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MEDL 279 Microbiology Review

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic classification?

a)

A) Kingdom, Class, Division, Order, Family, Genus, Species

b)

B) Kingdom, Division, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

c)

C) Kingdom, Order, Class, Division, Family, Genus, Species

d)

D) Kingdom, Family, Order, Class, Division, Genus, Species

2.

What is the proper written format of organism names?

a)

Genus capitalized, species lowercase, both italicized or underlined (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus)

b)

Genus and species both capitalized, not italicized (e.g., Staphylococcus Aureus)

c)

Genus lowercase, species capitalized, both italicized (e.g., staphylococcus Aureus)

d)

Genus and species both lowercase, underlined only (e.g., staphylococcus aureus)

3.

What is a major difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

a)

Eukaryotes have a nuclear membrane; prokaryotes do not.

b)

Prokaryotes have mitochondria; eukaryotes do not.

c)

Eukaryotes lack ribosomes; prokaryotes have them.

d)

Prokaryotes have a nucleus; eukaryotes do not.

4.

Capsules and slime layers act as what type of property for cells?

a)

Antiphagocytic properties

b)

Photosynthetic properties

c)

Motility properties

d)

Osmotic regulation properties

5.

Which of the following reagents is NOT used in Gram staining?

a)

CV

b)

Iodine

c)

Methylene Blue

d)

Safranin

6.

What is the main reason why Gram staining differentiates between Gram positive and Gram negative organisms?

a)

Increased peptidoglycan cell wall content for Gram positive organisms.

b)

It stains the DNA of Gram negative organisms only.

c)

It dissolves the plasma membrane of Gram positive organisms.

d)

It reacts with the ribosomes of Gram negative organisms.

7.

Exotoxins are released by which type of organisms?

a)

Gram positive

b)

Gram negative

c)

Both Gram positive and Gram negative

d)

Neither

8.

What is the main characteristic of a pathogen?

a)

Capable of eliciting an immune response

b)

Unable to survive in any environment

c)

Always beneficial to humans

d)

Cannot reproduce

9.

What is the difference between a true pathogen and an opportunistic pathogen?

a)

A true pathogen can cause disease in a healthy host, while an opportunistic pathogen causes disease only in a compromised host.

b)

A true pathogen only infects animals, while opportunistic pathogens infect plants.

c)

A true pathogen requires a vector for transmission, while opportunistic pathogens do not.

d)

A true pathogen is always viral, while opportunistic pathogens are always bacterial.

10.

What is phagocytosis in the context of host defenses?

a)

Phagocytosis is the process by which certain cells engulf and digest microorganisms and cellular debris.

b)

Phagocytosis is the process by which cells release antibodies into the bloodstream.

c)

Phagocytosis is the process by which viruses replicate inside host cells.

d)

Phagocytosis is the process by which nutrients are absorbed from the digestive tract.

11.

Innate immunity is defined as:

a)

Inborn protection, genetically determined, non-specific

b)

Acquired after exposure to antigens

c)

Caused by gamma globulin activation

d)

Only present in infants

12.

Acquired immunity can be passive or active. Passive immunity is defined as ________.

a)

temporary resistance to infection by administration of antibodies performed in another host, mother to infant

b)

permanent resistance to infection by vaccination

c)

immunity developed after exposure to a pathogen

d)

immunity acquired through genetic inheritance

13.

Which of the following is a sign of infection?

a)

Decrease in WBC count

b)

Increase in APR's

c)

Decrease in APR's

d)

No change in WBC count

14.

What does humoral immunity involve?

a)

Gamma globulin activation

b)

Red blood cell production

c)

Bone marrow suppression

d)

Platelet aggregation

15.

Cell mediated immunity involves which of the following cells?

a)

T-helper cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

NK cells

d)

All of the above

16.

Nosocomial infections are also known as ________.

a)

Healthcare associated infections

b)

Community acquired infections

c)

Genetic disorders

d)

Nutritional deficiencies

17.

What is the most common BSL cabinet designation used?

a)

BSL 2

b)

BSL 1

c)

BSL 3

d)

BSL 4

18.

What does MSDS (SDS) stand for in laboratory safety?

a)

Material Safety Data Sheet (Safety Data Sheet)

b)

Medical Safety Data Sheet (Safety Data Sheet)

c)

Mechanical Safety Data Sheet (Safety Data Sheet)

d)

Microbial Safety Data Sheet (Safety Data Sheet)

19.

What are the three phases of specimen collection, transport, and processing?

a)

Preanalytical, Analytical, Postanalytical

b)

Preparation, Execution, Evaluation

c)

Initiation, Processing, Completion

d)

Collection, Storage, Analysis

20.

What would be the most common collection technique for urine cultures.

a)

Clean catch for urine cultures

b)

Random sample

c)

Refrigerated sample

d)

Collect blood sample

21.

What is an acceptable criterion for rejecting a sputum specimen?

a)

Greater than 10 epithelial cells per low power field (epi PLF) seen in a sputum specimen

b)

Presence of more than 25 neutrophils per low power field

c)

Specimen collected after antibiotic therapy has started

d)

Specimen with a purulent appearance

22.

What does 'Selective' mean in the context of media types?

a)

A) Anything will grow

b)

B) Selects out for a specific group

c)

C) Differentiated species of a certain group

d)

D) None of the above

23.

What does 'Nonselective' mean in the context of media types?

a)

A) Anything will grow

b)

B) Selects out for a specific group

c)

C) Differentiated species of a certain group

d)

D) None of the above

24.

What does 'Differential' mean in the context of media types?

a)

Anything will grow

b)

Selects out for a specific group

c)

Differentiated species of a certain group, based on certain criteria

d)

None of the above

25.

Name two incubation characteristics mentioned in the worksheet.

a)

Mesophilic, thermophile, capnophilic, obligate, facultative (any two)

b)

Anaerobic, phototrophic, halophilic, autotrophic (any two)

c)

Psychrophilic, xerophilic, acidophilic, alkaliphilic (any two)

d)

Parasitic, saprophytic, mutualistic, commensalistic (any two)

26.

What might be considered a "preliminary" biochemical test used for organism ID.

a)

Indole

b)

Gram staining, Acid-fast staining

c)

Sugar reduction

d)

PCR, ELISA

27.

What is the purpose of streaking methods in microbiology?

a)

Isolation (for wounds) and quantitation (for urines)

b)

To increase bacterial growth rate

c)

To sterilize culture media

d)

To identify viral infections

28.

What is the difference between narrow spectrum and broad spectrum antibiotics?

a)

Narrow spectrum antibiotics target specific types of bacteria, while broad spectrum antibiotics target a wide range of bacteria.

b)

Narrow spectrum antibiotics are more effective against viruses, while broad spectrum antibiotics are only effective against fungi.

c)

Narrow spectrum antibiotics can treat all types of infections, while broad spectrum antibiotics are limited to respiratory infections.

d)

Narrow spectrum antibiotics are used for pain relief, while broad spectrum antibiotics are used for reducing fever.

29.

Aminoglycosides interfere with which cellular process?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Cell wall synthesis

d)

Lipid metabolism

30.

What is the lowest amount of antibiotic needed to render a pathogen nonviable called?

a)

MIC (Minimum Inhibitory Concentration)

b)

MBC (Maximum Bactericidal Concentration)

c)

LD50 (Lethal Dose 50%)

d)

IC50 (Inhibitory Concentration 50%)

31.

In microbroth dilution, what are you looking for in the last well?

a)

No visible turbidity

b)

Increased color intensity

c)

Presence of precipitate

d)

Foaming at the surface

32.

What is the Gram stain interpretation for Staphylococci & Streptococci?

a)

Gram positive cocci

b)

Gram negative cocci

c)

Gram positive bacilli

d)

Gram negative bacilli

33.

Which enzyme is used to differentiate Staph from Strep?

a)

Catalase

b)

Coagulase

c)

Urease

d)

Oxidase

34.

Which technique is used to differentiate Staph species?

a)

Slide/Bound Technique

b)

Tube/Free Technique

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

35.

What is the hemolysis result for Staph aureus?

a)

Beta

b)

Alpha

c)

Gamma

d)

No hemolysis

36.

What is the hemolysis result for Staph epi?

a)

gamma

b)

alpha

c)

beta

d)

delta

37.

Which disease is associated with Staphylococci & Streptococci?

a)

TSS

b)

Pharyngitis

c)

Abscess and wounds

d)

All of the above

38.

Which media is selective for the isolation of Staphylococci & Streptococci?

a)

PEA

b)

MacConkey agar

c)

EMB agar

d)

Sabouraud agar

39.

MRSA is resistant to which antibiotic?

a)

Cefoxitin

b)

Amoxicillin

c)

Azithromycin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

40.

Which of the following is a resistance mechanism in Staphylococci & Streptococci?

a)

M (emm) Protein

b)

ASO

c)

Pneumolysin

d)

Streptokinase

e)

All of the above

41.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Neisseria?

a)

A) Gram positive cocci

b)

B) Gram negative diplococci

c)

C) Produces acid from all carbohydrates

d)

D) Non-capnophilic

42.

Which agar is used for the growth of Neisseria?

a)

Blood agar

b)

MTM agar

c)

MacConkey agar

d)

EMB agar

43.

The infectious process of Neisseria involves attachment to mucus membranes of the host through _____

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

capsule

d)

fimbriae

44.

Which of the following are species of Neisseria is shown to have glucose & lactose sugar reduction?

a)

N. gonorrhoeae

b)

N. meningitidis

c)

N. lactamica

d)

All of the above

45.

Which carbohydrates are used for identification of Neisseria species?

a)

Glucose, Maltose, Lactose

b)

Sucrose, Fructose, Galactose

c)

Mannose, Ribose, Xylose

d)

None of the above

46.

Moraxella catarrhalis does not produce acid from any carbohydrates.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Name one true pathogen from the Enterobacteriaceae family listed below.

a)

Salmonella

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

d)

Enterobacter cloacae

48.

Which of the following is a distinctive growth characteristic of Proteus?

a)

Swarming on BAP

b)

Mucoid Pink on MAC

c)

Black colonies on HEK

d)

Blue pigment production

49.

Which organism is associated with mucoid pink colonies on MAC for LF organisms?

a)

Salmonella

b)

Proteus

c)

E. coli

d)

Citrobacter

50.

Fill in the blank: Black colonies on HEK are characteristic of ________.

a)

Salmonella

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Shigella

51.

Which of the following organisms is found in the normal flora of the G.I tract?

a)

Shigella

b)

Y. pestis

c)

E. coli

d)

Salmonella

52.

Shigella is associated with which disease?

a)

Bacillary dysentery

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Malaria

d)

Cholera

53.

Which pigment is produced by Pseudomonas that gives a blue color?

a)

Pyocyanin

b)

Pyoverdin

c)

Indole

d)

Catalase

54.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Acinetobacter?

a)

A) Gram-Neg coccobacilli

b)

B) Oxidase positive

c)

C) NLF on MAC

d)

D) Can become an MDRO organism

55.

Kingella is oxidase positive.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Vibrio is commonly found in ________.

a)

sea water

b)

fresh water

c)

soil

d)

air

57.

Which of the following is a characteristic of Vibrio?

a)

Found in fresh water

b)

Halophilic organisms

c)

Produces high levels of Urease

d)

Causes Pontiac fever

58.

Vibrio cholerae is associated with ________ stools.

a)

Rice Water

b)

Bloody

c)

Mucous

d)

Watery

59.

Which test is positive for Vibrio?

a)

Catalase Test

b)

String Test

c)

Coagulase Test

d)

BYCE agar

60.

Campylobacter is microaerophilic and ________.

a)

Hydrophilic

b)

Halophilic

c)

Thermophilic

d)

Acidophilic

61.

Which of the following is true about Campylobacter?

a)

Growth at 25°C

b)

Oxidase=Pos

c)

Found in ulcers

d)

Mercury drop colonies

62.

Helicobacter pylori is commonly found in ________.

a)

Ulcers

b)

Lungs

c)

Kidneys

d)

Blood

63.

Haemophilus are Gram negative ________.

a)

coccobacilli

b)

cocci

c)

bacilli

d)

spirilla

64.

H. ducreyi is described as a ________ of fish.

a)

School

b)

Flock

c)

Pack

d)

Herd

65.

Which factor(s) does H. influenzae require for growth?

a)

X only

b)

V only

c)

X & V

d)

None

66.

Legionella causes ________ disease.

a)

Legionnaires

b)

Malaria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Cholera

67.

Which agar is used for Legionella?

a)

Regan-Lowe agar

b)

BYCE agar

c)

TCBS agar

d)

BAP

68.

Bordetella pertussis causes ________ cough.

a)

Whooping

b)

Dry

c)

Productive

d)

Barking

69.

Pasteurella is a ___ (abbreviation).

a)

GNR

b)

GPC

c)

GNC

d)

GPR

70.

Which bacterium is associated with Rat Bite Fever?

a)

Streptobacillus

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Bacillus anthracis

71.

Which group includes Haemophilus, Aggregatibacter, Cardiobacterium/Capnocytophaga, Eikenella, and Kingella?

a)

HACEK Group

b)

Enterobacteriaceae

c)

Streptococcus Group

d)

Mycobacterium Complex

72.

Which bacterium is known for a bleach smell and is part of the HACEK group?

a)

Eikenella

b)

Haemophilus

c)

Actinobacillus

d)

Cardiobacterium

73.

What is the most common form of anthrax?

a)

Cutaneous

b)

Inhalational

c)

Gastrointestinal

d)

Oropharyngeal

74.

Which Bacillus species is associated with food poisoning from leftover potato salad?

a)

Bacillus cereus

b)

Bacillus subtilis

c)

Bacillus anthracis

d)

Bacillus thuringiensis

75.

Which test is used for toxin detection in Corynebacterium diphtheriae?

a)

Elek test (now there are PCR methods)

b)

Mantoux test

c)

Widal test

d)

VDRL test

76.

Which bacterium shows 'Chinese letter' morphology on gram stain?

a)

Corynebacterium

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Escherichia coli

d)

Bacillus

77.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?

a)

Agent of bioterrorism

b)

Motile

c)

Non-hemolytic

d)

Catalase positive

78.

Which bacterium is associated with lung infections?

a)

C. jeikeium

b)

C. urealyticum

c)

Listeria

d)

Gardnerella

79.

Which bacterium is a urinary pathogen and produces high levels of urea (Rapid Pos)?

a)

C. jeikeium

b)

C. urealyticum

c)

Lactobacillus

d)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

80.

What is the optimal temperature for motility in Listeria?

a)

25°C

b)

37°C

c)

4°C

d)

50°C

81.

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae has this characteristic positive results.

a)

H2s

b)

Indole

c)

Catalase

d)

Oxidase

82.

Lactobacillus is found naturally in what part of the body and is considered normal flora for women.

a)

Vaginal

b)

Skin

c)

Oral

d)

GI

83.

Which bacterium is associated with bacterial vaginosis and clue cells?

a)

Gardnerella

b)

Listeria

c)

Borrelia

d)

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

84.

Spirochetes are visualized by ______ microscopy.

a)

darkfield

b)

brightfield

c)

phase contrast

d)

fluorescence

85.

Borrelia burgdorferi causes which disease?

a)

Lyme disease

b)

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

c)

Malaria

d)

Tuberculosis

86.

Borrelia recurrentis is associated with which disease?

a)

Relapsing fever

b)

Lyme disease

c)

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

d)

Q fever

87.

Treponema pallidum is associated with which disease?

a)

Venereal syphilis

b)

Gonorrhea

c)

Chlamydia

d)

Trichomoniasis

88.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of syphilis?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Quaternary

d)

Latent

89.

Which test is used for screening Treponema pallidum and is a non-treponemal assay?

a)

RPR

b)

FTA-ABS

c)

TPPA

d)

PCR

90.

What is the purpose of the FTA-ABS test in Treponema pallidum diagnosis?

a)

Confirmation (Treponemal)

b)

Screening (Non-treponemal)

c)

Detection of viral infections

d)

Measurement of blood glucose

91.

Which group of anaerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli is most commonly isolated in the lab?

a)

Bacteroides Fragilis group

b)

Fusobacterium nucleatum

c)

Prevotella melaninogenica

d)

Porphyromonas gingivalis

92.

Prevotella is associated with which type of infections?

a)

Oral infections/Bites

b)

Urinary tract infections

c)

Skin fungal infections

d)

Respiratory viral infections

93.

Which anaerobic Gram-Negative Bacilli is pigmented and shows brick-red fluorescence under UV light?

a)

Prevotella

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Fusobacterium nucleatum

d)

Porphyromonas gingivalis

94.

This stain is considered the "hot stain" for acid fast techniques.

a)

Ziehl-Nelsen

b)

Kinyoun

c)

Gram

d)

MPO

95.

This agar is most widely used for the cultivation of mycobacteria species.

a)

Lowenstein Jensen

b)

BYCE

c)

Bordet-Gengou

d)

Triple iron

96.

Processing mycobacteria specimens will require what step.

a)

Decontamination

b)

Heating

c)

Conjugation

d)

Fermentation

97.

MTB is said to show what texture when grown on TB specific media?

a)

Rough & Buff

b)

Dry & Cracked

c)

Mucoid & Stringy

d)

Rough & Dry