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CPE325 Removal

Total questions: 78

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A storage medium or device in which information, including sounds and/or images, or software code, has been stored, either by mastering and/or replication, which may be accessed and read using a lens scanning mechanism employing a high intensity light source such as a laser or any such other means as may be developed in the future.

a)

Mastering

b)

Manufacture

c)

Magnetic Media

d)

Optical Media

2.

A person or organization who controls the collection, holding, processing or use of personal information, including a person or organization who instructs another person or organization to collect, hold, process, use, transfer or disclose personal information on his or her behalf.

a)

Data subject

b)

Personal information controller

c)

Personal information processor

d)

Commission

3.

Data Privacy Act of 2012 applies to personal information processed for journalistic, artistic, literary or research purposes.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which of the following grounds can the OMB may refuse to grant a license, or to renew a license?

a)

The offenders have pending case on the application involves a place, location or premises where an offense has been committed under DPA or under any law relating to the protection of intellectual property rights

b)

The applicant has been previously issued a license that has been approved for cause within the preceding five (5) years from the date of the application

c)

The applicant has furnished the OMB with any misleading information in connection with any application for or renewal of a license

d)

The applicant has complied with all the requirement imposed by the Board pursuant to DPA and its implementing rules and regulations

5.

Act or business of producing a stamper made of glass, metal or other material, intended for the manufacture of optical media.

a)

Mastering

b)

Replication

c)

Duplication

d)

Manufacturing

6.

The following agencies, except one, are hereby attached to the Department of Information and Communications Technology for policy and program coordination, and shall continue to operate and function in accordance with the charters, laws or orders creating them, insofar as they are not inconsistent with this Act:

a)

Information and Communications Technology Office

b)

National Telecommunications Commission

c)

Cybercrime Investigation and Coordination Center

d)

National Privacy Commission

7.

Data Privacy Act of 2012 applies to an act done or practice engaged in and outside of the Philippines by an entity if:

a)

the act, practice or processing relates to personal information about a Philippine citizen living abroad

b)

the act, practice or processing relates to personal information about a Philippine citizen living in the Philippines

c)

the act, practice or processing relates to personal information about alien resident living in the Philippines

d)

the act, practice or processing relates to personal information about alien resident living abroad

8.

Electronic Commerce Act shall apply to any kind of electronic data message and electronic document used in the context of commercial activities to include domestic and international dealings, transactions, arrangements, agreements, contracts and exchanges and storage of information.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

This refers to a person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic data message or electronic document.

a)

Intermediary

b)

Addressee

c)

Data subject

d)

Originator

10.

This refers to a person who in behalf of another person and with respect to a particular electronic data message or electronic document sends, receives and/or stores or provides other services in respect of that electronic data message or electronic document.

a)

Intermediary

b)

Addressee

c)

Data subject

d)

Originator

11.

To encourage the transfer and dissemination of technology, prevent or control practices and conditions that may in particular cases constitute an abuse of intellectual property rights having an adverse effect on competition and trade.

a)

Transmission of Rights

b)

Voluntary Licensing

c)

Compulsory Licensing

d)

Assignment of Inventions

12.

This may be of the entire right, title or interest in and to the patent and the invention covered thereby, or of an undivided share of the entire patent and invention, in which event the parties become joint owners thereof.

a)

Transmission of Rights

b)

Compulsory Licensing

c)

Voluntary Licensing

d)

Assignment of Inventions

13.

Patents or applications for patents and invention to which they relate, shall be protected in the same way as the rights of other property under the Civil Code.

a)

Transmission of Rights

b)

Compulsory Licensing

c)

Voluntary Licensing

d)

Assignment of Inventions

14.

To exploit a patented invention, even without the agreement of the patent owner, in favor of any person who has shown his capability to exploit the invention, under any of the given circumstances.

a)

Transmission of Rights

b)

Compulsory Licensing

c)

Voluntary Licensing

d)

Assignment of Inventions

15.

Which of the following is a personal data?

a)

Information about juridical persons

b)

Identification Card

c)

Anonymous information that do not identify a person

d)

Aggregated data

16.

This refers to employing deception or any other means contrary to good faith by which a person passes off his goods or business or services for those of one who has already established goodwill thereto.

a)

Trademark Infringement

b)

Patent Infringement

c)

Copyright Infringement

d)

Unfair Competition

17.

Which of the following is not considered to be an economic right?

a)

Reproduction of work

b)

Dramatization

c)

Make alterations

d)

Rental

18.

An electronic signature on the electronic document shall be equivalent to the signature of a person on a written document if the signature is an electronic signature and proved by showing that a prescribed procedure, not alterable by the parties interested in the electronic document, except -

a)

A method is used to identify the party sought to be bound and to indicate said party's access to the electronic document necessary for his consent or approval through the electronic signature

b)

Said method is erroneous for the purpose for which the electronic document was generated or communicated, in the light of all circumstances, including any relevant agreement

c)

It is necessary for the party sought to be bound, in order to proceed further with the transaction, to have executed or provided the electronic signature

d)

The other party is authorized and enabled to verify the electronic signature and to make the decision to proceed with the transaction authenticated by the same.

19.

In DICT Act, this refers to the use of ICT by the government and the public to enhance the access to and delivery of government services to bring about efficient, responsive, ethical, accountable and transparent government service.

a)

Electronic Government

b)

ICT Sector

c)

Convergence

d)

Innovative Startup

20.

Originator refers to a person who is intended by the originator to receive the electronic data message or electronic document. Addressee refers to a person by whom, or on whose behalf, the electronic document purports to have been created, generated and/or sent.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

In any legal proceedings, everything in the application of the rules on evidence shall deny the admissibility of an electronic data message or electronic document in evidence on the sole ground that it is in electronic form.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

As between the originator and the addressee, an electronic document is deemed to be that of the originator if it was sent by a person who had the authority to act on behalf of the originator with respect to that electronic data message or electronic document.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

As between the originator and the addressee, an addressee is entitled to regard an electronic document as being that of the addressee if electronic document as received by the addressee resulted from the actions of a person whose relationship with the originator.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The disclosure of information contained in the application during the 5 years preceding the filing date or the priority date of the application shall not prejudice the applicant on the ground of lack of novelty if such disclosure was made by the inventor.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

If two or more persons have made the invention separately and independently of each other, the right to the patent shall belong to the person who filed an application for such invention, or where two or more applications are filed for the same invention, to the applicant who has the earliest filing date or, the earliest priority date.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Unlike in the copyright, the person who made the commissioned work shall own the patent.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

If there exists an employment contract, the patent shall belong to the employer, if the inventive activity is not a part of his regular duties even if the employee uses the time, facilities and materials of the employer.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Territorial principle applies in copyright.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Literary and artistic works are original intellectual creations in the literary and artistic domain protected from the moment of their publication.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The publisher shall have a copyright consisting merely of the right of reproduction of the typographical arrangement of the published edition of the work.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

The copyright is distinct from the property in the material object subject to it.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

The owner of a trademark has a right of property to prevent others from manufacturing, producing, or selling the same article to which it is attached.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

There is confusion of goods when the products are competing.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Under the principle of idem sonans rule, a mark with a different spelling but is similar in sound with a registered trademark when read cannot be ruled as similar with the said registered mark.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

A patent is any literary and artistic works which are original intellectual creations in the literary or artistic domain protected from the moment of creation.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Before patent infringement can take place, no other document is necessary.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Disposal refers to when the infringing goods are completely destroyed and are put beyond further use.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The development of electronic commerce shall be led primarily by the private sector in response to market forces.

a)

Protection of Users

b)

Electronic Commerce Awareness

c)

Role of the Private Sector

d)

International Coordination and Harmonization

39.

The news or the event itself is not copyrightable.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Under the principle of idem sonans rule, a mark with a different spelling but is similar in sound with a registered trademark when read cannot be ruled as similar with the said registered mark.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

A patent is any literary and artistic works which are original intellectual creations in the literary or artistic domain protected from the moment of creation.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Before patent infringement can take place, no other document is necessary.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Disposal refers to when the infringing goods are completely destroyed and are put beyond further use.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

The development of electronic commerce shall be led primarily by the private sector in response to market forces.

a)

Protection of Users

b)

Electronic Commerce Awareness

c)

Role of the Private Sector

d)

International Coordination and Harmonization

45.

The news or the event itself is not copyrightable.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Which of the following grounds can the OMB may refuse to grant a license, or to renew a license?

a)

The offenders have pending case on the application involves a place, location or premises where an offense has been committed under DPA or under any law relating to the protection of intellectual property rights

b)

The applicant has been previously issued a license that has been approved for cause within the preceding five (5) years from the date of the application

c)

The applicant has furnished the OMB with any misleading information in connection with any application for or renewal of a license

d)

The applicant has complied with all the requirement imposed by the Board pursuant to DPA and its implementing rules and regulations

47.

Which of the following is a personal data?

a)

Information about juridical persons

b)

Anonymous information that do not identify a person

c)

Identification Card

d)

Aggregated data

48.

A registered mark shall have no effect against any person who, in good faith, before the filing date or the priority date, was using the mark for the purposes of his business or enterprise.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

A conflict of interest occurs when:

a)

An engineer fails to complete a project

b)

An engineer has a personal interest that could influence professional judgment

c)

Two engineers disagree on a design

d)

A project goes over budget

50.

What should an engineer do upon discovering a critical flaw in a project?

a)

Ignore it if it's not their responsibility

b)

Cover it up to meet the deadline

c)

Report it immediately to prevent harm

d)

Fix it secretly without documentation

51.

Accepting a bribe in exchange for approving substandard work is a violation of:

a)

Intellectual Property Law

b)

Procurement Rules

c)

Ethical Standards

d)

Engineering Design Guidelines

52.

Engineers should only accept work:

a)

If it pays well

b)

That enhances their résumé

c)

Within their field of competence

d)

Endorsed by political figures

53.

The E-Commerce Act of 2000 provides legal recognition for:

a)

Traditional print advertising

b)

Verbal agreements

c)

Electronic documents and signatures

d)

In-person transactions only

54.

What is the purpose of a feasibility study?

a)

To finalize marketing materials

b)

To evaluate if a project is viable

c)

To determine company branding

d)

To apply for a government grant

55.

Effective workplace communication includes:

a)

Selectively sharing information to maintain control over discussions

b)

Utilizing technical jargon to assert expertise and clarity

c)

Communicating ideas clearly, respectfully, and with appropriate detail

d)

Actively contributing by speaking frequently, even during others' turns

56.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) protects:

a)

Financial details like project budgets and expense reports

b)

Sensitive company secrets, confidential data, and trade information

c)

Routine administrative matters such as travel reimbursements

d)

General employee scheduling and attendance records

57.

Which of the following best exemplifies ethical behavior in engineering practice?

a)

Prioritizing client demands even when it compromises safety standards

b)

Disclosing all potential risks associated with a project, regardless of impact on client relations

c)

Fulfilling contractual obligations while avoiding discussion of known project limitations

d)

Delegating all difficult decisions to management to avoid personal accountability

58.

When faced with a conflict of interest, the best course of action is to:

a)

Disclose the conflict and recuse yourself from related decisions

b)

Attempt to manage the conflict quietly to maintain project momentum

c)

Ignore the conflict if it doesn't seem to affect project outcomes immediately

d)

Delegate the conflicting tasks to less experienced colleagues

59.

Intellectual property in computer engineering primarily protects:

a)

Physical components like circuit boards and hardware chassis

b)

Original software code, algorithms, and design documentation

c)

Employee work hours and job descriptions

d)

Open-source code available publicly

60.

Effective project communication should:

a)

Prioritize sending detailed reports even if recipients find them overwhelming

b)

Focus on clarity and relevance tailored to the audience's needs

c)

Avoid negative information to maintain morale

d)

Be limited to email exchanges to keep documentation

61.

When an engineer is asked to work on a project outside their expertise, the best response is to:

a)

Accept the project to avoid disappointing the client, then learn on the job

b)

Decline or seek supervision from a qualified expert to ensure quality

c)

Delegate the project entirely to a colleague without informing management

d)

Proceed as usual but avoid taking responsibility for possible issues

62.

Which situation best illustrates a breach of confidentiality?

a)

Sharing aggregated project data during a public seminar

b)

Discussing a client's proprietary information with friends outside work

c)

Reporting a security vulnerability to the software vendor

d)

Using public domain information in a company report

63.

In the event of a system failure, the priority of a computer engineer should be to:

a)

Identify and fix the root cause without communicating with stakeholders

b)

Inform stakeholders about the issue and provide regular updates while troubleshooting

c)

Shift blame to the operations team to avoid personal repercussions

d)

Document the failure only after the system is restored to avoid confusion

64.

Data privacy laws require engineers to:

a)

Share user data freely with third parties for business benefits

b)

Implement security measures and obtain consent before collecting data

c)

Ignore privacy concerns if data is anonymized internally

d)

Collect as much data as possible to improve product features

65.

An engineer discovers a potential safety hazard in a client's existing system but revealing it may delay the project and increase costs. The best professional action is to:

a)

Keep the discovery confidential to avoid jeopardizing the project timeline

b)

Inform the client immediately, explaining the risks and possible solutions

c)

Report the hazard only if asked by the client or regulatory body

d)

Attempt a quick fix without telling anyone to avoid panic

66.

A computer engineer is asked to implement a feature that may compromise user privacy but is lucrative for the company. The most ethical response is to:

a)

Proceed with the implementation to meet business goals and maintain job security

b)

Raise concerns about privacy implications and suggest safer alternatives

c)

Ignore privacy risks because the company's policies allow it

d)

Implement the feature but secretly build safeguards to protect users

67.

Which of the following best describes responsible data management?

a)

Sharing data liberally to encourage collaboration and innovation

b)

Collecting only data necessary for a defined purpose and protecting it rigorously

c)

Retaining all collected data indefinitely for potential future use

d)

Outsourcing data security to third parties without oversight

68.

An engineer notices that a colleague is repeatedly ignoring safety protocols but fears reporting due to potential backlash. The most professional response is to:

a)

Report the behavior anonymously through proper channels

b)

Confront the colleague aggressively to force compliance

c)

Ignore the issue as long as no accident has happened yet

d)

Discuss concerns with a supervisor or ethics committee confidentially

69.

An engineer is asked to certify a system that hasn't undergone full testing. The best ethical course is to:

a)

Certify it to keep the project on schedule, trusting the developers' work

b)

Refuse certification until all testing is satisfactorily completed

c)

Certify but include disclaimers limiting liability

d)

Delay certification without explanation to avoid confrontation

70.

A computer developer creates an app that uses patented encryption technology without permission. The patent holder discovers this. What is the likely legal consequence?

a)

The developer can continue using the technology if they add original features

b)

The developer may face a patent infringement lawsuit and have to pay damages

c)

The developer is protected under fair use because it's for software development

d)

The developer can avoid consequences by removing all references to the patent

71.

An online retailer uses images found via Google on their website without obtaining licenses. A photographer claims copyright infringement. Which of the following is true?

a)

The retailer is safe if they only used the images temporarily

b)

The retailer infringed copyright by using images without permission or license

c)

Using images found online is allowed under the 'first sale' doctrine

d)

The retailer can argue 'fair use' because it promotes the photographer's work

72.

A new logo for a startup closely resembles a famous brand's trademarked logo. What risk does the startup face?

a)

They can register the logo because it's in a different industry

b)

They risk a trademark infringement lawsuit and may have to rebrand

c)

They are protected since the logo uses different colors

d)

Trademark laws do not apply to logos in digital businesses

73.

A company distributes software on optical discs. After a year, many discs are found to be counterfeit copies sold in the market. What legal issues arise?

a)

The company has no liability since copies are made by third parties

b)

The company must cooperate with authorities to track down counterfeiters

c)

Selling counterfeit discs is legal if they are sold outside the original country

d)

Optical discs are not covered by copyright laws

74.

A customer purchases goods from an e-commerce site. They receive a defective item but the site's terms limit refunds. Under consumer protection laws, which is true?

a)

The customer must accept the terms and cannot claim a refund

b)

The customer can demand a refund or replacement despite limiting terms

c)

Refunds are only valid if the item was delivered late

d)

Terms limiting refunds override consumer protection laws

75.

A website collects personal data without clear consent and uses it for marketing. Under the Data Privacy Act, what must happen?

a)

The company must obtain consent and disclose data use purposes clearly

b)

Using data for marketing without consent is allowed if data is anonymized

c)

Data privacy laws do not apply to marketing activities

d)

Consent is implied if users browse the website

76.

An entrepreneur wants to patent a software algorithm. Which statement is correct?

a)

Software algorithms are always patentable as inventions

b)

Patent protection depends on whether the algorithm has a technical effect or practical application

c)

Algorithms cannot be patented under any circumstances

d)

Software patents only apply if the code is open source

77.

An e-commerce company uses a domain name that is very similar to a competitor's trademarked business name. What legal issue might arise?

a)

None, domain names and trademarks are unrelated legally

b)

The company may be liable for cybersquatting or trademark infringement

c)

This practice is encouraged to gain market advantage

d)

It is legal if the website content is different

78.

A person or organization who controls the collection, holding, processing or use of personal information, including a person or organization who instructs another person or organization to collect, hold, process, use, transfer or disclose personal information on his or her behalf.

a)

Data subject

b)

Personal information processor

c)

Personal information controller

d)

Commission