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The Nervous System: Functions, Neurons, and Neuroglia

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best describes a primary function of the nervous system in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

Generating red blood cells for oxygen transport

b)

Producing hormones to regulate metabolism

c)

Issuing motor output to coordinate behavior

d)

Storing calcium for muscle contraction

2.

Which division controls voluntary movement of skeletal muscles and processes sensory input from skin and joints?

a)

Sympathetic division

b)

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)

c)

Somatic Nervous System (SNS)

d)

Parasympathetic division

3.

Which pairing correctly matches an ANS subdivision with its general role?

a)

Parasympathetic—voluntary muscle control

b)

Sympathetic—fight-or-flight responses

c)

Parasympathetic—skeletal reflex actions

d)

Sympathetic—rest-and-digest activities

4.

Which neuron structure primarily receives incoming signals before integration in the soma?

a)

Dendrites receive signals

b)

Axon conducts inputs

c)

Axon terminals integrate

d)

Myelin sheath generates impulses

5.

A nerve fiber is best defined as which of the following?

a)

A synapse between two neurons

b)

A bundle of dendritic spines

c)

A cluster of neuronal somas

d)

An axon, with or without myelin

6.

Which statement about Schwann cells and myelin in the PNS is accurate?

a)

Schwann cells form myelin that speeds conduction

b)

Schwann cells degrade nodes of Ranvier

c)

Myelin prevents regeneration of axons

d)

Myelin slows saltatory conduction

7.

Which difference between white and gray matter is correct?

a)

White matter—unmyelinated fibers; Gray matter—fast conduction

b)

White matter—synapses; Gray matter—nodes of Ranvier

c)

White matter—dendrites; Gray matter—myelinated axons

d)

White matter—myelinated axons; Gray matter—cell bodies

8.

Which statement best captures the function of a chemical synapse?

a)

Produces cerebrospinal fluid for brain support

b)

Stores calcium for muscle contraction

c)

Conducts impulses through gap junction pores

d)

Transmits and modulates signals via neurotransmitters

9.

Which neuroglial cells provide myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Oligodendrocytes in white matter

b)

Astrocytes at synaptic clefts

c)

Microglia within dorsal roots

d)

Schwann cells around axons

10.

Which term correctly describes a cluster of neuronal cell bodies in the PNS?

a)

Nucleus within cerebrum

b)

Ganglion near nerve

c)

Tract in spinal cord

d)

Nerve fascicle

11.

Arrange the five essential components of a reflex arc in order.

a)

Effector, motor neuron, integration center, sensory neuron, receptor

b)

Integration center, receptor, sensory neuron, effector, motor neuron

c)

Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, motor neuron, effector

d)

Motor neuron, receptor, effector, integration, sensory neuron

12.

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for facial expression?

a)

V Trigeminal motor branch

b)

VII Facial somatic fibers

c)

IX Glossopharyngeal nuclei

d)

X Vagus pharyngeal branch

13.

Which connective tissue layer directly surrounds individual axons within a nerve?

a)

Myelin sheath in tracts

b)

Perineurium around fascicle

c)

Endoneurium around fiber

d)

Epineurium around nerve

14.

Cerebrospinal fluid is primarily produced in which structures?

a)

Dural venous sinuses

b)

Arachnoid granulations

c)

Choroid plexuses

d)

Central canal lining

15.

Which statement best characterizes the blood–brain barrier?

a)

Loose endothelial junctions permit toxins

b)

Astrocyte end-feet create fenestrations

c)

Tight junctions restrict solutes

d)

Microglia phagocytose nutrients

16.

Which functional region controls voluntary movement initiation?

a)

Auditory cortex temporal

b)

Primary somatosensory cortex

c)

Primary motor cortex

d)

Prefrontal association cortex

17.

The epidural space in the spinal canal contains primarily what tissue/structures?

a)

Ligamentum flavum bands

b)

Dura and arachnoid layers

c)

Fat and venous plexus

d)

CSF and major blood vessels

18.

How many pairs of cervical spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord?

a)

Nine pairs C0–C8

b)

Seven pairs C1–C7

c)

Eight pairs C1–C8

d)

Six pairs C1–C6

19.

Which dorsal root structure contains the sensory neuron cell bodies?

a)

Dorsal root ganglion

b)

Dorsal horn nuclei

c)

White matter tracts

d)

Ventral root fascicles

20.

In spinal cord gray matter, which horns primarily contain motor neuron cell bodies?

a)

Posterior horns tracts

b)

Ventral horns motor

c)

Lateral horns balance

d)

Dorsal horns sensory

21.

Poliomyelitis classically damages which spinal cord region leading to flaccid paralysis?

a)

Posterior column axons

b)

Anterior horn motor neurons

c)

Lateral horn autonomics

d)

Corticospinal tract fibers

22.

Dermatomes are best described as:

a)

Skin areas from one spinal segment

b)

Vascular zones of vertebral arteries

c)

Motor territories of a nerve

d)

Reflex fields of interneurons

23.

Which classification correctly pairs reflex type with synapses?

a)

Polysynaptic lacks central integration

b)

Monosynaptic has one synapse

c)

Polysynaptic has one neuromuscular junction

d)

Monosynaptic involves multiple interneurons

24.

Damage to high cervical spinal cord may compromise which critical function?

a)

Cerebral blood flow only

b)

Pancreatic endocrine output

c)

Thermoregulation alone

d)

Respiratory drive and mechanics

25.

Which feature best distinguishes somatic from autonomic motor outflow?

a)

Two-neuron chain to effector, involuntary control

b)

Two-neuron chain to effector, voluntary control

c)

Single neuron to effector, voluntary control

d)

Single neuron to effector, involuntary control

26.

Where are sympathetic preganglionic neuronal cell bodies primarily located?

a)

Brainstem nuclei of CN III, VII, IX

b)

Dorsal root ganglia C1–C8

c)

Lateral horn T1–L2 segments

d)

Sacral nuclei S2–S4 segments

27.

Autonomic tone refers to which concept?

a)

Absence of parasympathetic influence at rest

b)

Exclusive control of heart rate by vagal output

c)

Maximal sympathetic activation during stress

d)

Baseline balance of sympathetic and parasympathetic activity

28.

Which response is characteristic of sympathetic activation?

a)

Bronchoconstriction and cutaneous vasodilation

b)

Dilated pupils and increased heart rate

c)

Constricted pupils and decreased heart rate

d)

Increased digestion and glandular secretion

29.

Arrange the four events of sensation in correct order.

a)

Transduction, stimulation, integration, conduction

b)

Integration, conduction, transduction, stimulation

c)

Conduction, integration, stimulation, transduction

d)

Stimulation, transduction, conduction, integration

30.

Which pathway carries fine touch, vibration, and proprioception to the cerebral cortex?

a)

Dorsal column–medial lemniscus

b)

Spinothalamic anterolateral tract

c)

Trigeminal sensory pathways

d)

Corticospinal pyramidal tract

31.

Identify the correct sequence for first-, second-, and third-order somatic sensory neurons.

a)

Receptor to thalamus, thalamus to cortex, cortex to cerebellum

b)

Receptor to cord/brainstem, cord/brainstem to thalamus, thalamus to cortex

c)

Receptor to cortex, cortex to thalamus, thalamus to brainstem

d)

Receptor to cord, cerebellum to thalamus, thalamus to cortex

32.

Which motor pathway primarily mediates voluntary skilled movements?

a)

Corticospinal pyramidal tracts

b)

Corticobulbar cranial motor tracts

c)

Basal ganglia–thalamo–cortical circuits

d)

Extrapyramidal reticulospinal systems

33.

Which cranial nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?

a)

Abducens nerve (CN VI)

b)

Optic nerve (CN II)

c)

Trochlear nerve (CN IV)

d)

Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

34.

What is the primary action of the medial rectus muscle?

a)

Intorsion of the eyeball

b)

Abduction of the eyeball

c)

Adduction of the eyeball

d)

Elevation of the eyeball

35.

Tears drain from the lacrimal sac directly into which structure?

a)

Nasolacrimal duct

b)

Lacrimal canaliculi

c)

Inferior meatus

d)

Lacrimal puncta

36.

Which layer of the eyeball includes the choroid and iris?

a)

Neural tunic

b)

Sensory tunic

c)

Vascular (uvea) tunic

d)

Fibrous tunic

37.

Which retinal cells form the optic nerve by their axons?

a)

Horizontal cells

b)

Ganglion cells

c)

Bipolar cells

d)

Photoreceptors

38.

Which process changes the lens shape to focus on near objects?

a)

Constriction of pupil

b)

Convergence

c)

Refraction

d)

Accommodation

39.

In myopia, where does the image focus relative to the retina?

a)

Directly on the retina

b)

On the optic disc

c)

In front of the retina

d)

Behind the retina

40.

Which structure is part of the visual pathway immediately after the optic nerve?

a)

Lateral geniculate nucleus

b)

Optic tract

c)

Optic radiations

d)

Optic chiasm

41.

Which ear region houses the ossicles that transmit and amplify vibrations?

a)

Middle ear

b)

External ear

c)

Cochlear duct

d)

Inner ear

42.

Which sequence correctly lists the middle ear bones from tympanic membrane to oval window?

a)

Incus, stapes, malleus

b)

Stapes, incus, malleus

c)

Malleus, stapes, incus

d)

Malleus, incus, stapes

43.

Which inner ear structure primarily converts fluid waves into nerve signals for hearing?

a)

Eustachian tube

b)

Semicircular canals

c)

Cochlea

d)

Vestibule

44.

The utricle and saccule are specialized to detect which stimulus?

a)

Linear acceleration

b)

Light intensity changes

c)

Sound pressure waves

d)

Rotational acceleration

45.

Which fluid fills the scala vestibuli of the cochlea?

a)

Perilymph

b)

Endolymph

c)

Aqueous humor

d)

Vitreous humor

46.

Which statement best distinguishes the bony labyrinth from the membranous labyrinth?

a)

Bony labyrinth contains endolymph

b)

Bony labyrinth has rigid bone walls

c)

Membranous labyrinth filled with perilymph

d)

Membranous labyrinth houses ossicles

47.

Which retinal cells mediate lateral processing and contrast modulation?

a)

Rods and cones

b)

Bipolar and ganglion cells

c)

Amacrine and horizontal cells

d)

Macular and foveal cells

48.

Which combination of mechanisms enables binocular vision on a near target?

a)

Constriction and dilation

b)

Refraction and dilation

c)

Accommodation and convergence

d)

Convergence and divergence

49.

Which pathway component relays visual information from the thalamus to the primary visual cortex?

a)

Optic nerve fibers

b)

Optic chiasm fibers

c)

Optic radiations

d)

Superior colliculus

50.

Which external ear structure primarily collects and funnels sound into the auditory meatus?

a)

Pinna

b)

Round window

c)

Tympanic cavity

d)

Oval window

51.

Which function is primarily performed by muscle tissue in thermoregulation?

a)

Generating heat via thermogenesis

b)

Maintaining posture during standing

c)

Stabilizing synovial joints

d)

Regulating blood glucose levels

52.

Which property describes a muscle’s ability to respond to a neural stimulus?

a)

Contractility of myofibrils

b)

Elasticity after stretch

c)

Extensibility under load

d)

Excitability in the sarcolemma

53.

Which statement best distinguishes skeletal muscle from cardiac and smooth muscle?

a)

Striated, voluntary, multinucleated fibers

b)

Striated, involuntary, single nucleus

c)

Nonstriated, involuntary, single nucleus

d)

Striated, involuntary, intercalated discs

54.

What is the origin of a muscle?

a)

Attachment to dermis

b)

Movable distal attachment

c)

Attachment to organ lumen

d)

Stable proximal attachment

55.

Which definition correctly identifies a tendon?

a)

Dense tissue connecting muscle to bone

b)

Dense tissue connecting bone to bone

c)

Elastic tissue connecting muscle to skin

d)

Loose tissue connecting muscle to fascia

56.

Where is fascia primarily found?

a)

Connective layers around muscles

b)

Hyaline cartilage in joints

c)

Adipose around kidneys

d)

Epithelial lining of vessels

57.

A muscle fascicle is best described as:

a)

Bundle of muscle fibers

b)

Single myocyte cell

c)

Membrane of the sarcolemma

d)

Protein bundle of actin

58.

Which term names the muscle cell itself?

a)

Sarcomere or unit

b)

Myofibril or filament

c)

Muscle fiber or myocyte

d)

Endomysium or sheath

59.

Why do skeletal muscle fibers contain multiple nuclei?

a)

High rates of mitosis after birth

b)

Insertion of satellite cell cytoplasm

c)

Fusion of myoblasts during development

d)

Continuous nuclear budding from SR

60.

Which structure stores and releases calcium in muscle fibers?

a)

Sarcolemma membrane

b)

Transverse (T) tubules

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)

d)

Myofibril bundle

61.

Which proteins comprise the thin filament?

a)

Actin, troponin, tropomyosin

b)

Myosin, titin, nebulin

c)

Tropomyosin, desmin, myosin

d)

Actin, myosin, desmin

62.

In a sarcomere, which band is dark because it contains thick filaments?

a)

A band with thick filaments

b)

I band with thin filaments

c)

Z line with proteins

d)

M line with myosin heads

63.

Which ions move across the muscle fiber membrane to generate the action potential?

a)

Mg2+ influx and K+ influx

b)

H+ influx and Na+ efflux

c)

Ca2+ influx and Cl− efflux

d)

Na+ influx and K+ efflux

64.

During the sliding filament mechanism, which event is central to filament movement?

a)

Myosin heads power stroke pulling actin

b)

Titin shortens to move Z-lines

c)

Actin heads detach from myosin

d)

Troponin binds ATP to cock myosin

65.

Calcium ions enable filament sliding primarily by:

a)

Crosslinking actin to Z-lines

b)

Binding myosin to hydrolyze ATP

c)

Binding troponin to move tropomyosin

d)

Entering T-tubules to depolarize

66.

Which process during contraction-relaxation directly requires ATP?

a)

Crossbridge cycling detachment

b)

Na+ channel opening

c)

Tropomyosin synthesis

d)

Titin elasticity reset

67.

Which cartilage type primarily composes articular cartilage covering long bone ends?

a)

Elastic cartilage in movable joints

b)

Hyaline cartilage at synovial surfaces

c)

Fibrocartilage within diaphyseal regions

d)

Calcified cartilage surrounding epiphyses

68.

During appositional growth of cartilage, which cell adds new matrix to the external surface?

a)

Osteoblasts along osteons

b)

Chondroblasts at the perichondrium

c)

Osteoclasts in resorption bays

d)

Chondrocytes embedded in lacunae

69.

Which bone cell type primarily performs matrix synthesis and builds new bone?

a)

Osteoblasts producing osteoid matrix

b)

Osteoclasts derived from monocytes

c)

Osteocytes maintaining mineral homeostasis

d)

Osteogenic stem cells in periosteum

70.

Identify the correct pairing of bone classification with an example.

a)

Long bone — skull

b)

Short bone — carpals

c)

Irregular bone — sternum

d)

Flat bone — vertebrae

71.

Which structure is the shaft region of a long bone containing compact bone and medullary cavity?

a)

Diaphysis forming the main shaft

b)

Periosteum covering the surface

c)

Metaphysis at the growth plate

d)

Epiphysis with trabecular interior

72.

Which layer provides osteogenic cells for growth and repair on the outer bone surface?

a)

Articular cartilage over joints

b)

Endosteum lining the medullary cavity

c)

Periosteum fibrous outer layer

d)

Trabecular lattice inside epiphyses

73.

Compact bone is best described as which structural feature?

a)

Outer dense shell containing osteons

b)

Internal network of trabeculae

c)

Cartilage model for ossification

d)

Lining membrane with progenitors

74.

Which statement accurately contrasts intramembranous and endochondral ossification?

a)

Intramembranous forms flat bones from mesenchyme

b)

Endochondral arises directly from mesenchyme

c)

Intramembranous forms long bones

d)

Both begin from cartilage models

75.

Which joint type is mostly immovable and found in skull sutures?

a)

Fibrous synarthroses

b)

Cartilaginous amphiarthroses

c)

Synovial diarthroses

d)

Ball-and-socket joints

76.

Which feature is characteristic of synovial joints and helps reduce friction between bones?

a)

Periosteal blood supply

b)

Endosteal lining cells

c)

Trabecular bone meshwork

d)

Articular cartilage presence

77.

Which synovial joint subtype permits rotation around a single axis, as at the atlantoaxial joint?

a)

Saddle joint morphology

b)

Plane joint surfaces

c)

Hinge joint mechanism

d)

Pivot joint configuration

78.

Which accessory structure primarily enhances joint stability by connecting bone to bone?

a)

Ligaments providing restraint

b)

Menisci cushioning congruity

c)

Bursae reducing friction

d)

Tendon sheaths enclosing tendons

79.

Which pair correctly matches movement with its description?

a)

Abduction: movement away from midline

b)

Supination: foot inward tilting

c)

Eversion: sole turned medially

d)

Dorsiflexion: toes pointing downward

80.

A lateral blow to the knee with the foot planted most commonly injures which triad?

a)

ACL, LCL, biceps femoris

b)

PCL, LCL, lateral meniscus

c)

ACL, MCL, medial meniscus

d)

MCL, patellar tendon, tibial plateau

81.

Which statement best differentiates strain from sprain?

a)

Strain: muscle or tendon; Sprain: ligament

b)

Strain: ligament tear; Sprain: muscle

c)

Strain: joint dislocation; Sprain: fracture

d)

Strain: bone injury; Sprain: cartilage

82.

Which factor most directly limits a joint’s range of motion under normal conditions?

a)

Joint capsule and ligaments

b)

Marrow cavity pressure

c)

Osteoclast resorption rate

d)

Periosteal thickness

83.

Which function is primarily supported by keratinocytes in the epidermis?

a)

Immune surveillance against pathogens

b)

Pigment production to absorb UV

c)

Main barrier against water loss

d)

Deep pressure sensory reception

84.

Arrange the epidermal layers from deep to superficial in thick skin.

a)

Basale → spinosum → granulosum → lucidum → corneum

b)

Corneum → lucidum → granulosum → spinosum → basale

c)

Lucidum → granulosum → spinosum → basale → corneum

d)

Spinosum → basale → granulosum → corneum → lucidum

85.

Which statement best differentiates eccrine from apocrine sweat glands?

a)

Apocrine are unrelated to hair follicles

b)

Eccrine secrete oily sebum widely

c)

Apocrine produce watery sweat for cooling

d)

Eccrine produce watery sweat for cooling

86.

A patient with reduced grip strength shows diminished dermal papillae. Which consequence is most likely?

a)

Decreased epidermal–dermal attachment strength

b)

Increased melanocyte density in stratum basale

c)

Enhanced reticular layer collagen crosslinking

d)

Elevated sebum secretion from sebaceous glands

87.

Which layer of the dermis primarily provides tensile strength and houses glands and hair follicles?

a)

Papillary layer with loose connective tissue

b)

Reticular layer with dense irregular tissue

c)

Stratum spinosum with desmosomes

d)

Hypodermis with adipose and vessels

88.

Which epidermal cell type functions mainly in immune defense within the skin?

a)

Merkel cells for tactile reception

b)

Keratinocytes as barrier cells

c)

Melanocytes producing melanin

d)

Langerhans cells as antigen-presenting

89.

Which combination best lists core skin functions?

a)

Protection, sensation, vitamin D, sweat excretion

b)

Immune defense, water barrier, hair growth only

c)

Blood storage and oxygen transport

d)

Thermoregulation only via apocrine sweat