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NS24 GI Learning Objective Questions (Worksheet Extraction)

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Weakening or inappropriate relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter allows acidic stomach contents to flow backward into the esophagus, causing inflammation and symptoms like heartburn.

a)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

b)

Hiatal Hernia

c)

Esophageal Varices

d)

GERD

2.

Imbalance between protective mucosal barriers and aggressive factors like gastric acid and pepsin leads to erosion in the stomach or proximal small intestine.

a)

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

b)

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

c)

Chronic Gastritis

d)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

3.

A patient with acute pancreatitis is transitioning from NPO status to oral intake. The nurse understands that the initial diet should include which type of carbohydrates to promote healing while minimizing pancreatic stimulation?

a)

Complex carbohydrates such as whole grains and legumes to provide sustained energy

b)

Simple carbohydrates to reduce digestive workload on the inflamed pancreas

c)

High-fiber carbohydrates to promote bowel motility and prevent ileus

d)

Refined carbohydrates with added fats to increase caloric density

4.

A chronic functional gastrointestinal disorder involving recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and alternating diarrhea and constipation, with no detectable inflammation or structural abnormalities on diagnostic tests.

a)

Crohn's Disease

b)

Ulcerative Colitis

c)

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

d)

Celiac Disease

5.

A protrusion of the upper stomach through the esophageal hiatus in the diaphragm, often leading to gastroesophageal reflux.

a)

Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease

b)

Esophageal Achalasia

c)

Hiatal Hernia

d)

Peptic Ulcer Disease

6.

Which of the following enzymes is primarily responsible for chemical digestion in the mouth?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Amylase

c)

Lipase

d)

Trypsin

7.

What specific macronutrient does salivary amylase begin to digest in the mouth?

a)

Proteins

b)

Fats

c)

Nucleic acids

d)

Carbohydrates

8.

Which of the following correctly describes the function of pepsin in the stomach?

a)

It begins protein digestion

b)

It emulsifies fats to aid in their digestion

c)

It neutralizes stomach acid to protect the gastric lining

d)

It breaks down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars

9.

Which of the following correctly differentiates the primary absorption roles of the jejunum and ileum?

a)

Jejunum absorbs water while ileum absorbs electrolytes

b)

Jejunum absorbs proteins while ileum absorbs carbohydrates

c)

Jejunum absorbs most nutrients while ileum absorbs fats and bile acids

d)

Jejunum absorbs vitamins while ileum absorbs minerals

10.

Which organ absorbs the most water?

a)

Stomach

b)

Duodenum

c)

Small intestine

d)

large intestine

11.

What are the four layers of the GI tract from innermost to outermost? (Arrange)

a)

Mucosa; Submucosa; Muscularis externa; Serosa

b)

Mucosa; Muscularis externa; Submucosa; Serosa

c)

Serosa; Muscularis externa; Submucosa; Mucosa

d)

Submucosa; Mucosa; Muscularis externa; Serosa

12.

What is the primary purpose of gastric acid (HCl) in the stomach?

a)

To maintain the pH balance of the bloodstream

b)

To activate pepsin and kill bacteria

c)

To stimulate the release of bile from the gallbladder

d)

To neutralize alkaline food substances entering the stomach

13.

Which cells in the gastric pits and glands are responsible for producing gastrin?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Chief cells

c)

Endocrine cells

d)

G cells

14.

Where is bile produced?

a)

In the liver

b)

In the gallbladder

c)

In the pancreas

d)

In the small intestine

15.

What does bile do?

a)

Produces digestive enzymes to break down proteins

b)

Emulsifies fats

c)

Stimulates the production of insulin from the pancreas

d)

Neutralizes stomach acid in the duodenum only

16.

Where is bile stored?

a)

Bile is stored in the colon

b)

Bile is stored in the liver

c)

Bile is stored in the gallbladder

d)

Bile is stored in the pancreas

17.

Which medication gives you an increased risk for pneumonia? (Select all that apply)

a)

Antiemetics

b)

Antacids

c)

PPI's

d)

H2 Receptor antagonists

18.

What is Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

a)

Inflammation of the stomach lining due to H. pylori infection

b)

Excessive production of gastric acid leading to peptic ulcers

c)

Delayed emptying of the stomach contents into the small intestine

d)

Backflow of gastric contents into the esophagus

19.

Which of the following is NOT typically considered a clinical manifestation of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?

a)

Increased appetite and weight gain

b)

Heartburn that worsens when lying down or bending over

c)

Regurgitation of sour or bitter liquid into the throat or mouth

d)

Hoarseness and chronic cough

20.

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased incidence of GERD symptoms due to hormonal changes and increased abdominal pressure?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Pregnancy

d)

Multiple sclerosis

21.

Which of the following are important long-term consequences of glucocorticoid therapy that require monitoring? (Select all that apply)

a)

increased risk of cataracts and glaucoma

b)

Increased risk of osteoporosis and bone fractures

c)

enhanced immune function and decreased infection risk

d)

weight gain and altered fat distribution

e)

Increased risk of cardio vascular disease

22.

What is a hiatal hernia?

a)

A condition where the stomach pushes up through the diaphragm into the chest cavity

b)

A condition where the small intestine protrudes through the abdominal wall

c)

A condition where the large intestine twists upon itself

d)

A condition where the appendix becomes inflamed

23.

Which of the following factors can lead to or exacerbate Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)? (Select all that apply)

a)

hiatal hernia

b)

obesity

c)

Consuming spicy foods

d)

smoking and alcohol consumption

e)

pregnancy

24.

Which of the following is considered the first line of treatment for GERD symptoms?

a)

Proton pump inhibitors

b)

Lifestyle and diet changes

c)

H2 blockers

d)

Surgical intervention

25.

What are the most effective drugs for suppressing gastric acid secretion?

a)

Antacids

b)

H2 receptor antagonists

c)

Proton pump inhibitors

d)

Prostaglandins

26.

Which of the following is associated with long-term proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy? (Select all that apply)

a)

Increased risk of bone fractures

b)

Permanent loss of taste sensation

c)

Chronic kidney injury

d)

Electrolyte and mineral deficiencies

27.

What is gastritis?

a)

Inflammation of the esophagus due to acid reflux

b)

A condition where the stomach produces excessive acid

c)

Irritation of the stomach lining

d)

A disorder causing delayed emptying of the stomach

28.

Which of the following is the cause of acute gastritis?

a)

Autoimmune reaction against stomach lining

b)

Chronic bile reflux into the stomach

c)

Direct infection of GI tract

d)

Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors

29.

Which pathophysiological mechanism correctly describes how H. pylori contributes to gastritis?

a)

It directly destroys parietal cells, leading to immediate acid reduction

b)

It colonizes the stomach mucous layer and triggers an intense inflammatory response

c)

It produces toxins that neutralize stomach acid, leading to bacterial overgrowth

d)

It stimulates excessive acid production through direct stimulation of G cells

30.

What is the primary pathophysiological consequence of NSAID-induced gastritis?

a)

NSAIDs stimulate excessive histamine release from mast cells

b)

NSAIDs trigger an autoimmune response against gastric epithelial cells

c)

NSAIDs directly stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells

d)

NSAIDs cause chemical erosion of the stomach lining by damaging the protective mucous barrier

31.

Which of the following inflammatory bowel conditions

is associated with a high incidence of chronic gastritis,

even in the absence of H. pylori infection?

a)

Ulcerative colitis limited to the rectum

b)

Chron's disease

c)

Microscopic colitis

d)

Diverticulitis

32.

A patient with peptic ulcer disease reports feeling full quickly when eating and experiencing discomfort in the upper abdomen. Which of the following symptoms is the patient describing?

a)

Hematemesis

b)

Melena

c)

Chest discomfort

d)

Epigastric burning pain

e)

Dyspepsia

33.

What is glossitis?

a)

Inflammation of the tongue characterized by swelling, redness, and pain

b)

Inflammation of the gums characterized by swelling, redness, and pain

c)

A fungal infection of the oral cavity characterized by the formation of a thin, white coating of the tongue

d)

Inflammation of the salivary glands resulting in excess salivary production and tooth decay

34.

How is glossitis related to pernicious anemia?

a)

Glossitis causes pernicious anemia by interfering with iron absorption

b)

They are unrelated conditions that coincidentally occur together

c)

Glossitis is a common manifestation of vitamin B12 deficiency in pernicious anemia

d)

Glossitis produces antibodies that destroy intrinsic

factor

35.

Which of the following best defines Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

An inflammation of the gastric mucosa that causes epigastric pain

b)

A bacterial infection caused by H. pylori that only affects the duodenum

c)

A condition characterized by erosions in the GI mucosa

d)

Any pain in the epigastric region that occurs after eating

36.

How do glucocorticoids contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

By inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis

b)

By directly killing H. pylori bacteria

c)

By neutralizing stomach acid

d)

By increasing gastric motility

37.

A nurse is reviewing a patient's med list following their diagnosis of PUD. Which of the following medications does the nurse understand may have lead to their diagnosis?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Prednisone

d)

Metformin

e)

Lisinopril

38.

A patient on glucocorticoid therapy is receiving education for the side effects of PUD. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the education?

a)

"I only need to be concerned if I see blood in my stool."

b)

"I should monitor for symptoms like nausea, vomiting, and chest discomfort."

c)

"Taking my medication with orange juice will prevent ulcers."

d)

"Antacids will worsen my condition and should be avoided."

39.

A patient on glucocorticoid therapy has been prescribed a new medication to help combat the risk of PUD. What medication class might it be? (Select all that apply)

a)

Histamine-2 receptor antagonists

b)

Proton pump inhibitors

c)

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

d)

Dopamine Inhibitors

e)

Seratonin Inhibitors

40.

Why might a PPI help protect against PUD?

a)

It inhibits the proton pump in gastric parietal cells, reducing acid secretion

b)

It directly kills H. pylori bacteria in the stomach

c)

It increases prostaglandin synthesis in the gastric mucosa

d)

It promotes the production of protective mucus in the stomach

41.

What is the primary symptom presentation of Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

a)

Persistent fever and unexplained weight loss, often accompanied by night sweats and general malaise

b)

Bloody stool and severe nausea, frequently occurring with vomiting and significant dehydration

c)

Jaundice and abdominal distention, typically presenting with dark urine and clay-colored stools

d)

Crampy abdominal pain, in association with diarrhea, constipation or both

42.

Which of the following would you recommend for a patient with IBS, looking for non‑pharmaceutical treatment?

a)

Acupuncture

b)

Peppermint Oil

c)

Breathing exercises

d)

Warm tea with honey

e)

Lavender aromatherapy

43.

What is the hallmark presentation of Ulcerative Colitis?

a)

Constipation and abdominal distention

b)

Fever, weight loss, and night sweats

c)

Nausea, vomiting, and epigastric pain

d)

Jaundice and right upper quadrant pain

e)

Bloody diarrhea and rectal urgency

44.

Which of the following is most likely to cause gastritis or worsen peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Milk

b)

Bicarbonate of soda or baking soda

c)

Eating a low‑fat meal

d)

NSAID use

45.

Which of the following clinical presentations is most consistent with Ulcerative Colitis?

a)

Patchy inflammation affecting all layers of the bowel wall, with skip lesions throughout the entire GI tract from mouth to anus

b)

Continuous inflammation limited to the mucosal (innermost) layer of the colon and rectum

c)

Inflammation primarily affecting the small intestine with granulomas present on biopsy

d)

Intermittent abdominal pain with no visible inflammation on colonoscopy

46.

Which of the following best explains what "transmural" means in relation to Crohn's Disease?

a)

Inflammation that only occurs in specific isolated spots of the intestine with no pattern

b)

Inflammation that only affects the muscular portion of the intestine

c)

Inflammation that only affects the innermost lining of the intestine

d)

Inflammation that spreads through all layers of the intestinal wall, from the inside lining to the outer surface

47.

Which of the following clinical presentations is most consistent with Crohn's Disease?

a)

Transmural inflammation of the terminal ileum, but can be throughout the entire GI tract

b)

Continuous inflammation limited to the rectum and distal colon affecting only the mucosal layer

c)

Inflammation exclusively in the stomach with no involvement of other parts of the digestive tract

d)

Uniform inflammation of the entire colon with pseudopolyps but no small bowel involvement

48.

Which of the following signs is most useful for easily differentiating between Crohn's Disease and Ulcerative Colitis in clinical presentation?

a)

Presence of abdominal pain and diarrhea

b)

Location of inflammation and presence/absence of rectal bleeding

c)

Patient age at onset of symptoms

d)

Response to anti‑inflammatory medications

49.

Which of the following symptoms are commonly associated with Crohn's Disease? (Select all that apply)

a)

Abdominal Pain

b)

Diarrhea

c)

cramping

d)

fever

e)

weight loss

50.

What is steatorrhea?

a)

The presence of blood in the stool due to gastrointestinal bleeding

b)

Chronic constipation resulting from low dietary fiber intake

c)

Frequent watery bowel movements caused by viral gastroenteritis

d)

Excessive excretion of fat in the feces, often indicating malabsorption

51.

Select all that apply: Which of the following are common clinical manifestations of Ulcerative Colitis?

a)

Mouth ulcers

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Constipation

d)

Rectal bleeding

e)

abdominal pain

52.

What is one of the first recommended treatments for managing hemorrhoids?

a)

Surgery to remove them immediately

b)

Avoiding all physical activity to reduce pressure on veins

c)

Taking antibiotics to treat inflammation

d)

A high-fiber diet, increased water intake, and warm sitz baths

53.

What is the primary function of the pancreas in the digestive system?

a)

Production of bile

b)

Regulation of blood sugar and secretion of digestive enzymes

c)

Absorption of nutrients

d)

Storage of food

54.

What is the role of the exocrine pancreas?

a)

Secretion of hormones like insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream

b)

Production and release of digestive enzymes into the small intestine

c)

Absorption of nutrients from digested food

d)

Regulation of bile production

55.

What is the primary function of protease enzymes secreted by the pancreas?

a)

Breakdown of carbohydrates into simple sugars

b)

Breakdown of proteins into amino acids

c)

Breakdown of fats into fatty acids and glycerol

d)

Neutralization of stomach acid

56.

What is the definition of pancreatitis?

a)

Inflammation of the pancreas caused by digestive enzymes attacking the organ itself

b)

Inflammation of the liver caused by long-term alcohol consumption

c)

A condition where the pancreas no longer produces insulin, leading to high blood sugar

d)

A blockage in the bile duct that causes jaundice and other complications

57.

What is the hallmark symptom of pancreatitis?

a)

Frequent diarrhea accompanied by abdominal discomfort

b)

Persistent constipation along with abdominal bloating

c)

difficulty swallowing foods or liquids due to throat issues

d)

Severe upper abdominal pain that may radiate to the back

58.

Which symptom is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis but not chronic pancreatitis?

a)

Persistent abdominal pain

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

weight loss

d)

fatty and oily stools

59.

What digestive complication can occur in chronic pancreatitis due to a lack of pancreatic enzymes?

a)

Enhanced digestion of carbohydrates but not proteins or fats

b)

Improved bile production that aids in breaking down fatty meals

c)

Difficulty digesting fats leading to vitamin deficiencies and weight loss

d)

Increased absorption of nutrients, resulting in

weight gain and better health

60.

Which blood marker is considered the preferred diagnostic test for acute pancreatitis due to its higher sensitivity and specificity, particularly in alcohol-induced cases?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Trypsinogen

d)

C-reactive protein

61.

Which of the following are NSAIDs? (Select all that apply)

a)

Aspirin

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Naproxen

d)

Acetaminophen

62.

Why can excessive alcohol consumption lead to pancreatitis?

a)

Alcohol directly damages pancreatic cells and causes premature activation of digestive enzymes within the pancreas, leading to inflammation.

b)

Alcohol reduces blood flow to the pancreas, leading to tissue death and triggering inflammation within the organ over time.

c)

Alcohol increases bile production and leads to blockages in the pancreatic ducts, which causes inflammation and tissue damage.

d)

Alcohol neutralizes stomach acid and forces the pancreas to overproduce enzymes, which damages pancreatic cells and causes inflammation.

63.

Why can gallstones lead to pancreatitis?

a)

Gallstones can obstruct the common bile duct or pancreatic duct, causing a backup of digestive enzymes that damage pancreatic tissue.

b)

Gallstones block bile flow from the liver, disrupting enzyme secretion and leading to pancreatic inflammation.

c)

Gallstones stimulate excessive insulin production by the pancreas, leading to tissue damage and inflammation over time.

d)

Gallstones cause direct physical injury to the pancreas, triggering inflammation and enzyme activation within the organ.

64.

Which toxic substance represents a common cause of acinar cell injury that frequently leads to acute pancreatitis?

a)

Vitamin D

b)

Bicarbonate ions

c)

Alcohol

d)

Insulin

65.

Which of the following best describes the most common symptoms of both acute and chronic pancreatitis?

a)

Severe upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting

b)

Diarrhea, weight loss, and diabetes onset

c)

Fever, jaundice, and SOB

d)

Bruising in the flanks, abdominal hardness, and low

blood pressure

66.

Which of the following is a key initial management strategy for acute pancreatitis that helps reduce pancreatic stimulation and allows for resolution of inflammation?

a)

Immediate surgical intervention to drain pancreatic fluid collections

b)

Administration of pancreatic enzyme supplements

c)

Withholding oral feedings

d)

Prophylactic administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics

67.

What is the cornerstone of early management for acute pancreatitis that addresses the hypovolemia caused by third-spacing of fluids, vomiting, and reduced oral intake?

a)

Immediate administration of pancreatic enzyme inhibitors

b)

Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids

c)

Prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection and promote reabsorption of K2-L3 metabolites

d)

Early enteral nutrition via nasojejunal tube

68.

How does the gallbladder most commonly contribute to the development of acute pancreatitis in simple terms?

a)

The gallbladder directly releases digestive enzymes that attack the pancreas

b)

Stones formed in the gallbladder can travel and block the opening where both bile and pancreatic juices flow into the intestine, causing a backup of digestive enzymes into the pancreas

c)

Inflammation of the gallbladder spreads directly to the pancreas through shared blood vessels

d)

The gallbladder secretes hormones that overstimulate pancreatic enzyme production

69.

What is cholecystitis?

a)

Inflammation of the pancreas caused by digestive enzymes

b)

Inflammation of the gallbladder, typically due to obstruction of the cystic duct

c)

Inflammation of the liver caused by viral infection

d)

Inflammation of the bile ducts within the liver

70.

What is the most common cause of acute cholecystitis?

a)

Bacterial infection of the gallbladder

b)

Pancreatic enzymes refluxing into the gallbladder

c)

Excessive consumption of fatty foods

d)

Gallstones blocking the cystic duct

71.

Which of the following is an important storage function of the liver? (Select all that apply)

a)

Stores fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)

b)

Stores excess glucose as glycogen

c)

Stores red blood cells for emergency release

d)

Stores excess protein as amino acids

72.

How does estrogen contribute to gallstone formation?

a)

It decreases bile acid production

b)

It increases cholesterol levels in bile and decreases gallbladder motility

c)

It causes direct inflammation of the gallbladder wall

d)

It alters the pH of bile, making stone formation more likely

73.

A nurse is providing education to a client curious about gallstones. Which of the following demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

a)

"I should avoid all dairy products to prevent gallstones"

b)

"I need to increase my protein intake to dissolve existing gallstones"

c)

"I should eat a diet low in cholesterol and saturated fats"

d)

"I should take vitamin C supplements to prevent gallstone formation"

74.

Which of the following medications is associated with an increased risk of gallstone formation in women?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

ACE inhibitors

c)

Beta blockers

d)

Oral contraceptives

75.

Which of the following laboratory findings are characteristic of acute pancreatitis?

a)

Decreased lipase, elevated amylase, and normal white blood cell count

b)

Normal lipase, elevated C-reactive protein, and hypoglycemia

c)

Elevated amylase only, normal white blood cell count, and hypocalcemia

d)

Elevated lipase and amylase, elevated white blood cell count, and hypocalcemia

76.

Which of the following best defines liver disease?

a)

Exclusively viral infections that affect liver function

b)

Only conditions that cause permanent scarring of liver tissue

c)

Any disorder that damages the liver and impairs its function

d)

Disorders that exclusively affect bile production

77.

Why does chronic pancreatitis lead to a form of diabetes similar to Type 1?

a)

It causes insulin resistance in peripheral tissues

b)

It stimulates excessive glucagon production from alpha cells

c)

It leads to destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas

d)

It increases glucose absorption in the small intestine

e)

It causes the liver to overproduce glucose

78.

Which of the following clusters of symptoms would most strongly suggest advanced liver disease?

a)

Fever, cough, and shortness of breath

b)

Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness

c)

Ascites, esophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy

d)

Joint pain, muscle stiffness, and limited range of motion

79.

What are esophageal varices?

a)

Abnormal, uncoordinated muscle contractions in the esophageal wall that cause difficulty swallowing and chest pain during food passage

b)

Enlarged, swollen blood vessels in the lower part of the esophagus that develop due to portal hypertension

c)

Superficial erosions and ulcerations that form in the esophageal mucosa due to chronic exposure to stomach acid and digestive enzymes

d)

Benign, slow-growing neoplastic lesions that develop within the submucosa of the esophageal wall and may cause obstruction over time

80.

What is encephalopathy?

a)

Inflammation of the liver tissue caused by viral infection

b)

Scarring of the liver tissue that disrupts normal blood flow

c)

A neuropsychiatric syndrome characterized by impaired brain function

d)

Enlargement of the liver due to fat accumulation

81.

Why is hepatic encephalopathy a sign and symptom of liver disease?

a)

Because liver disease directly damages brain tissue

b)

Because the liver releases neurotoxins when damaged

c)

Because the damaged liver cannot adequately remove ammonia and other toxins from the blood, allowing them to affect brain function

d)

Because hepatic encephalopathy is an autoimmune response to liver inflammation

82.

What is fatty liver disease?

a)

A rare condition characterized by inflammation of liver cells, treatable with topical antibiotics

b)

Permanent scarring of the liver tissue that disrupts normal function for greater than 14 days

c)

A viral infection that specifically targets liver cells

d)

Accumulation of excess fat in liver cells, making up more than 5–10% of the liver's weight

83.

What is fibrosis in the liver?

a)

When the liver gets bigger because of too much fat

b)

When the liver gets hard and scarred as it tries to heal itself after being hurt

c)

When the liver gets yellow because of a problem related to impaired metabolism

d)

When the liver gets an infection from germs

84.

Which of the following represents the correct progression of alcohol-related liver disease?

a)

Cirrhosis > Alcoholic hepatitis > Fatty liver

b)

Alcoholic hepatitis > Fatty liver > Cirrhosis

c)

Fatty liver > Alcoholic hepatitis > Cirrhosis

d)

Fatty liver ’ Cirrhosis ’ Alcoholic hepatitis

85.

What is the Hepatic Portal vein?

a)

A blood vessel that carries blood directly from the liver to the heart

b)

A blood vessel that carries blood from the GI tract, gallbladder, pancreas and spleen to the liver

c)

A blood vessel that only transports bile from the gallbladder to the intestines

d)

A blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from

the heart to the liver

86.

What is portal hypertension?

a)

Elevated blood pressure that specifically affects

the systemic arterial circulation, commonly associated

with cardiovascular disease and metabolic disorders

b)

Abnormally high pressure within the pulmonary vasculature that increases the workload on the right ventricle and can lead to right-sided heart failure

c)

Elevated pressure in the portal venous system, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver

d)

A transient physiological response to acute psy-

chological or environmental stressors that temporar-

ily increases systemic vascular resistance and cardiac

output

87.

How does portal hypertension lead to esophageal varices?

a)

It forces blood to seek alternate routes around the blocked liver through smaller vessels in the esophagus, causing them to become enlarged and fragile

b)

It causes the esophagus to produce excess acid, damaging blood vessels

c)

It causes direct damage to the esophageal lining

d)

It triggers an autoimmune response that attacks esophageal tissue

88.

Which of the following are included as treatments for Portal Hypertension? (Select all that apply)

a)

Restricting sodium intake

b)

Eliminating Alcohol

c)

Beta Blockers

d)

COX-2 inhibitors

e)

High protein diet

89.

A patient with worsening liver disease is presenting with lethargy and a change in level of consciousness. Which medication is the RN expecting to administer?

a)

RBC Transfusion

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Lactulose

d)

Pantoprazole

90.

A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) may experience which 4 of the following symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Heartburn

b)

Jaundice

c)

Coughing

d)

Dyspepsia

e)

Hoarseness

91.

Select all that apply (SATA): Which of the following 4 are commonly associated with Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)?

a)

Productive cough

b)

Board-like abdomen

c)

Previous history of H. pylori infection

d)

Chronic use of NSAIDs

e)

Epigastric Pain