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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the continental drift hypothesis, the presence of similar fossils in South America and Africa supports which scientific idea?

a)

Animals easily and frequently travel from Africa to South America.

b)

Species of animals probably traveled between continents on natural rafts (such as trees destroyed in tsunamis).

c)

Animals were able to swim between continents.

d)

South America and Africa were once connected together.

2.

The epicenter of an earthquake is

a)

The point below the surface where rock begins to break and the first motion occurs

b)

The seismic station closest to the earthquake

c)

The place where the greatest damage occurs

d)

The point on the surface directly above the focus

3.

Which type of crust is the densest?

a)

Oceanic Crust

b)

Continental Crust

c)

Artic Crust

d)

Wegener Crust

4.

What theory proved continental drift?

a)

Theory of Relativity

b)

Theory of Inertia

c)

Seafloor Spreading

d)

Big Bang Theory

5.

Mt St Helens was created at what type of boundary?

a)

Continental Continental Convergent

b)

Continental Oceanic Convergent

c)

Oceanic Oceanic Convergent

d)

Continental Continental Divergent

6.

Match the plate boundary with its type of stress. Mark only one oval per row.

a)

Shearing

1.

Transform

b)

Compression

2.

Convergent

c)

Tension

3.

Divergent

7.

In sea-floor spreading, molten materials rises from the mantle and erupts

a)

at the North and South Poles

b)

In deep ocean trenches

c)

along the edges of all the continents

d)

along mid-ocean ridges

8.

This family of rocks results as one rock changes into another due to increased heat and pressure on the rock and the rock does not melt.

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Artificial

9.

90% of all earthquakes and volcanoes on Earth occur

a)

in the Atlantic Ocean

b)

around the Ring of Fire

c)

in the United States

d)

during a full moon

10.

What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?

a)

Mountain

b)

Island Arc

c)

Rift

d)

Volcano

11.

The "slippage" in a rock that occurs underground where the earthquake begins occurs at the (a)   . The point directly above this point on the surface of Earth is called the (b)   .

Choose from the below words

Focus Point

Epicenter

Fault Line

Seismic Zone

12.

The San Andreas Fault spans the length of California where two plates are sliding past each other in opposite directions. What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

a volcanic eruption

b)

a divergent boundary

c)

a transform boundary

d)

a convergent boundary

13.

As rain falls on the top of a cliff, water seeps into the cracks of the rock. As the temperature reaches 0°C, the water expands and breaks the rock apart. Eventually, the rock falls to the ground.

a)

Creep

b)

Abrasion

c)

Ice Wedging

d)

Chemical Weathering

14.

What is the name of the process in which igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks are converted into one another in stages?

a)

Rock cycle

b)

Erosion cycle

c)

Magma cycle

d)

Tectonic cycle

15.

Rock that forms when minerals form from solutions or sediment from older rocks get compressed and cemented together.

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Crystal

16.

What type of rock are limestone and coal classified as?

a)

Igneous

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Crystal

17.

To which soil horizon does soil erosion caused by deforestation have the biggest impact?

a)

C

b)

A

c)

B

d)

E

e)

R

18.

What is a water footprint?

a)

how often you walk in wetlands and river basins

b)

your total waste water contribution

c)

a measure of the goods and activities in your life that require fresh water

d)

a country's total fresh water resources

19.
Question Image

Using the diagram below, correctly identify the stages of the hydrologic cycle. Mark only one oval per row.

a)

Condensation

1.

5

b)

Evaporation

2.

4

c)

Precipitation

3.

1

d)

Runoff

4.

2

e)

Transpiration

5.

6

20.

Which of the following is one of the largest aquifers in the world?

a)

Biscayne Aquifer

b)

Ogallala Aquifer

c)

Okeechobee Aquifer

d)

Neuse Aquifer

21.

The measure of how quickly water moves through spaces in rock or sediment is called

a)

Capacity

b)

Permeability

c)

Porosity

d)

Transparency

22.

When water is unable to percolate down through soil layers.

a)

runoff

b)

evapotranspiration

c)

gravitational pull

d)

tides

23.

What would most likely result if more farms were developed along river basins in North Carolina?

a)

an increase in water pollution

b)

an increase in average rainfall

c)

an increase in nonnative species

d)

an increase in severe weather events

24.

This law regulates the discharges of pollutants into all surface water (rivers and streams) to make them suitable for swimming and aquatic ecosystems.

a)

Ocean Pollution Ban

b)

National Environmental Policy Act

c)

Marine Mammal and Sanctuary Act

d)

Safe Drinking Water Act

e)

Clean Water Act

25.

A hog farm is built next to the Neuse River. Over the past several months, the nitrate levels of the water in the river have been increasing. Which best explains the cause of the increasing nitrate levels?

a)

increased growth of algae

b)

decreased biodiversity

c)

runoff from fertilizer

d)

acid rain

26.

Which would most likely happen if too many nutrients entered an estuary?

a)

Nutrients would be used up by the fish and plants, keeping the estuary in balance.

b)

Algal blooms would decrease, leaving few food resources for fish.

c)

Algal blooms would lower dissolved oxygen levels, causing fish to suffocate.

d)

Nutrients would sink to the bottom, increasing soil deposition.

27.

The diagram below shows a cross section of land. Numbers show four zones in this diagram. Which set of labels accurately identifies the zones that are shown?

a)

1—groundwater zone; 2—unsaturated zone; 3—water table; 4—surface water

b)

1—unsaturated zone; 2—surface water; 3—groundwater zone; 4—water table

c)

1—water table; 2—surface water; 3—groundwater zone; 4—unsaturated zone

d)

1—unsaturated zone; 2—groundwater zone; 3—water table; 4—surface water

28.

If the water pollution comes from a variety of sources and you can't tell where it started, it is called

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-Point Source Pollution

c)

Visible Pollution Source

d)

Non-visible Multi source pollution

29.

When sea water is pulled into an aquifer because it is being depleted quicker than being recharged, this is called

a)

salt water contamination

b)

salt water intrusion

c)

aquifer depletion

d)

aquifer poisoning

30.

Algae Blooms and eutrophication are the result of

a)

pesticide pollution

b)

urbanization

c)

sewage and fertilizers

d)

increased population of aquatic organisms

31.

Which property is responsible (causes) convection?

a)

latitude

b)

density

c)

topography

d)

elevation

32.

meteors burn up in this layer

a)

Stratosphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Troposphere

33.

What is the barometric pressure for the following station model?

a)

986mb

b)

998.6 mb

c)

1098.6 mb

d)

1098 mb

34.

Global wind belts between 30 and 60 degrees north latitude and affect the US and Canada's weather are called ________.

a)

Trade winds

b)

Jet streams

c)

Easterlies

d)

Westerlies

35.

Winds are named based on ________________.

a)

the type of weather they are associated with

b)

the time of year

c)

where they come from

d)

the direction they are moving

e)

Other: ____________

36.

What are the characteristics of maritime polar air masses?

a)

Cool and dry

b)

Warm and dry

c)

Cool and humid

d)

Warm and humid

37.

A high pressure system is moving into North Carolina tomorrow. Which of the following would best describe the resulting weather conditions?

a)

Stormy, cloudy and lots of rain

b)

Cold with freezing rain

c)

Clear skies without clouds

d)

Unusually hot temperatures

38.

A line on a weather map that connects points of equal temperature is called a(n)

a)

isotherm

b)

isobar

c)

contour line

d)

high pressure

39.

Examine the image below. Which weather front is being represented?

a)

Cold Front

b)

Occluded Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Warm Front

40.

Put simply, ________________ makes things (like planes or currents of air) traveling long distances around Earth appear to move at a curve as opposed to a straight line.

a)

the Coriolis Effect

b)

the convection currents

c)

heating the atmosphere at 30 degrees latitude

d)

the Greenhouse Effect

41.

Which of the following lists the layers of the atmosphere in order starting from the Earth's surface?

a)

Thermosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere

b)

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere

c)

Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere

d)

Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere

42.

What gaseous element makes up 78% of the air we breathe?

a)

Argon

b)

Helium

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

43.

Which state will soon be experiencing cooler temperatures?

a)

Arkansas

b)

Tennessee

c)

Louisiana

d)

Oklahoma

44.

Hurricanes develop

a)

in colder ocean regions near the poles

b)

over warm ocean water and along the equator

c)

in the southern hemisphere only

d)

over continents with lots of precipitation

45.

The natural process by which heat is trapped by gases in the Earth's atmosphere is called

a)

The Greenhouse Effect

b)

Global Warming

c)

Climate Change

d)

The Butterfly Effect

46.

What causes urban heat islands?

a)

movement of people from farms to cities

b)

soil erosion

c)

lots and lots of people heating their homes

d)

roads and buildings absorb and retain heat longer than vegetation does

47.

Which could increase the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

planting trees in areas that have been deforested

b)

reducing the use of gasoline-powered vehicles

c)

burning coal to produce electricity

d)

creating wind farms in desert areas

48.

Temperature affects the development of sea-turtle eggs. Eggs that are incubated at warmer temperatures are more likely to become females. Eggs incubated at cooler temperatures are more likely to become males. How would higher atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations MOST likely affect sea turtle populations?

a)

A) Earth's climate would be warmer, so the percentage of female turtles would increase.

b)

B) Earth's climate would be cooler, so the percentage of female turtles would increase.

c)

C) Earth's climate would be warmer, so the percentage of female turtles would decrease.

d)

D) Earth's climate would be cooler, so the percentage of female turtles would decrease.

49.

Global warming affects sea levels. Which of these is a likely consequence if the trend of global warming continues in coming decades?

a)

erosion of sediment from a mountain range

b)

mass extinction of marine organisms

c)

formation of an ocean trench

d)

melting of polar ice caps

50.

As altitude increases, what happens to the pressure of the air?

a)

The air pressure increases.

b)

The air pressure decreases.

c)

The air pressure stays the same.

d)

the Coriolis effect takes over

51.

Different areas of Earth’s oceans receive different amounts of energy in the form of heat, resulting in ocean currents and weather patterns. What is the main source of this energy?

a)

kinetic energy from tides

b)

kinetic energy from ocean currents

c)

energy transfer within Earth’s crust

d)

electromagnetic radiation from the sun

52.

Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy source?

a)

Nuclear Energy

b)

Wind Energy

c)

Biomass

d)

Hydroelectric

53.

Which of the following situations is MOST HARMFUL to an ecosystem's food web or food chain?

a)

introduction of a similar producer

b)

increase in the population of producers

c)

loss of one of the top consumers

d)

disease killing the producers

54.

Why is biodiversity so important?

a)

Because all species depend on each other to survive, so if one becomes extinct another species that relies on it could go extinct as well

b)

Because it’s better to have only one variation of each species.

c)

Because it better to only have a few species on Earth.

55.

What factor does NOT affect biodiversity?

a)

urbanization

b)

planting native species

c)

overfishing

d)

pollution

56.

Compared to an inland location of the same elevation and latitude, a coastal location is likely to have

a)

cooler summers and cooler winters.

b)

cooler summers and warmer winters.

c)

warmer summers and warmer winters.

d)

warmer summers and cooler winters.

57.

All of the following are sources of energy in NC except

a)

Nuclear

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Geothermal

d)

Bioenergy

58.

Kudzu, a plant originally from Japan that has overtaken many areas in the southeastern United States is a(n)

a)

carnivorous plant

b)

captive species

c)

invasive species

d)

keystone species

59.

Which graph best represents global human population growth?

a)

A - J-shaped Exponential Growth

b)

B - S-Shaped Logistic Growth

c)

C - Linear Growth

d)

None of these

60.

Limiting factors help keep populations in check. Which is not a limiting factor?

a)

Predators

b)

Water Availability

c)

Disease

d)

all of these are limiting factors

61.

Which of the following is true about aquaculture?

a)

Aquaculture is inefficient.

b)

Aquaculture is similar to farming or ranching.

c)

Aquaculture does not help the economy

d)

Aquaculture like commercial fishing is uncertain and inconsistent.

62.

The number of organisms of a species that an ecosystem can support is called the

a)

carrying capacity

b)

growth capacity

c)

population cap

d)

growth cap

63.

What is the BEST way to limit runoff and topsoil loss?

a)

increased tillage of farming areas

b)

conservation tillage and cover crops

c)

increased fertilizer applications and use of pesticides

d)

planting monocultures

64.

Acid rain is caused by

a)

the evaporation of acidic ponds

b)

naturally acidic areas of the country emitting fumes from the soil

c)

energy producing power plants that emit sulfur and nitrogen

d)

aquifers and non-permeable layers underground

65.

The best explanation of the arrows in food web...

a)

who eats who

b)

the direction that energy flows

c)

The biome's characteristics

d)

The differences between consumers and producers

e)

Other: ____________

66.

Which action will most likely cause a negative impact on the biodiversity of a small region?

a)

planting native species in a bare field to attract wildlife

b)

draining a wetland for the development of a new park

c)

reducing the amount of pesticides and fertilizers used

d)

having a controlled burn to remove undergrowth of a forest

67.

The tick attaches itself to the deer and feeds on blood and nutrients. It often transfers diseases like Lyme and Spotted Rocky Mountain Fever. This is an example of

a)

predator prey

b)

commensalism

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

68.

The Dust Bowl of the 1930's resulted in the passage of what legislation

a)

Irrigation Law

b)

Soil Erosion and Conservation Act

c)

Public Rangelands Improvement Act

d)

Aquifer and Surface Water Act

69.

Earthquakes most frequently occur ______

a)

along plate boundaries

b)

in the middle of plates

c)

near hot spots

d)

along divergent boundaries

70.

One of the deadliest and most destructive parts of a volcanic eruption is

a)

lava

b)

magma

c)

pyroclastic flow

d)

floods and weather

71.

What are the 2 main limiting factors for deciding if an organism can survive in an environment?

a)

Temperature and food

b)

Water and soil

c)

Temperature and water

d)

Air and enzymes