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Medical Quiz P1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the group of smoking men, sick people are 3 times more likely than in the group of non-smoking men. It is stated by:

a)

Relative Risk

b)

Odds Ratio

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Specificity

e)

Odd

2.

A study is conducted to determine the efficacy of influenza vaccine. Subjects agree to participate for two years. During the first year, subjects are randomly assigned to be injected with either an inert substance (a placebo) or the active vaccine. During the second year, each subject who previously received the placebo is given the active vaccine, and each subject who previously received the active vaccine is given the placebo. Each subject serves as his or her own control. All incident cases of influenza are recorded, and the occurrence of influenza when unvaccinated is compared with the occurrence when unvaccinated. The appropriate test of significance for this study is the:

a)

Kaplan-Meier method

b)

Kruskal-Wallis test

c)

Mann-Whitney U test

d)

McNemar test

e)

Pearson correlation coefficient

3.

The lifestyle of an individual aimed at preventing diseases and promoting health is:

a)

Healthy lifestyle

b)

Philosophy of life

c)

Rule of personal life

d)

Aspect of life

e)

Developmental element

4.

The population of city V. in the reporting year was 100 thousand people. Including: children aged 0 to 14 – 18 160, persons over 50 years old – 32 000. Determine the type of age structure of the population of city V.

a)

Regressive

b)

Dynamic

c)

Stationary

d)

Progressive

e)

Mixed

5.

The transmission factor of the pathogen in viral hepatitis B:

a)

medical instruments

b)

water

c)

food products

d)

air

e)

blood-sucking insects

6.

At the clinic, at the reception, the doctor suspected bubonic plague in the patient, who lives in the zone of the natural plague outbreak and was engaged in hunting tarbagans. The patient lives in a private house. There are 4 people in the family – they all live together. Choose an event for the patient:

a)

hospitalization for epidemic indications

b)

hospitalization according to clinical indications

c)

mandatory admission to the boxing hospital at home

d)

treat on an outpatient basis

7.

There is a boy in the perinatal center, 3 days old. According to his mother, the pregnancy proceeded smoothly. From the neurosonogram data: an increase in the lateral and third ventricles of the brain, which indicates difficulty in the outflow of cerebrospinal fluid from the third ventricle. Name the communication channel between the III and IV ventricles.

a)

Interventricular foramina

b)

Cerebral aqueduct (Sylvius)

c)

Lateral holes

d)

Median hole

e)

Central channel

8.

In a human embryo of 6-8 weeks of development, the spinal ganglia are represented by very large pseudounipolar neurons with processes, surrounded by oligodendroglia. Name the source of development of the spinal nodes:

a)

Truncal section of the neural tube

b)

Brain vesicle stage

c)

Ganglion plate

d)

The mantle layer of the neural tube

e)

Cranial neural tube

9.

A patient with a traumatic brain injury was found to have hemorrhage due to damage to the pia mater. Name the source of development of the pia mater:

a)

Truncal section of the neural tube

b)

Brain vesicle stage

c)

Ganglion plate

d)

The mantle layer of the neural tube

e)

Mesenchyme

10.

A 36 year old patient during operations, thyroid resection, had a respiratory disorder, and hoarseness of voice appeared. Which nerve was damaged during the operation?

a)

Glossopharyngeal

b)

Sublingual

c)

Recurrent laryngeal

d)

Accessory

e)

Superior laryngeal

11.

In purulent-inflammatory diseases of the middle ear, in the absence of medical care, the purulent process can spread into the pharynx. Through what anatomical formation will the purulent process pass from the tympanic cavity into the pharynx?

a)

Auditory tube

b)

Tympanic canaliculus

c)

Internal auditory meatus

d)

Facial canal

e)

Carotid canal

12.

With severe crying (lacrimation), due to the presence of anatomical communication between the eye socket and the nasal cavity, transparent nasal discharge appears. What anatomical formation connects the eye socket and the nasal cavity?

a)

Nasolacrimal canal

b)

Greater palatine canal

c)

Pterygoid canal

d)

Sphenopalatine foramen

e)

Superior orbital fissure

13.

During the examination of the heart, the doctor found a deterioration of venous blood flow in the pool of the coronary sinus of the heart. Where is the coronary sinus of the heart located?

a)

In the coronal sulcus

b)

In the posterior interventricular sulcus

c)

In the anterior interventricular sulcus

d)

At the apex of the heart

e)

On the sternocostal surface

14.

The patient suffers from allergic rhinitis. Exacerbations occur annually in July-August. What is the mechanism of development of this disease?

a)

reaginic (type I hypersensitivity)

b)

complement system defect

c)

cytotoxic (type II hypersensitivity)

d)

immunocomplex (type III hypersensitivity)

e)

delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV hypersensitivity)

15.

On the basis of the patient's brain, an extensive pituitary tumor was diagnosed, which compressed the arteries forming a closed arterial ring. Which major artery is involved in the formation of this ring?

a)

Maxillary

b)

Internal carotid

c)

External carotid

d)

Facial

e)

General carotid

16.

A patient has been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) during an examination. Which immune cells are damaged by HIV?

a)

leucocytes

b)

lymphocytes

c)

T-helpers

d)

T-killers

e)

B-lymphocytes

17.

A patient with a closed comminuted fracture of the 1st rib with displacement turned to the trauma center, as a result of which a large artery located in the spatium interscalenum was injured. Which artery passes through the spatium interscalenum?

a)

Internal carotid

b)

External carotid

c)

Subclavian

d)

Vertebral

e)

Axillary

18.

Which artery supplies blood to the thoracic esophagus?

a)

Thoracic aorta

b)

Abdominal aorta

c)

Internal carotid

d)

External carotid

e)

Subclavian

19.

The patient was diagnosed with an ECG infarction of the anterior wall of the left ventricle of the heart. Which artery is affected?

a)

Posterior interventricular

b)

Anterior interventricular

c)

Mediastinal

d)

Internal thoracic

e)

Pericardial – diaphragmatic

20.

Which branch of the artery is the common hepatic artery?

a)

Coeliac trunk

b)

Superior mesenteric

c)

Inferior mesenteric

d)

Gastroduodenal

e)

Renal

21.

Which artery supplies blood to the spleen?

a)

Superior mesenteric

b)

Inferior mesenteric

c)

Renal

d)

Hepatic

e)

Coeliac trunk

22.

Branches of which arteries supply blood to the rectum?

a)

Inferior mesenteric and internal iliac

b)

Superior mesenteric and splenic

c)

Coeliac trunk and superior mesenteric

d)

Renal and testicular

e)

Renal and adrenal

23.

Branches of which artery supply blood to the prostate gland?

a)

Internal iliac

b)

External iliac

c)

Superior mesenteric

d)

Inferior mesenteric

e)

Renal

24.

As a result of an occupational injury, the victim received a cut wound to the first finger of the hand, resulting in damage to the artery located in the anatomical snuffbox. Which artery was damaged?

a)

Brachial

b)

Anterior interosseous

c)

Ulnar

d)

Radial

e)

Posterior interosseous

25.

Define the type of hypersensitivity in this pathology.

a)

reaginic (type I hypersensitivity)

b)

complement system defect

c)

cytotoxic (type II hypersensitivity)

d)

immunocomplex (type III hypersensitivity)

e)

delayed-type hypersensitivity (type IV hypersensitivity)

26.

What is this artery?

a)

Femoral

b)

Tibial

c)

Fibular

d)

Common iliac

e)

Internal iliac

27.

Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs?

a)

In segmental bronchi

b)

In lobular bronchi

c)

In terminal bronchioles

d)

In main bronchi

e)

In acinus

28.

In which is the deepest sinus of the pleural cavity possible for its accumulation?

a)

Posterior costal-mediastinal

b)

Posterior diaphragmatic-mediastinal

c)

Costal-diaphragmatic

d)

Anterior costal-mediastinal

e)

Anterior diaphragmatic-mediastinal

29.

Which organ is located in front of the esophagus according to its syntopy?

a)

Left main bronchus

b)

Right main bronchus

c)

Trachea

d)

Thymus

e)

Thoracic aorta

30.

When probing the duodenum, the doctor could not penetrate from the stomach into the cavity of the duodenum due to the tumor. In which part of the stomach is the tumor localized?

a)

Cardiac foramen

b)

Pyloric opening

c)

Ileocecal opening

d)

Major papilla

e)

Lesser papilla

31.

From which salivary glands will saliva be difficult to secrete?

a)

Parotid and buccal

b)

Parotid and palatine

c)

Lingual and parotid

d)

Sublingual and submandibular

e)

Sublingual and buccal

32.

In what part of the stomach is the tumor located?

a)

Pyloric

b)

Cardiac

c)

Areas of minor curvature

d)

Areas of great curvature

e)

In the body area

33.

What anatomical formations are located in the sinus of the kidney?

a)

Bertinian columns

b)

Malpighian corpuscles

c)

Renal pyramids

d)

Small and large cups, pelvis

e)

Henle loops

34.

A patient has follicular sore throat. Which immunoglobulin is habitually the first to be activated in the immune response to an antigen, and activates complement?

a)

IgM, IgG1

b)

IgM, IgA

c)

IgM, IgE

d)

IgA, IgE

e)

IgD, IgG

35.

When examining a newborn boy immediately after birth in the perinatal center, there are no skin covers below the navel, the mucous membrane of the bladder is determined, moderately hyperemic, the mouths of the ureters are visualized. What is located in front of the bladder according to its syntopia?

a)

Pubic symphysis

b)

Rectum

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Seminal vesicles

e)

Vas deferens

36.

As a result of injury to the pubic bones of the pelvis, the victim suffered a displacement in the symphysis area. Which internal organ function may be impaired with this injury?

a)

Bladder

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Rectum

e)

Ovary

37.

Upon examination by a pediatrician of a newborn boy after childbirth, the absence of a testicle on the right (monarchism) was found. Specify in which month of the intrauterine period does the testicle descend?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

e)

8

38.

A 30 year old man was diagnosed with infertility. The examination revealed a violation of sperm formation. Name the structures of the testicle where sperm formation occurs.

a)

In convoluted seminiferous tubules

b)

In the epididymis

c)

In straight seminiferous tubules

d)

In the efferent ducts

e)

In the sinus of the testicle

39.

A girl was admitted to the clinic at the age of 9 months, in whose anamnesis an abnormality of uterine development was diagnosed in utero-a two-horned uterus. Name the parts of the uterus.

a)

Fundus, body, isthmus, cervix

b)

Fundus, body, tail, cervix

c)

Head, isthmus, neck, body

d)

Fundus, cervix, body, tail

e)

Head, cervix, body, tail

40.

A 15-year-old girl was brought to the gynecologist. Upon examination, the gynecologist suspected the presence of a cervical tumor. Through which organ is it necessary to palpate the uterus in a girl, taking into account the syntopy of the pelvic organs?

a)

Rectum

b)

Vagina

c)

Posterior wall of the abdominal cavity

d)

Anterior wall of the abdominal cavity

e)

Urethra

41.

A 6 year old girl showed signs of premature puberty. Which endocrine gland is affected by this pathology?

a)

Thyroid

b)

Parathyroid

c)

Thymus

d)

Pituitary

e)

Epiphysis

42.

A 9 month old girl with frequent colds was diagnosed with congenital thymomegaly during examination. Where is the thymus gland located?

a)

In the anterior mediastinum

b)

In the posterior mediastinum

c)

In the lower-middle mediastinum

d)

In the lower-posterior mediastinum

e)

In the pleural cavity

43.

A mother turned to the doctor, whose son grew by 18 cm over the summer. When examining a 12-year-old boy: height 180 cm, weight 68 kg. Which endocrine gland is it associated with?

a)

Pituitary

b)

Epiphysis

c)

Thyroid

d)

Adrenal

e)

Thymus

44.

At what age do children experience a 'physiological dip' in IgG levels that causes hypersensitivity to infections?

a)

1 week of life

b)

1-3 months of life

c)

3-6 months of life

d)

6-9 months of life

e)

9-12 months of life

45.

The patient presented in July with complaints of a runny nose, lacrimation, and cough. Body temperature is normal. These phenomena are seasonal. Specify the cells and mediator that determines this patient’s reaction:

a)

macrophage, heparin

b)

neutrophil, myeloperoxidase

c)

lymphocyte, immunoglobulin G

d)

mast cells, histamine

e)

plasma cells, interleukin-1

46.

Patient B., 39 years old, who has not been able to get pregnant for 8 years, was advised to consult an endocrinologist. During examination, the patient was found to have exophthalmos, hand tremor, and tachycardia. Disease of the following endocrine gland is accompanied by the following symptoms:

a)

Adrenal glands

b)

Pancreas

c)

Reproductive

d)

Thyroid

e)

Epiphysis

47.

During embryogenesis, the process of migration of neuroblasts from the ganglion plates was experimentally disrupted. How will this affect the structure of the adrenal glands:

a)

The adrenal cortex will not develop

b)

The adrenal medulla will not develop

c)

The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex will not develop

d)

The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex will not develop

e)

The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex will not develop

48.

In an animal experiment, the function of gonadotropocytes was disrupted. Name the organs in which pathological changes will first develop:

a)

In the adrenal glands

b)

In the thyroid gland

c)

In the pituitary gland

d)

In the reproductive glands

e)

In the parathyroid glands

49.

In histological sections of the ovary, structures that are similar in appearance to the corpus luteum are visible in its cortex. In the center of some there is a wrinkled zona pellucida, in the center of others there is a connecting scar. Determine these structures on a section of the ovary:

a)

Primordial follicles and corpus albicans

b)

Atretic follicles and corpus albicans

c)

Primary follicles and corpus luteum

d)

Secondary follicles and corpus albicans

e)

Tertiary follicles and corpus luteum

50.

The source of embryonic development of follicles of the ovarian cortex are:

a)

Mesonephros

b)

Paramesonephric duct

c)

Pronephros

d)

Sex cords

e)

Mesonephric duct

51.

In the experiment, the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) by pituitary gonadotropocytes was blocked. Write the changes that will occur in the ovary:

a)

Ovulation and development of the corpus luteum will be disrupted

b)

The development of follicles will be disrupted

c)

Estrogen synthesis will be disrupted

d)

Ovulation will be disrupted

e)

Follicular development and estrogen synthesis will be disrupted

52.

A preparation of a lobule of an organ of the male reproductive system is presented. The lobule consists of alveolar tubular glands, bundles of smooth muscle cells and loose fibrous connective tissue. Determine which organ this description corresponds to:

a)

Epididymis

b)

Corpus cavernosum of the penis

c)

Prostatic utricle

d)

Prostate

e)

Bulbo-urethral glands

53.

In the experiment, the gonocytes in the wall of the yolk sac were destroyed in the embryo. Name the disorders that will occur in the reproductive system:

a)

The reproductive period and growth period will be disrupted

b)

The gonads will not be populated with germ cells

c)

Testosterone synthesis will be disrupted

d)

The formation period will be disrupted

e)

The breeding season will be disrupted

54.

In the experiment, the process of cell movement through the primitive streak was blocked in an embryo at the gastrula stage. Name the violations that will occur:

a)

The development of the ectoderm will be disrupted

b)

The development of the neural tube will be disrupted

c)

The development of endoderm will be disrupted

d)

The development of mesenchyme will be disrupted

e)

The development of mesoderm will be disrupted

55.

Patient A., 15 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of severe itching and skin rashes in the area between the fingers and wrists. Diagnosed with scabies. This disease is caused by the scabies mite, which lives and reproduces on human skin. This parasite lives inside the epidermis. The epidermis is represented by:

a)

Stratified non-keratinizing epithelium

b)

Stratified keratinized epithelium

c)

Simple squamous epithelium

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

e)

Simple columnar epithelium

56.

When examining patient E., 18 years old, there was a lack of pigmentation on the hands, in the form of clear spots of white (with a milky tint) color with clear boundaries. Diagnosed with vitiligo. The causes of vitiligo are a lack of production of keratinocytes and melanocytes, as a result of which depigmentation develops and progresses. Embryonic origin of skin melanocytes:

a)

Neural crest

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Endoderm

57.

Upon examination of patient P., 28 years old, a lack of pigmentation on the face was discovered in the form of clear spots of white (with a milky tint) color with clear boundaries. Diagnosed with vitiligo. The causes of vitiligo are a lack of production of keratinocytes and melanocytes, as a result of which depigmentation develops and progresses. Embryonic origin of keratinocytes:

a)

Neural crest

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Endoderm

58.

Patient Z., 24 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of severe itching and skin rashes in the area between the fingers and wrists. Diagnosed with scabies. This disease is caused by the scabies mite, which lives and reproduces on human skin. This parasite lives inside the epidermis. Embryonic origin of the skin epidermis:

a)

Neural crest

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Endoderm

59.

Patient R., 36 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of the appearance of small painful nodules under the skin in the axillary region on the right, which increased over several days. In this area the patient experiences pain and itching. A diagnosis was made: hidradenitis - inflammation of the axillary sweat glands. The type of secretion characteristic of these glands:

a)

Merocrine

b)

Holocrine

c)

Apocrine

d)

Endocrine

e)

Mixed

60.

Patient T., 45 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, blood and pus in the stool, diarrhea, false urge to defecate, weakness, and loss of appetite. A diagnosis was made: ulcerative colitis. During a colonoscopy of the patient, it was found that ulcers appeared on the mucous membrane of the large intestine. Type of epithelium covering the mucous membrane of the large intestine:

a)

Stratified squamous non-keratinizing

b)

Stratified squamous keratinizing

c)

Simple squamous

d)

Simple cuboidal

e)

Simple columnar

61.

Patient Z., 10 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of constipation and bloating. After examination, a diagnosis was made: Hirschsprung's disease. The cause of the disease is congenital underdevelopment of nerve nodes and nerve plexuses in the colon. The embryonic source of this disorder of intestinal tube development:

a)

Neural crest

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Endoderm

62.

Patient H., 18 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of diarrhea, weakness, abdominal pain, blood in the stool, and lack of appetite. After examination, a diagnosis was made: Crohn's disease. This disease affects all deep layers of the digestive tract, including the muscular layer. The embryonic source of development of this shell:

a)

Neural crest

b)

Ectoderm

c)

Mesoderm

d)

Mesenchyme

e)

Endoderm

63.

Patient B., 9 years old, consulted a doctor with complaints of pain in the joints and bones, weakness. After examination, a diagnosis was made: sickle cell anemia. This is an inherited blood disorder in which the red blood cells reduce oxygen transport and become sickle-shaped instead of the usual disc-shaped one. Preservation of the shape of the red blood cell is ensured by:

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cytoskeleton

e)

Peroxisomes

64.

In a patient with reduced immunity, the results of the study of the lymph node identified several areas of damage to the organ. In order to clarify the diagnosis, it is necessary to determine where in the lymph node antigen-independent differentiation of T-lymphocytes occurs:

a)

In the medullary cords

b)

In the center of proliferation of nodules

c)

In the paracortical zone

d)

In the medullary sinus

e)

In all sinuses

65.

The student takes an exam where he needs to determine the type of hematopoiesis that may be affected by pathology of the red bone marrow. In the red bone marrow occurs:

a)

Granulocytopoiesis only

b)

Only antigen-independent differentiation of B lymphocytes

c)

Lymphocytopoiesis only

d)

Erythropoiesis, thrombocytopoiesis, initial stages of lymphopoiesis

e)

Only antigen-independent differentiation of T lymphocytes

66.

In a patient with reduced immunity, the results of the study of the thymus and lymph node identified several affected areas. There is information about a difficult pregnancy in the patient’s mother. During the embryogenesis of organs, the thymus develops from:

a)

From the epithelium of the foregut

b)

From the parietal layer of the splanchnotome

c)

From mesenchyme

d)

From the visceral layer of the splanchnotome

e)

From sclerotomes

67.

Microscopic examination of the histological specimen revealed megakaryocytes in one of the hematopoietic organs. The presence of these cells is characteristic of the following hematopoietic organ and it is the source of the development of the following blood element:

a)

Spleen, platelets

b)

Thymus, lymphocytes

c)

Lymph node, T-lymphocytes

d)

Red bone marrow, platelets

e)

Palatine tonsils, red blood cells

68.

The student must determine the histological specimen of the spleen during the histology exam. One of the distinguishing features may be the structure of the organ capsule. The splenic capsule consists of:

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

Smooth muscle tissue and mesothelium

c)

Only from dense connective tissue

d)

Connective tissue, smooth myocytes, mesothelium

e)

Only from mesothelium

69.

An immunological study revealed a decrease in the population of T-lymphocytes and hormones regulating their number. Antigen-independent differentiation of T lymphocytes occurs in the following organ of hematopoiesis and immunological defense:

a)

bone marrow

b)

thymus

c)

spleen

d)

lymph node

e)

bone marrow and thymus

70.

A man with a pathology of the mucous membrane of the airways sought medical help. Determine the source of development of the epithelial lining of the bronchial mucosa:

a)

Endoderm

b)

Neural tube

c)

Sclerotome

d)

Mesoderm

e)

Ectoderm (prechordal plate)

71.

During a study of a pregnant woman, there is a suspicion of abnormalities in the development of the germ layer - ectoderm. It is necessary to find out whether this could be the cause of pleural pathology in the future. The pleura develops from:

a)

walls of the intestinal tube and mesenchyme

b)

walls of the neural tube and mesenchyme

c)

stomodeum and mesenchyme

d)

walls of the intestinal tube and leaves of the splanchnotome

e)

sheets of splanchnotome and mesenchyme

72.

У новорожденного определена врожденная патология развития эпителия воздухопроводящих путей. Необходимо составить прогноз и план лечения пациента. Назовите источник регенерации мерцательного эпителия.

a)

Basal cells

b)

Endocrine cells

c)

Ciliated cells

d)

Prismatic cells

73.

In the embryo, damage was detected in the cells of some germ layers. To exclude pathology from the nephron epithelium in the future, determine the source of their development:

a)

Is of ectodermal origin

b)

Is of mesenchymal origin

c)

Has endodermal origin

d)

Has mesenchymal and endodermal origin

e)

Has mesodermal origin

74.

A patient with pathology of the respiratory system was admitted to the hospital. To clarify the diagnosis, it is necessary to know the state of the cells that produce surfactant in the alveoli of the lung. Surfactant is produced:

a)

Alveolar macrophages

b)

Alveolocytes type I

c)

Alveolocytes type II

d)

Interstitial fibroblasts

e)

Alveolar cells of types I and II

75.

A man with a pathology of the tracheal mucosa sought medical help. Determine the type of epithelial lining of the tracheal mucosa to determine the condition of the organ during bronchoscopy:

a)

Stratified squamous non-keratinizing

b)

Stratified transitional

c)

Stratified columnar brush-bordered

d)

Stratified squamous keratinizing

e)

Stratified columnar ciliated

76.

A patient with lung pathology is in the hospital. Additional imaging studies are ordered. Determine the structure from which the pulmonary acinus begins.

a)

Terminal bronchiole

b)

Respiratory bronchiole

c)

Alveolar sacs

d)

Small caliber bronchus

e)

Alveolar duct

77.

The fetus was diagnosed with functional insufficiency of myocardiocytes by ultrasound. This may be due to damage to the sources of myocardial development. Cardiac muscle tissue develops from:

a)

Mesenchymes

b)

Endoderm

c)

Myoepicardial plate of the visceral layer of the splanchnotome

d)

Myoepicardial plate of the parietal layer of the splanchnotome

e)

Myotomes and endoderm

78.

The tissue contains individual round, light cells or their isogenic groups, and in the intercellular substance there is a network of thick fibers that are well stained brown with orcein. Determine the type of tissue.

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

reticulofibrous bone

c)

fibrocartilage

d)

tendon

e)

elastic cartilage

79.

It is known that one of the ways to develop bone tissue is indirect osteogenesis. Identify the cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium involved in the formation of the perichondral bone cuff during the development of tubular bones:

a)

Chondroblasts

b)

Osteoblasts

c)

Chondroclasts

d)

Adventitial cells

e)

Fibroblasts

80.

In case of brain injury, glial cells are activated, which have a different source of development in contrast to all other glial elements. Name these cells:

a)

Fibrous astrogliocytes

b)

Lemmocytes

c)

Ependymocytes

d)

Microgliocytes

e)

Protoplasmic astrogliocytes

81.

A patient who has had polio has atrophy of the muscles of the lower extremities. Identify the neurons of the spinal cord nuclei affected by the polio virus:

a)

Clarke nuclei

b)

Roland Cores

c)

Motor nuclei

d)

Medial intermediate nuclei

e)

Lateral intermediate nuclei

82.

A man who suffered acute encephalitis (an inflammatory process in brain tissue) was diagnosed with optic nerve atrophy. Name the retinal cells whose axons form the optic nerve:

a)

Amacrine

b)

Bipolar

c)

Photosensory

d)

Horizontal

e)

Ganglionic

83.

A 63-year-old woman who had previously received large doses of quinine during the treatment of malaria damaged the peripheral part of the auditory analyzer. Identify the cells of the inner ear whose damage is associated with this pathology:

a)

Ganglion epithelial cells

b)

Sensory epithelial cells

c)

Supporting epithelial cells

d)

Phalangeal epithelial cells

e)

Columnar epithelial cells

84.

An ultrasound examination of the fetus of a pregnant woman with diabetes mellitus revealed an anomaly in myocardial development. Name the embryonic source that was damaged:

a)

Pariental leaf of splanchnotome

b)

Mesenchyme

c)

Segmental pedicle

d)

Visceral layer of splanchnotome

e)

Endoderm

85.

A 53-year-old man was diagnosed with a malignant tumor of the pericardium. Determine the epithelium, the source of which is the development of the tumor:

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Stratified squamous keratinizing

c)

Simple pseudostratified ciliated

d)

Transitional

e)

Stratified squamous non-keratinizing

86.

A biopsy of the muscular lining of the heart was obtained from a patient with coronary heart disease during aortic bypass surgery. Name the signs on the basis of which working and conducting cardiomyocytes are differentiated:

a)

Neurofibrils and glycogen inclusions

b)

Myofibrils and glycogen inclusions

c)

Tonofibrils and melanin inclusions

d)

Neurofibrils and lipid inclusions

e)

Myofibrils and lipofuscin inclusions

87.

With glucosuria, a 47-year-old woman was found to have sugar in her urine. Determine the section of the nephron that provides reabsorption, which was damaged in this case:

a)

distal convoluted tubule

b)

descending part of the thin tubule

c)

proximal convoluted tubule

d)

ascending part of the thin tubule

e)

distal straight tubule

88.

A longitudinal section of a human embryo reveals tubules that open at one end into the secondary body cavity, and at the other end are connected to each other, forming the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct. Name the stage of kidney development:

a)

trunk bud stage

b)

mesonephros stage

c)

secondary bud stage

d)

metanephros stage

e)

pronephros stage

89.

In a patient with dysplasia (underdevelopment) of the right testicle, there is an absence of derivative sex cords. Determine the structures that will be missing:

a)

Epididymal duct

b)

Efferent tubules of the testis

c)

Vas deferens

d)

Prostate gland

e)

Convoluted seminiferous tubules

90.

Which class of immunoglobulin has the ability to fixate on basophils and mast cells?

a)

Ig G

b)

Ig M

c)

Ig A

d)

IgE