DNA called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

d)

Reproduction

63.

What are cytosine, thymine, uracil, adenine and guanine called?

a)

Phosphates

b)

5 carbon sugars

c)

Nitrogen bases

d)

Amino acids

64.

Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide?

a)

Phosphates

b)

5 carbon sugars

c)

Nitrogen bases

d)

Amino acids

65.

Which of the following correctly describes a protein?

a)

A. A string of connected amino acids

b)

B. A long chain of nucleotides

c)

C. 5 carbon atoms in a ring

d)

D. A double helix

66.

What is the correct complimentary DNA sequence from the following Nucleotides?

a)

TAG ACT CGA

b)

ATC TGA GCT

c)

ATC TGC GAG

d)

AUC UGA GCU

67.

What is the correct complimentary mRNA sequence form the following DNA sequence?

a)

CUG UAU GAA

b)

CTG TAT GAA

c)

GAC ATA CTT

d)

CUG UUU GUU

68.

Which codons code for the amino acid Aspartic Acid?

a)

CAG, UAG

b)

GAG, GAA

c)

AAA, GGG

d)

GAC, GAU

69.

Why is there no T in the diagram?

a)

DNA does not have T

b)

Because it would confuse Threonine with Thiamine

c)

RNA does not have T

d)

Because T = G/A

70.

What does a restriction enzyme do?

a)

Manufactures DNA

b)

Synthesizes proteins

c)

Cuts DNA

d)

“Unzips” DNA

71.

What does a PCR machine do?

a)

Makes copies of DNA

b)

Destroys DNA

c)

Brings in amino acids to match with the codons

d)

Separates DNA from RNA

72.

Which of the following is DNA fingerprinting not used for?

a)

Identify a suspect in a criminal case

b)

Identify the shape of a DNA molecule

c)

Identify a parent in a paternity case

d)

Identify human remains

73.

How old is the earth?

a)

4.6 million years

b)

46 million years

c)

4.6 billion years

d)

46 billion years

74.

In the above diagram, which rock layer would contain the oldest fossils?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.

The Fossil above is found 1000 miles away in rock layer X. Chose the following statement that is most correct:

a)

Rock Layer X is younger than rock layer D.

b)

Rock Layer X is older than rock layer A.

c)

Rock layer X is the same age as rock layer F.

d)

Rock layer X is younger than rock layer B.

76.

When Darwin published the Origin of Species, he included all of the following ideas except:

a)

The idea that there are variations of traits within a population

b)

The idea that organisms produce a greater number of offspring than can survive

c)

Species change over time by natural selection

d)

The idea that only the physically strongest individuals survive

77.

What’s natural selection?

a)

A method for determining the age of a fossil

b)

The traits an organism acquires during its lifetime are passed on to offspring

c)

Features that are observed on earth like the Grand Canyon are the product of processes that can be continually observed on earth.

d)

Organisms with traits that are well suited to their environment will have more offspring than organisms with traits that are not well suited to their environment.

78.

Charles Darwin collected many species during his voyage on the Beagle. Which species would he eventually use as a key example of natural selection?

a)

Finches from the Galapagos Islands

b)

Elephants from India

c)

Polar bears from Alaska

d)

Giraffes from Africa

79.

Why do Peacocks have such big colorful tails?

a)

It enables them to have more offspring

b)

It allows them hide from predators

c)

It enables them to run faster

d)

It enables them to fly higher

80.

A scientist collects 8 different looking salamanders. What would be the best way to tell if they were the same species or not?

a)

Record which salamanders look the most similar

b)

Weigh them to find the salamanders that are most similar in mass

c)

Mate them with each other to see if they can have healthy offspring.

d)

Feed them food to see which salamanders eat the same type of food.

81.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a)

The pelvis of the whale

b)

The Beak of the Galapagos finch

c)

The wings of the Peppered Moth

d)

The beard of Charles Darwin

82.

The diagram shows the arrangement of bones on 4 different modern mammals. What is this an example of?

a)

Artificial selection

b)

Homologous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Fossil evidence of evolution

83.

Here are 4 fossils. Which one is most likely the most recent common ancestor of all 4 organisms in the diagram?

a)

A.

b)

B.

c)

C.

d)

D.

84.

Which of the following is true about a salamander embryo and a human embryo at a certain time in each’s development?

a)

They both have opposable thumbs

b)

They both have stripes like a zebra

c)

They have nothing in common

d)

They both have a tail

85.

Polar Bears and Grizzly bears share a common ancestor. Polar Bears have smaller ears than Grizzly bears so they will not freeze in cold temperatures. What is this an example of?

a)

Vestigial structure

b)

Homologous structure

c)

Adaptation

d)

Fossilization

86.

What is the best explanation of how Polar Bears have genes for small ears and Grizzly bears don’t?

a)

Recessive genes

b)

Dominant genes

c)

Mutations

d)

Artificial selection

87.

Use this diagram to answer the next 2 questions: Choose the statement that is most correct:

a)

A. Humans and chimps share a common ancestor

b)

B. Humans evolved from chimps

c)

C. Humans and chimps are not genetically related

d)

D. Humans evolved from Bonobos