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Fixed 1 Midterm

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The full-coverage crown and its preparation:

a)

may protect weakened tooth structure

b)

requires more tooth structure removal than an intercoronal restoration

c)

encircles all the remaining coronal tooth structure

d)

A and C

e)

A, B, and C

2.

Indications for placement of a full-coverage crown may include:

a)

teeth with large existing restorations

b)

cracked tooth

c)

broken cusps

d)

the patient desires a more esthetic tooth

e)

all of the above

3.

Which of the following is NOT one of the principles of tooth preparation?

a)

preservation of the periodontium

b)

preservation of the pulpal innervation

c)

preservation of tooth structure

d)

retention and resistance form

e)

marginal integrity

4.

4. ____________ prevents dislodgment of a restoration by forces directed in apical or oblique directions.

a)

resistance

b)

retention

c)

abrasion

d)

adhesion

5.

Crown preparations are tapered (converge occlusally) to:

a)

allow us to visualize the preparation walls from the occlusal direction

b)

eliminate axial wall undercuts

c)

create maximal retention for the preparation

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, and C

6.

The acceptable range for crown preparation convergence of the total axial walls in our course is _____ degrees.

a)

0-10

b)

0-16

c)

5-20

d)

6-16

e)

10-20

7.

While longer axial wall lengths are generally more retentive, the minimal axial wall length should be _____ mm.

a)

2-3

b)

3-4

c)

4-7

d)

5-8

e)

6

8.

__________________ is the imaginary line in which a restoration can be placed onto or removed from a preparation.

a)

resistance form

b)

path of insertion

c)

freedom of displacement

d)

principle of substitution

e)

structural durability

9.

The complete gold crown (full gold crown) preparation should include each of the following reduction guidelines EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

a)

1.0 mm on the non-functional cusp

b)

1.5 mm on the functional cusp

c)

0.7-1.0 mm buccal and lingual axial reduction

d)

0.7-1.0 mm chamfer thickness

e)

0.3-0.5 mm chamfer thickness

10.

The Exaflex putty impression prior to beginning tooth preparation for a full gold crown:

a)

is made with a vinyl siloxane impression material

b)

is used as a mold for the provisional crown restoration that is placed at the end of the preparation appointment.

c)

is used to form the wax pattern for the full gold crown

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, C

11.

The fixed prosthodontics custom tray is different from the complete denture custom tray in which way(s)?

a)

the material the tray is made from

b)

the number of layers of wax used as a spacer

c)

the extension toward the vestibule

d)

A and B

e)

B and C

12.

In the IUSD clinics a full-arch custom tray is required for preparation for:

a)

the most distal tooth in the arch

b)

inlays or onlays on posterior teeth

c)

any full-gold crown preparation

13.

The tray stops on the custom tray for fixed prosthodontic impressions are to:

a)

allow for proper thickness of the impression material

b)

prevent overseating of the tray

c)

avoid contact b/w the tray and an area of occlusal contact on the teeth

d)

A and C

e)

A, B, and C

14.

A full gold crown is contraindicated when:

a)

greater retention is necessary

b)

greater resistance is necessary

c)

esthetics is the prime concern

d)

occlusal plane modification is necessary

e)

all of the above are contraindications:

15.

Buccal and lingual depth cuts should be placed to a depth of 0.7-1.0 mm at the cervical margin

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Tilting the handpiece and bur as you are removing axial tooth structure may result in:

a)

over-tapering the tooth preparation

b)

creating undercuts in the tooth preparation

c)

over-reducing the tooth preparation

d)

A and C

e)

A, B, and C

17.

When equilibrating the Fixed dentoform, which of the following types of occlusion is utilized to establish posterior teeth protecting anterior teeth in centric closure and anterior teeth discluding posterior teeth in any eccentric movement?

a)

bilateral balanced occlusion

b)

unilateral balanced occlusion

c)

mutually protected occlusion

d)

group function occlusion

e)

both A and D are used for equilibration of the Fixed dentoform

18.

Statement 1: The functional cusps are the cusps of posterior teeth that endure the greatest occlusal forces and seat into an opposing fossa or occlusal embrasure. Statement 2: In Angie's Class I occlusal relationship, the buccal cusps of tooth #19 are the functional cusps.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

19.

Centric occlusion is the occlusion of opposing teeth when the mandible is in centric relation. To prevent harmful tipping forces, the forces of occlusion are best directed perpendicular to the long axis of each tooth

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

20.

When utilizing the proper occlusal concept, which of the following teeth should ideally contact when the mandible moves laterally (side to side)?

a)

4

b)

11

c)

22

d)

B and C only

e)

A, B, and C should contact during an eccentric movement

21.

Which of the following circumstances would a patient's treatment plan include a fixed restoration as an option?

a)

fractured tooth with large previous restoration

b)

anterior tooth which is discolored due to trauma

c)

replacement of a missing tooth #12 using #11 and #13 as abutments for a fixed partial denture

d)

A and B only

e)

A, B, and C

22.

There are several available materials to choose from when treatment planning a fixed restoration. Which of the following materials provides the most esthetic restoration but requires the most overall reduction of tooth structure when compared to the other materials?

a)

cast metal

b)

metal ceramic

c)

all ceramic

d)

porcelain fused to a metal substructure

e)

B and D only

23.

23. Statement 1: A partial prosthesis helps restore missing teeth with pontic restorations which are also known as abutments. Statement 2: Restoring teeth with fixed restorations should allow for optimum function while minimizing trauma to supporting structures.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

24.

For a patient treatment planning appointments for multiple fixed restorations, it is advised to create the final treatment plan and sequence followed by fabricating diagnostic casts. Making a correct diagnosis is a prerequisite for formulating an appropriate treatment plan and requires only dental information be obtained prior to treatment.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

25.

25. Statement 1: Diagnostic casts will display a dynamic relationship of the teeth to be examined without interferences present only if the casts are mounted on an adjustable articulator. Statement 2: Diagnostic casts provide essential information necessary for treatment planning and procedures related to other dental disciplines such as periodontics, dental implants, and oral surgery.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

26.

Alginate material is utilized for impressions to fabricate diagnostic casts. Which of the following accurately describes alginate?

a)

irreversible hydrocolloid

b)

salts react with sodium sulfate to produce a one way chemical reaction

c)

consists of calcium and potassium salts of alginic acid

d)

A and B only

27.

Which of the following is considered an advantage of alginate impression material?

a)

low cost

b)

faster set than other impression materials

c)

provides surface details necessary for definitive casts and dies

d)

A and B only

e)

A, B, and C

28.

Select the proper sequence of steps for an alginate impression technique.

1. Apply alginate tray adhesive

2. Place the stock tray into the patient's mouth to select proper size and verify fit 

3. Add mixed alginate to tray loading from the posterior aspect of the tray

4. Add the correct amount of powder to the mixing bowl

5. Orient and seat impression tray with alginate into the patient's mouth

6. Add the correct amount of water to the mixing bowl

7. Manually mix the water and powder mixture

a)

1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 3, 5

b)

1, 2, 6, 4, 7, 3, 5

c)

2, 1, 4, 6, 7, 3, 5

d)

2, 1, 6, 4, 7, 3, 5

e)

All of the above sequences are correct

29.

During the alginate impression technique, the clinician should only hold and apply pressure to the tray handle as the impression is seated and throughout the setting process. To remove the set impression material and stock tray from the patient's mouth, carefully remove it with a quick snap in the direction of the long axis of the teeth.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

30.

When pouring an alginate impression with dental stone, which of the following is the maximum time suggested to prevent an alginate impression material from distortion following removal from a patient's mouth?

a)

2 min

b)

12 min

c)

45 min

d)

60 min

e)

65 min

31.

31. Statement 1: Proper technique for pouring alginate impression with dental stone is to manually mix the stone mixture followed by vacuum mixing. Statement 2: After mixing is complete, a small amount of dental stone is placed into the impression while rotating the impression allowing the stone to flow throughout the surfaces.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false:

32.

Provisional restorations are an essential step when fabricating many types of fixed indirect restorations. Which of the following requirements is associated with the provisional sealing and insulating the prepared tooth surface from the oral environment to prevent tooth sensitivity and further irritation to the pulp?

a)

biologic

b)

mechanicl

c)

function

d)

esthetics

33.

Statement 1: Custom made provisional restoration can be fabricated utilizing a matrix in the form of impression material, moldable putty or a vacuum-formed template. Statement 2: If the pre-operative teeth do not have proper contours, a matrix can be fabricated from a diagnostic wax-up

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

34.

Which of the following provisional restorations must be relined and cannot be utilized for multiple connecting provisional restorations?

a)

custom made restoration

b)

prefabricated restoration

c)

polycarbonate restoration

d)

B and C only

e)

A, B, and C

35.

Which of the following provisional materials is a micro-filled composite?

a)

Alike

b)

Snap

c)

Protemp

d)

Triad

e)

none of the above

36.

Provisional restorations are fabricated using a variety of materials and methods. Which of the following methods beginning steps includes conservative preparations performed on the articulated mounted stone casts?

a)

direct technique

b)

indirect technique

c)

combination technique

d)

in-combination technique

e)

none of the above

37.

When fabricating provisional restorations, the direct technique has the most risk for tissue and pulpal trauma while the indirect technique as little to no risk of tissue and pulpal trauma. For the marginal adaptation when forming the initial provisional shell, good marginal fit with little to no modification is another advantage when using the indirect technique.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

38.

Which of the following provisional restoration features helps prevent leakage of saliva which may cause tooth sensitivity?

a)

properly contoured emergence profile

b)

tripod occlusal contacts

c)

well adapted margins

d)

tight proximal contacts

e)

A and B only

39.

Statement 1: An emergence profile is a thin overextension of material present past a finish line of the tooth preparation. Statement 2: A large over-extension of material extending out from a finish line of a tooth preparation is referred to as an enamel ledge.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

40.

When fabricating direct provisional restorations utilizing methacrylate resins, the matrix and the temporary material should be removed from the tooth before complete polymerization occurs to avoid locking of the provisional into the embrasure spaces and to avoid pulpal damage. When assessing the final occlusion of a fixed provisional restoration, the result should be the patient's overall dentition has the same occlusal contacts with and without the restoration in place.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

41.

Statement 1: A medium-bodied PVS impression material exhibits higher viscosity when compared to a light-bodied impression material. Statement 2: The light-bodied impression material is used to load the impression tray.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

42.

Prior to a PVS impression making, tray adhesive is applied to the appropriately selected tray. Which of the following describes PVS tray adhesive and its application?

a)

forms a chemical bond to the tray and the impression material

b)

alginate tray adhesive can be substituted if the clinician does not have PVS adhesive

c)

an impression should be taken immediately following the application of the adhesive

d)

all of the above statements correctly describe PVS tray adhesive and its application

e)

none of the above statements correctly describe PVS tray adhesive and its application

43.

In which of the following circumstances is it highly advised to place periphery wax within the gingival embrasure spaces prior to performing a PVS impression?

a)

a patient with mobile teeth due to periodontal disease

b)

a patient with multiple fixed partial dentures

c)

a patient with recession around posterior molars with little to no interproximal dental papilla

d)

A and C only

e)

A, B, and C

44.

Statement 1: A technique for displacement of gingival tissues involves the placement of a retraction cord within the gingival sulcus which displaces the tissue laterally. Statement 2: The use of hemostatic agents can help with fluid control to maintain a dry field of operation.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

45.

When choosing a material for the fabrication of dies and working casts, which of the following would NOT be an ideal requirement of the given material?

a)

dimensional accuracy

b)

compatible with impression materials

c)

abrades easily

d)

easily sectioned

e)

none of the above

46.

Statement 1: For dental gypsum, calcination is a process which silica of crystallization is removed when heating the dihydrate to produce the hemihydrate. Statement 2: Type IV dental gypsum is a higher strength stone than Type III dental gypsum.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

47.

Which of the following die fabrication methods requires creating individual dies and a separate working cast displaying the tooth preparation?

a)

removable die technique

b)

multiple pour technique

c)

alternate die technique

d)

A and C

e)

A, B, and C

48.

When fabricating stone dies, the first stone pour is only in the area of the tooth preparation and should be used as the #2 die. The working cast helps with the development of axial contours, proximal contacts, and the final margination of the wax pattern.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

49.

Which of the following is accurate information regarding gypsum stone dies?

a)

the dies must be trimmed using dry methods

b)

the handle of the trimmed die should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth

c)

the trimmed die handle should be visible from the occlusal surface

d)

A and B

e)

A, B, and C

50.

Statement 1: An arcon articulator has the condylar element on the lower member of the articulator, simulating the mouth. Statement 2: Arbitrary facebows use average values of the true hinge axis determined by the manufacturer.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

51.

Which of the following articulators contains an angle between the condylar inclination and the occlusal plane of maxillary teeth which remains constant in both the open or closed position and can produce the patient's eccentric movements?

a)

acron

b)

non-acron

c)

hinge

d)

A and B only

e)

all of the above

52.

Which of the following statements regarding facebows is true?

a)

A facebow is used to orient the mandibular cast to the hinge axis of the maxilla

b)

Records anteroposterior and mediolateral spatial position of the maxillary occlusal surfaces

c)

An arbitrary facebow is within 10 mm of the true hinge axis.

d)

B and C only

e)

all of the above are true

53.

53. Statement 1: When using a facebow, it is advised to secure the facebow in the desire position followed by positioning the bite for within the patient's mouth Statement 2: When mounting the maxillary cast, it is important the upper member of the articulator rests directly on the horizontal cross bar of the facebow

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

54.

Which of the following statements is true regarding an interocclusal relation record for an indirect restoration?

a)

the record allows for stability between the maxillary and mandibular arches

b)

the record must cover all occlusal surfaces teeth to aid in holding the casts during mounting

c)

the record should be trimmed to avoid contact with soft tissue

d)

A and C only

e)

B and C only

55.

Which of the following steps are performed on the working cast when creating a wax pattern for an indirect posterior restoration?

a)

final margination of wax pattern

b)

developing the proper emergence profile

c)

fabrication of the coping

d)

B and C only

e)

none of the above

56.

Which of the following is true regarding proximal contacts?

a)

each proximal contact area contains two embrasure spaces

b)

an absent proximal contact may lead to tooth drifting and food impaction

c)

proximal contacts are generally located in the gingival 1/3 of the crowns with the expectation of maxillary molars

d)

A and B only

e)

A, B, and C

57.

57. Statement 1: Over-contoured restorations with large convexities promote accumulation of food debris and plaque. Statement 2: An emergence profile extends from the gingival margin to the height of contour ideally producing a concave profile in the gingival third of the axial surface.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

58.

Statement 1: The anteroposterior curvature of the occlusal plane is called the curve of Wilson. Statement 2: The curve of Wilson allows for mandibular cusps becoming longer further distally and the maxillary cusps becoming shorter.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

59.

Which of the following are *true* statements regarding investing wax patterns?

a)

the sprue should be larger in diameter than the thickest part of the wax-up

b)

the wax pattern needs to be centered in the middle of the ring

c)

heating the investment must be gradual to allow steam to escape

d)

the purpose of investing is to create a mold duplicating the wax pattern that compensates for the shrinkage of the wax and cast alloy

e)

all of the above are true statements

60.

What is the minimum distance required from the highest point of the wax pattern to the end of the investment ring?

a)

2 mm

b)

3 mm

c)

6 mm

d)

10 mm

e)

15 mm

61.

When evaluating the cast, which of the following best explains random porosities present throughout the casting?

a)

debris present within the wax pattern

b)

rapidly heating the investment

c)

air trapped during investing

d)

dropping the casting ring

e)

none of the above

62.

For fitting an indirect restoration following the casting procedure, the restoration should be placed initially on the #1 die to evaluate the marginal adaptation. A reason for polishing an indirect casting restoration is to create a smooth surface which helps decrease plaque accumulation.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

63.

A die spacer is often used as a method for internal surface adjustment when fabricating indirect restorations. Which of the following is a *FALSE* statement regarding die spacer?

a)

Die spacer is less dangerous when compared to electrochemical milling.

b)

Die spacer creates a smooth internal surface but results in poor retention of the restoration

c)

Die spacer is only indicated for preparations with minimal axial wall height

d)

A and C only

e)

all of the above are false statements

64.

When evaluating proximal contacts, the ideal contact intensity should be when one piece of shimstock slides through the contact while two pieces of shimstock holds within the contact. When adjusting the occlusal contacts of a posterior indirect restoration, all centric contacts should be eliminated.

a)

both statements are true

b)

the first statement is true; the second statement is false

c)

the first statement is false; the second statement is true

d)

both statements are false

65.

A patient presents for a full gold crown placement appointment. The patient medical history was reviewed and there were no changes. The patient states she has been experiencing a dull toothache when chewing following the crown preparation appointment 3 weeks ago. Select the next appropriate action for the above patient case:

a)

Administer anesthetic, remove the provisional restoration and cement the definitive restoration.

b)

Evaluate the provisional restoration for occlusal interferences or open margins and make necessary adjustments, and monitor over time to see if symptoms persists.

c)

Refer the patient immediately for endodontic therapy.

d)

Answers B and C only

e)

Answers A, B and C are all appropriate actions

66.

Viscoelastic behavior is characterized by:

a)

a stress-strain relationship that remains constant as the rate of loading changes.

b)

a stress-strain relationship that changes as the rate of loading changes.

c)

behavior that mimics that of elastic materials.

d)

behavior that mimics that of viscous materials

67.

When using an addition silicone impression material, which of the following scenarios does NOT require the use of a custom tray?

a)

Impressing a three-unit bridge from the maxillary right canine to maxillary right central incisor

b)

Impressing a mandibular Kennedy Class I removable partial denture

c)

Impressing a full coverage crown for a maxillary right first molar in a fully dentate individual.

d)

Impressing a full coverage crown on a mandibular left third molar

68.

Post-impression stability of polysulfide is decreased because of:

a)

imbibition.

b)

syneresis.

c)

spraying with disinfectants.

d)

evaporation of volatile by-products

69.

Control of dimensional changes due to polymerization contraction when using polysulfide impression materials is accomplished by:

a)

using a custom tray.

b)

using a putty viscosity in a stock tray.

c)

using a heavy body viscosity in a stock tray.

d)

delaying pouring for 24 hours

70.

An appropriate method for changing the setting time of alginate is to:

a)

change the temperature of the water.

b)

decrease the water/powder ratio.

c)

increase the water/powder ratio.

d)

replace some of the powder with gypsum

71.

Undercuts should be blocked out when using polyether impression materials BECAUSE polyether is the most flexible of the non-aqueous elastomers.

a)

Both the statement and the reason are correct and related.

b)

Both the statement and the reason are correct and NOT related.

c)

The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.

d)

The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct.

e)

NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct

72.

The form of silica that provides the most expansion when heated to 700°C is:

a)

cristobalite.

b)

fused quartz.

c)

quartz.

d)

tridymite

73.

If decreased expansion is desired when investing with a phosphate-bonded investment material, the amount of special liquid that is included in the mix should be:

a)

decreased.

b)

increased

74.

One of the primary functions of an investment is to compensate for the net contraction of the metal as it solidifies and cools to room temperature

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Compared to gypsum-bonded investments, phosphate-bonded investments are much stronger and can withstand much higher temperatures

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Gypsum-bonded investments should be heated to temperatures over 750°C to break down the binder

a)

True

b)

False