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Quiz on SEBI Regulations and Financial Concepts

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the main objectives of SEBI's mutual fund regulations?

a)

To increase the number of mutual funds

b)

To protect the interests of mutual fund investors

c)

To reduce the number of stock exchanges

d)

To eliminate all risks in investments

2.

Which of the following activities does SEBI aim to regulate to maintain trust in the securities markets?

a)

High-frequency trading

b)

Deliberate speculation in stock markets

c)

Automated trading systems

d)

Foreign exchange trading

3.

What does a Total Returns index consider that a Price Return Index does not?

a)

Only the price movement of constituents

b)

Dividends and interest payments

c)

Only capital gains

d)

Only losses in the market

4.

Why is it important for SEBI to ensure the frequency of publication of scheme-related documents?

a)

To increase the number of investors

b)

To ensure the relevant information is up-to-date

c)

To reduce the cost of investments

d)

To simplify the investment process

5.

What is the purpose of using Total Return Indices (TRI) as a benchmark for mutual fund schemes?

a)

To calculate the capital gains of the scheme

b)

To compare the performance of mutual fund schemes

c)

To determine the interest income of the scheme

d)

To assess the risk level of the scheme

6.

What is the main objective of the SEBI circular on mutual fund scheme categorization and rationalization?

a)

To increase the number of schemes per category

b)

To reduce the number of schemes to one per category

c)

To allow multiple schemes in each category

d)

To eliminate the need for scheme mergers

7.

What do the SEBI regulations and circulars detail regarding scheme mergers?

a)

The process of launching new schemes

b)

The procedure and disclosures of scheme mergers

c)

The criteria for selecting fund managers

d)

The guidelines for calculating returns

8.

What is the focus of the regulations governing new product categories in mutual funds?

a)

To limit the number of new products

b)

To approve new product categories over time

c)

To merge existing products into new categories

d)

To eliminate infrastructure debt funds

9.

What is the purpose of SEBI's guidelines on risk management systems for mutual funds?

a)

To increase the investment limits for mutual funds

b)

To ensure investors get a diversified portfolio and schemes remain true-to-label

c)

To reduce the number of investors in a scheme

d)

To eliminate the need for disclosures and reporting

10.

How did SEBI respond to the 2018 credit crisis in terms of mutual fund management?

a)

By increasing the interest rates for mutual funds

b)

By creating segregated portfolios to protect unitholders' interests

c)

By reducing the number of mutual fund schemes

d)

By eliminating the need for risk management systems

11.

What reforms did SEBI introduce during the 2008 global liquidity crisis?

a)

Allowing premature redemption in Fixed Maturity Plans

b)

Disallowing premature redemption in Fixed Maturity Plans

c)

Increasing the use of the phrase 'liquid plus' in mutual fund schemes

d)

Reducing the transparency in mutual fund investments

12.

What is one of the main reasons mutual funds are considered among the best investment vehicles?

a)

High risk factor

b)

Lack of transparency

c)

Transparency factor

d)

Limited investment options

13.

What do SEBI's governance norms for mutual funds include?

a)

Increasing the number of investors in a scheme

b)

Formation of audit and valuation committees

c)

Reducing the role of independent directors

d)

Eliminating systems audit of mutual funds

14.

What do the regulatory provisions regarding secondary market activities by mutual funds cover?

a)

Only equity markets

b)

Equity, debt, government securities, and derivatives

c)

Only government securities

d)

Only derivatives

15.

What is included in the Net Asset Value (NAV) disclosures according to regulatory provisions?

a)

Only the sale price

b)

Rounding-off of NAV, cut-off time, time stamping, and uniformity in calculation

c)

Only the purchase price

d)

Only time stamping

16.

What do the regulatory provisions regarding loads, fees, and expenses impose?

a)

No limits

b)

Limits to loads, fees, and expenses, and disclosure of commission payable

c)

Only limits to expenses

d)

Only limits to fees

17.

What do the guidelines and circulars for investment by schemes cover?

a)

Only equity investments

b)

Investment restrictions and limits by mutual fund schemes

c)

Only debt investments

d)

Only government securities

18.

What do the provisions regarding investor rights and obligations include?

a)

Only account statements

b)

Dispatch of account statements, redemption pay-outs, penalties, and instant access in liquid funds

c)

Only redemption pay-outs

d)

Only penalties

19.

What do SEBI regulations for Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) ensure?

a)

Investor protection and market development

b)

Increased taxation on corporate bonds

c)

Reduction in compliance obligations

d)

Elimination of investment restrictions

20.

Which of the following is covered under Execution Only Platforms (EOP) regulations?

a)

On-boarding and integration

b)

Taxation policies

c)

Marketing strategies

d)

Product development

21.

What is the role of SEBI in regulating stock exchanges?

a)

SEBI regulates listing, trading, and margining rules

b)

SEBI sets interest rates for stock exchanges

c)

SEBI manages the financial audits of stock exchanges

d)

SEBI determines the stock prices

22.

Why is the Indian mutual fund industry considered one of the most regulated and transparent investment options?

a)

Due to strict regulations on advertisements, valuation, and NAV calculation

b)

Because of high returns guaranteed by the government

c)

Due to minimal regulatory oversight

d)

Because it is exempt from SEBI regulations

23.

What is the primary objective of SEBI regulations regarding mutual fund investments?

a)

To maximize returns for investors

b)

To ensure mitigation of risks in the scheme

c)

To increase the number of mutual fund schemes

d)

To allow unlimited investment in debt securities

24.

According to SEBI regulations, what is the maximum percentage of a mutual fund's NAV that can be invested in debt instruments from a single issuer?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

25.

What is the maximum percentage of net assets that a mutual fund scheme can invest in listed securities of the sponsor's group companies?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

26.

What is the restriction on mutual funds investing in other schemes of the same or other mutual funds?

a)

No restriction

b)

Limited to 5% of the net asset value of the scheme

c)

Limited to 10% of the net asset value of the scheme

d)

Limited to 15% of the net asset value of the scheme

27.

What is the maximum percentage of a debt portfolio that mutual fund schemes may invest in unlisted non-convertible debentures?

a)

10 percent

b)

15 percent

c)

20 percent

d)

25 percent

28.

What is the limit for parking funds in short-term deposits with scheduled commercial banks, without trustee approval?

a)

10 percent of net assets

b)

15 percent of net assets

c)

20 percent of net assets

d)

25 percent of net assets

29.

What is the minimum percentage of corpus that open-ended debt funds must maintain in liquid assets?

a)

5 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

15 percent

d)

20 percent

30.

How are Non-Convertible Preference Shares (NCPS) treated in terms of investment restrictions?

a)

As equity instruments

b)

As debt instruments

c)

As hybrid instruments

d)

As cash equivalents

31.

What is the minimum percentage of ELSS funds that must be invested in equity and equity-linked securities according to the ELSS notification?

a)

70 percent

b)

80 percent

c)

90 percent

d)

100 percent

32.

According to the SEBI Advertisement Code for Mutual Funds, which of the following is NOT allowed in mutual fund advertisements?

a)

Use of celebrities

b)

Accurate and clear information

c)

Timely information

d)

Concise language

33.

What is the maximum percentage of a mutual fund's NAV that can be invested in the units of REIT and InvIT issued by a single issuer?

a)

15 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

5 percent

d)

20 percent

34.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the SEBI Advertisement Code for Mutual Funds?

a)

Advertisements can include exaggerated slogans.

b)

Advertisements can use complex legal terminology.

c)

Advertisements must be accurate and unambiguous.

d)

Advertisements can include celebrity endorsements.

35.

What must accompany advertisements for mutual funds according to the guidelines?

a)

A disclaimer about tax benefits

b)

A standard warning in legible fonts

c)

A comparison with other funds

d)

A detailed performance report

36.

How should the standard warning be presented in audio-visual advertisements?

a)

As a brief text at the end

b)

With a visual and voice-over for at least 5 seconds

c)

Only as a voice-over

d)

As a scrolling text

37.

What must advertisements disclose when advertising the payout of dividends?

a)

The annual growth rate

b)

The dividends declared or paid in rupees per unit

c)

The historical performance of the fund

d)

The tax implications

38.

What is required for advertising the performance of Overnight, Liquid, and Money Market funds?

a)

A comparison with other funds

b)

Simple annualisation of yields for at least 7, 15, and 30 days

c)

A detailed risk analysis

d)

A forecast of future performance

39.

What is the required disclosure period for the performance advertisement of mutual fund schemes in terms of CAGR?

a)

1 year, 3 years, 5 years, and since inception

b)

2 years, 4 years, 6 years, and since inception

c)

1 year, 2 years, 3 years, and 4 years

d)

5 years, 10 years, 15 years, and since inception

40.

What should be shown in addition to CAGR to provide ease of understanding to retail investors?

a)

Point-to-point returns on a standard investment of Rs. 10,000

b)

Annualized returns on a standard investment of Rs. 5,000

c)

Monthly returns on a standard investment of Rs. 20,000

d)

Quarterly returns on a standard investment of Rs. 15,000

41.

What should be disclosed if the same fund manager has not managed the scheme for the full period?

a)

The change in fund manager should be disclosed in the footnote

b)

The performance should be recalculated

c)

The scheme should be withdrawn

d)

The fund manager's biography should be included

42.

How should the performance of money market schemes be advertised for short investment horizons?

a)

By simple annualization of yields for at least 7 days, 15 days, and 30 days

b)

By monthly returns for at least 1 month, 2 months, and 3 months

c)

By quarterly returns for at least 3 months, 6 months, and 9 months

d)

By annual returns for at least 1 year, 2 years, and 3 years

43.

What benchmark is used for equity schemes according to the document?

a)

Sensex/Nifty

b)

1 year T-Bill

c)

10 years dated GoI security

d)

5 years dated GoI security

44.

What must be included in the advertisement of a mutual fund scheme according to the document?

a)

Only the performance data of the advertised scheme

b)

Performance data of all schemes managed by the fund manager

c)

Only the performance data of the top-performing scheme

d)

Performance data of schemes managed by different fund managers

45.

How should the performance of other schemes managed by a fund manager be provided?

a)

In terms of CAGR for 1, 3, and 5 years

b)

Only for a 1-year period

c)

In terms of annual returns

d)

Only for a 5-year period

46.

What is required if a mutual fund scheme has not been managed by the same fund manager for the full period of information being published?

a)

It should be highlighted in the main text

b)

It should be disclosed in a footnote

c)

It should be ignored

d)

It should be mentioned in the headline

47.

What is the condition for celebrity endorsements of mutual funds at the industry level?

a)

They can promote a specific mutual fund scheme

b)

They cannot promote a specific mutual fund scheme

c)

They can be used as a branding exercise for a mutual fund house

d)

They can endorse any financial product

48.

What is required before issuing an endorsement of Mutual Funds featuring a celebrity?

a)

Approval from SEBI

b)

Approval from the celebrity

c)

Approval from the Mutual Fund company

d)

Approval from the investors

49.

What is one of the guidelines issued by SEBI for market intermediaries regarding unauthenticated news?

a)

Encourage circulation of unverified information

b)

Restrict access to Blogs/Chat forums/Messenger sites

c)

Allow unrestricted access to all communication platforms

d)

Ignore internal code of conduct

50.

What should be done with logs of usage of Blogs/Chat forums/Messenger sites according to SEBI guidelines?

a)

They should be deleted immediately

b)

They should be treated as records

c)

They should be ignored

d)

They should be shared publicly

51.

What is the consequence for employees who fail to forward market-related news for approval according to SEBI guidelines?

a)

They will be rewarded

b)

They will be ignored

c)

They will be liable for action

d)

They will be promoted

52.

What right do mutual fund unit-holders have according to the document?

a)

Right to beneficial ownership

b)

Right to exclusive ownership

c)

Right to deny ownership

d)

Right to partial ownership

53.

What is required for an investor to change their distributor or opt for direct investing?

a)

A verbal request

b)

A written request

c)

A No Objection Certificate

d)

An online application

54.

What right do unit-holders have regarding key documents of the AMC?

a)

Right to destroy documents

b)

Right to inspect documents

c)

Right to modify documents

d)

Right to sell documents

55.

How many nominees can an investor appoint for their mutual fund units?

a)

1 nominee

b)

2 nominees

c)

3 nominees

d)

4 nominees

56.

What is the purpose of pledging mutual fund units?

a)

To increase unit value

b)

To offer security to a financier

c)

To avoid taxes

d)

To transfer ownership

57.

What must each AMC publish in their annual report according to SEBI's mandate?

a)

Financial gains

b)

Status of complaints redressed

c)

New investment opportunities

d)

Market predictions

58.

What option is provided to unitholders if there is a change in the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme?

a)

They can exit at the prevailing NAV without any exit load.

b)

They must continue with the scheme.

c)

They can exit with a penalty.

d)

They can only exit after 60 days.

59.

What percentage of unitholders is required to terminate the appointment of an AMC?

a)

50 percent

b)

60 percent

c)

75 percent

d)

90 percent

60.

Under what condition can trustees decide to wind up a scheme?

a)

When SEBI mandates it.

b)

When 50 percent of unitholders agree.

c)

When the majority of trustees decide to wind up a scheme.

d)

When the scheme is underperforming.

61.

What is the basis for payment if an investor claims unclaimed money after 3 years?

a)

Prevailing NAV after 3 years

b)

NAV at the end of 3 years

c)

Initial investment amount

d)

NAV at the time of investment

62.

What is the procedure for handling proceeds from illiquid securities if the amounts are substantial and recovered within 2 years?

a)

Transferred to the Investor Education Fund

b)

Used for new investments

c)

Paid to the old investors

d)

Donated to charity

63.

What is the role of Asset Management Companies (AMCs) in the due diligence process for distributors of mutual funds?

a)

To invest in new schemes

b)

To regulate the practices of distributors

c)

To provide financial advice to investors

d)

To manage investor portfolios

64.

What should an investor do if their grievance with an AMC or mutual fund scheme is not redressed at the investor service Centre?

a)

File a lawsuit immediately

b)

Write to SEBI with the complaint details

c)

Contact the media

d)

Ignore the issue

65.

What is the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES)?

a)

A financial advisory service

b)

A web-based centralized grievance redress system

c)

A mutual fund investment platform

d)

A stock trading application

66.

What is the purpose of the AMFI Code of Ethics (ACE)?

a)

To define and maintain high ethical and professional standards in the mutual fund industry.

b)

To regulate the stock exchanges.

c)

To manage the financial portfolios of investors.

d)

To provide legal advice to asset management companies.

67.

Which entities can investors lodge complaints against through SEBI's SCORES system?

a)

Listed companies, brokers, depository participants, mutual funds, portfolio managers, and other entities.

b)

Only listed companies and brokers.

c)

Only mutual funds and portfolio managers.

d)

Only depository participants and stock exchanges.

68.

What does SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulation, 1996 require from Asset Management Companies and Trustees?

a)

To abide by the Code of Conduct as specified in the Fifth Schedule to the Regulation.

b)

To submit annual financial reports to SEBI.

c)

To invest only in government securities.

d)

To provide monthly updates to investors.

69.

What is the first step AMFI takes in the event of a breach of the Code of Conduct by an intermediary?

a)

Issue a warning letter immediately

b)

Cancel the intermediary's registration

c)

Write to the intermediary and ask for an explanation within 3 weeks

d)

Send intimation to all AMCs

70.

What happens if an intermediary fails to provide a satisfactory explanation within 3 weeks?

a)

The intermediary is given another 3 weeks

b)

AMFI cancels the registration immediately

c)

AMFI issues a warning letter

d)

The intermediary is fined

71.

What is the consequence of a proven second violation by an intermediary?

a)

The intermediary receives a warning

b)

The registration is cancelled and intimation sent to all AMCs

c)

The intermediary is fined

d)

The intermediary is given another chance