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IMAG 1118 Chapter 4 Image Formation and Radiographic Quality

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the result of increased attenuation in dense structures?

a)

Higher loss of energy; more absorption

b)

Less energy lost; more transmission

c)

No change in energy; constant absorption

d)

Increased energy gain; less absorption

2.

What is differential absorption?

a)
Differential absorption refers to the total absorption of all materials.
b)
Differential absorption is the same for all types of electromagnetic radiation.
c)

Differential absorption is the process of reflecting electromagnetic radiation

d)
Differential absorption is the varying absorption of electromagnetic radiation by different materials.
3.

What happens to energy transmission in less dense structures?

a)

More energy is absorbed

b)

Less energy is transmitted

c)

More energy is transmitted

d)

Energy remains constant

4.

Which of the following describes attenutation?

a)

Attenuation is the reduction in beam intensity as it interacts with anatomic tissue.

b)

Attenuation is the complete loss of beam intensity during transmission.

c)

Attenuation refers to the amplification of beam intensity over a specified distance.

d)

Attenuation is the increase in beam intensity as it interacts with anatomic tissue.

5.

Which of the following is a type of attenuation?

a)

Reflection

b)

Refraction

c)

Absorption

d)

Diffusion

6.

How does decreased attenuation affect radiolucent structures?

a)

Increases energy absorption

b)

Decreases energy transmission

c)

Increases energy transmission

d)

No effect on energy transmission

7.

What happens to photons as the primary x-ray beam interacts with an anatomic part?

a)

They are absorbed, scattered, and transmitted.

b)

They are only absorbed.

c)

They are only scattered.

d)

They are only transmitted.

8.

What creates an image that structurally represents an anatomic part in x-ray imaging?

a)

Differential absorption.

b)

Uniform absorption of photons.

c)

Complete transmission of photons.

d)

Reflection of photons.

9.

What happens to the energy of the incoming photon in the photoelectric effect?

a)

It ejects an outer-shell electron

b)

It is completely absorbed by the atom

c)

It passes through without interaction

d)

It excites the atom

10.

What is created when an X-ray ionizes an atom in the photoelectric effect?

a)

High-energy gamma ray

b)

Low-energy secondary X-ray photon

c)

Neutron

d)

Proton

11.

Which factors affect the probability of the photoelectric effect occurring?

a)

Energy of the incoming X-ray photon

b)

Energy of the incoming X-ray photon and tissue atomic number

c)

Tissue atomic number

d)

Quality of the X-ray beam

12.

What happens to an incoming photon during Compton Scattering?

a)

It gains energy and changes direction.

b)

It loses some of its energy and changes direction.

c)

It remains unchanged.

d)

It is absorbed completely.

13.

Compton Scattering can occur within which of the following energy ranges?

a)

Only at high diagnostic energies.

b)

Only at low diagnostic energies.

c)

Within all diagnostic energies.

d)

Only at medium diagnostic energies.

14.

What factor is Compton Scattering dependent on?

a)

Tissue atomic number

b)

The energy of the incoming photon.

c)

The speed of the incoming photon.

d)

The mass of the incoming photon.

15.

How does higher kVp affect the number of overall interactions in Compton Scattering?

a)

It increases the number of overall interactions.

b)

It has no effect on the number of interactions.

c)

It reduces the number of overall interactions.

d)

It doubles the number of interactions.

16.

At what energy range do most photoelectric interactions occur?

a)

10 – 80 keV

b)

80 – 300 keV

c)

5 – 50 keV

d)

100 – 200 keV

17.

Which type of electron is involved in photoelectric interactions?

a)

Outer shell electron

b)

Inner shell electron

c)

Free electron

d)

Valence electron

18.

What happens to the inner shell electron during a photoelectric interaction?

a)

It is absorbed

b)

It is ejected

c)

It remains in place

d)

It changes energy levels

19.

What is the effect of atomic number on photoelectric interactions?

a)

Higher atomic numbers absorb less

b)

Higher atomic numbers absorb more

c)

Atomic number has no effect

d)

Lower atomic numbers absorb more

20.

At what energy range is there more Compton scattering?

a)

10 – 80 keV

b)

80 – 300 keV

c)

5 – 50 keV

d)

100 – 200 keV

21.

Which type of electron is involved in Compton scattering?

a)

Outer shell electron

b)

Inner shell electron

c)

Free electron

d)

Valence electron

22.

What happens to the x-ray during Compton scattering?

a)

It is absorbed completely

b)

It continues with decreased energy in a different direction

c)

It remains unchanged

d)

It increases in energy

23.

How does atomic number affect Compton scattering?

a)

Higher atomic numbers absorb more

b)

Atomic number independent

c)

Lower atomic numbers absorb more

d)

Atomic number dependent

24.

What happens to an incident photon during the photoelectric effect?

a)

It is absorbed by an inner orbital electron.

b)

It is scattered with less energy.

c)

It passes through the atom without interaction.

d)

It is absorbed by an outer orbital electron.

25.

In the Compton effect, what happens to the ejected electron?

a)

It leaves the atom with energy equal to the excess imparted by the photon.

b)

It remains in the same orbital.

c)

It gains energy and moves to a higher orbital.

d)

It is absorbed back into the nucleus.

26.

What is a key difference between the photoelectric effect and the Compton effect?

a)

The photoelectric effect involves outer orbital electrons, while the Compton effect involves inner orbital electrons.

b)

The photoelectric effect results in photon scattering, while the Compton effect results in photon absorption.

c)

The photoelectric effect involves inner orbital electrons, while the Compton effect involves outer orbital electrons.

d)

The photoelectric effect results in no change in photon energy, while the Compton effect results in increased photon energy.

27.

Which of the following interactions with matter is responsible for patient dose?

a)

Characteristic

b)

Photoelectric

c)

Compton

d)

Bremsstrahlung

28.

What happens to the energy of the x-ray during coherent (classical) scattering?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

It remains the same

d)

It is absorbed completely

29.

Which of the following interactions with matter is responsible for technologist dose?

a)

Bremsstrahlung

b)

Compton

c)

Characteristic

d)

Photoelectric

30.

At what energy levels does coherent (classical) scattering typically occur?

a)

High energy levels

b)

Medium energy levels

c)

Low energy levels

d)

All energy levels

31.

What causes the x-ray to change direction in coherent (classical) scattering?

a)

Loss of energy

b)

Higher energy state

c)

Absorption by the atom

d)

Emission of a new photon

32.

What happens to X-rays when tissue thickness increases by 4 to 5 cm?

a)

They are completely absorbed.

b)

They are reduced by approximately 50%.

c)

They pass through without any change.

d)

They increase in intensity.

33.

How does the type of tissue affect beam attenuation?

a)

Tissues with a lower atomic number increase attenuation.

b)

Tissues with a higher atomic number increase attenuation.

c)

All tissues have the same effect on attenuation.

d)

Tissues with a higher atomic number decrease attenuation.

34.

What effect does increasing tissue density have on beam attenuation?

a)

It decreases beam attenuation.

b)

It has no effect on beam attenuation.

c)

It increases beam attenuation.

d)

It reverses beam attenuation.

35.

How does higher kVp affect X-ray beam quality and attenuation?

a)

It decreases the energy and increases attenuation.

b)

It increases the energy and decreases attenuation.

c)

It decreases the energy and decreases attenuation.

d)

It increases the energy and increases attenuation.

36.

What is exit/remnant radiation?

a)

Radiation that leaves the patient

b)

Radiation that enters the patient

c)

Radiation that is absorbed by the patient

d)

Radiation that is reflected by the patient

37.

What is exit/remnant radiation composed of?

a)

Only transmitted radiation

b)

Only scattered radiation

c)

Transmitted and scattered radiation

d)

Absorbed and reflected radiation

38.

What effect does scatter radiation have on an image?

a)

Enhances image clarity

b)

Creates unwanted fog on the image

c)

Increases image brightness

d)

Reduces image contrast

39.

What is the characteristic of radiopaque tissues in relation to x-rays?

a)

They absorb incoming x-rays and create light areas on the image.

b)

They transmit incoming x-rays and create dark areas on the image.

c)

They neither absorb nor transmit x-rays.

d)

They only create shades of gray on the image.

40.

How do radiolucent tissues appear on an x-ray image?

a)

As light areas due to increased brightness.

b)

As dark areas due to decreased brightness.

c)

As completely transparent areas.

d)

As uniformly gray areas.

41.

What is the result of anatomic tissues that vary in absorption and transmission between radiopaque and radiolucent?

a)

They create a uniform white image.

b)

They create a range of dark and light areas/shades of gray.

c)

They create a completely black image.

d)

They create a completely transparent image.

42.

What happens when remnant radiation interacts with the digital IR?

a)

It is absorbed by the IR

b)

It is converted to electric signal values

c)

It is reflected back

d)

It is stored as heat

43.

What determines the strength/intensity of the signal value in an electronic data set?

a)

The color of the IR

b)

The speed of the radiation

c)

The x-ray beam attenuation with varying anatomic tissues

d)

The temperature of the environment

44.

How is the electronic data set used to produce a visible image?

a)

It is printed on paper

b)

It is manually drawn by technicians

c)

It is computer processed and displayed on a monitor

d)

It is projected onto a wall

45.

What does a quality radiograph accurately represent?

a)

The color of the anatomic area

b)

The anatomic area of interest

c)

The size of the anatomic area

d)

The density of the anatomic area

46.

What are the two main factors that determine the quality of a radiograph?

a)

Contrast and brightness

b)

Visibility of anatomic structures and accuracy of structural lines

c)

Size and shape of the anatomic area

d)

Density and texture of the anatomic area

47.

Which of the following factors is related to the visibility of anatomic structures in radiographic quality?

a)

Spatial resolution

b)

Brightness

c)

Distortion

d)

Sharpness

48.

What aspect of radiographic quality is associated with the accuracy of structural lines?

a)

Brightness

b)

Contrast

c)

Spatial resolution

d)

Color

49.

What is the definition of brightness?

a)

The amount of luminance (light emission) of a display monitor

b)

The color contrast of a display monitor

c)

The resolution of a display monitor

d)

The refresh rate of a display monitor

50.

Why must a digital image have sufficient brightness?

a)

To enhance the color saturation

b)

To visualize the anatomic structures of interest

c)

To increase the resolution

d)

To reduce the file size

51.

On what factor is the brightness of a digital image dependent?

a)

The amount of radiation received by the IR

b)

The color depth of the image

c)

The file format of the image

d)

The pixel density of the image

52.

What does a wide dynamic range in digital imaging allow?

a)

Detection of a narrow range of exposure intensities

b)

Detection of a wide range of exposure intensities

c)

Detection of only low exposure intensities

d)

Detection of only high exposure intensities

53.

What happens to an extremely overexposed image?

a)

It can be processed properly

b)

It cannot be processed properly

c)

It becomes underexposed

d)

It enhances image quality

54.

What is the combined result of multiple factors such as anatomic structure, radiation quality, and image receptor characteristic?

a)

Displayed Image Contrast

b)

Image Resolution

c)

Color Saturation

d)

Pixel Density

55.

Why must an image exhibit differences in brightness levels?

a)

To enhance color

b)

To differentiate among anatomic tissues

c)

To increase resolution

d)

To reduce noise

56.

What causes the range of brightness levels displayed in an image?

a)

The camera's lens quality

b)

The tissues' differential absorption of the x-ray photons

c)

The monitor's brightness setting

d)

The image's color balance

57.

What characterizes low subject contrast in anatomic tissues?

a)

Tissues that absorb the beam completely

b)

Tissues that reflect the beam

c)

Tissues that attenuate the beam similarly

d)

Tissues that do not interact with the beam

58.

What is the characteristic of high subject contrast in anatomic tissues?

a)

Tissues that absorb the beam completely

b)

Tissues that attenuate the beam very differently

c)

Tissues that reflect the beam

d)

Tissues that do not interact with the beam

59.

What is a characteristic of high contrast images?

a)

Few shades of gray

b)

Lots of shades of gray

c)

Little differences among shades

d)

High kVp

60.

Which of the following is true about low contrast images?

a)

Short scale

b)

Increase contrast

c)

Long scale

d)

More black and white

61.

In high contrast images, what is the relationship between the shades of gray?

a)

Big differences between them

b)

Little differences among them

c)

Long scale

d)

Decrease contrast

62.

What is contrast resolution?

a)

The ability to distinguish between different colors

b)

The ability to distinguish between objects having similar subject contrast

c)

The ability to enhance image brightness

d)

The ability to store images in different formats

63.

What does gray scale refer to in digital imaging?

a)

The number of colors in an image

b)

The number of different shades of gray that can be stored and displayed

c)

The brightness level of an image

d)

The contrast level of an image

64.

Displayed image contrast is a product of which two factors?

a)

Image brightness and color depth

b)

Subject contrast and contrast resolution

c)

Image size and resolution

d)

Color contrast and image sharpness

65.

What is the smallest object that can be detected in an image referred to as?

a)

Spatial resolution

b)

Image contrast

c)

Color depth

d)

Pixel density

66.

Why must anatomic structures be displayed accurately and with the greatest amount of sharpness?

a)

To enhance color accuracy

b)

To ensure proper spatial resolution

c)

To reduce file size

d)

To improve image brightness

67.

What determines the accuracy of the anatomic structural lines displayed in an image?

a)

Image brightness

b)

Spatial resolution

c)

Color contrast

d)

Pixel count

68.

What is one method to minimize motion unsharpness in images?

a)

Increase exposure time

b)

Use the shortest exposure time possible

c)

Decrease temporal resolution

d)

Increase the distance from the subject

69.

What is the responsibility of radiographers regarding motion in images?

a)

To increase motion as much as possible

b)

To decrease motion as much as possible

c)

To maintain constant motion

d)

To ignore motion effects

70.

How does increasing time affect temporal resolution?

a)

Decreases motion and decreases temporal resolution

b)

Increases motion and increases temporal resolution

c)

Decreases motion and increases temporal resolution

d)

Increases motion and decreases temporal resolution

71.

What is distortion?

a)

Accurate representation of an object's size and shape

b)

Misrepresentation of either the size or shape of an object

c)

Enhancement of image quality

d)

Reduction of image noise

72.

Which of the following is a type of size distortion?

a)

Elongation

b)

Foreshortening

c)

Minification

d)

Distortion

73.

Which of the following is a type of shape distortion?

a)

Magnification

b)

Elongation

c)

Minification

d)

Clarity

74.

What is the effect of increasing the Source-to-Image Distance (SID) on magnification?

a)

Increase magnification

b)

Decrease magnification

c)

No effect on magnification

d)

Magnification becomes zero

75.

How does decreasing the Object-to-Image Distance (OID) affect magnification?

a)

Increases magnification

b)

Decreases magnification

c)

No effect on magnification

d)

Magnification becomes zero

76.

Which of the following statements is true about radiographic images?

a)

They never have magnification

b)

They always have some magnification

c)

They have no distortion

d)

They are always the same size as the object

77.

What is shape distortion in imaging?

a)

Accurate representation of an object's image

b)

Misrepresentation of an object's image shape

c)

Enhancement of an object's image

d)

Reduction of an object's image size

78.

Which of the following is a controlling factor for shape distortion?

a)

Alignment of the light source

b)

Misalignment of the tube, the part, or the IR

c)

Color of the object

d)

Size of the object

79.

What does elongation in shape distortion refer to?

a)

Objects that appear shorter than the true object

b)

Objects that appear longer than the true object

c)

Objects that appear wider than the true object

d)

Objects that appear smaller than the true object

80.

What does foreshortening in shape distortion refer to?

a)

Objects that appear longer than the true object

b)

Objects that appear wider than the true object

c)

Objects that appear shorter than the true object

d)

Objects that appear larger than the true object

81.

What is the result of Compton interactions in medical imaging?

a)

Enhanced image clarity

b)

Unwanted exposure resulting in fog

c)

Increased image contrast

d)

Improved brightness

82.

How does scatter affect the image contrast in medical imaging?

a)

Increases image contrast

b)

Decreases image contrast

c)

Has no effect on image contrast

d)

Enhances image details

83.

What is one of the consequences of scatter in medical imaging?

a)

Provides useful diagnostic information

b)

Masks the desired brightness on the image

c)

Enhances image sharpness

d)

Reduces image noise

84.

How is quantum noise displayed on an image?

a)

Brightness fluctuations and graininess

b)

Sharpness and clarity

c)

Color variations

d)

Increased contrast

85.

What causes quantum noise in an image?

a)

Too many x-ray photons reaching the image receptor

b)

Too few x-ray photons reaching the image receptor

c)

High resolution of the image

d)

Excessive image processing

86.

What is an image artifact?

a)

A desired brightness level on an image

b)

Any unwanted brightness level on an image not part of the patient's anatomy

c)

A type of medical imaging technique

d)

A tool used to enhance image quality

87.

How can image artifacts affect medical images?

a)

They enhance the overall quality of the image

b)

They provide additional anatomical information

c)

They may obscure anatomic information

d)

They are used to highlight important areas

88.

What is the responsibility of radiographers regarding image artifacts?

a)

To add artifacts to images for better analysis

b)

To remove all items possible that may cause artifacts

c)

To ignore artifacts as they are not important

d)

To use artifacts to diagnose conditions

89.

Which of the following substances is NOT one of the five that need to be in anatomical physical contact for visualizing anatomy on radiographic images?

a)

Air/gas

b)

Fat

c)

Water

d)

Bone

90.

What is the acceptable variability for kilovoltage accuracy in X-ray quality control?

a)

+/- 2%

b)

+/- 5%

c)

+/- 10%

d)

+/- 15%

91.

How is kilovoltage accuracy measured in X-ray quality control?

a)

With a digital timer

b)

With a digital kVp meter

c)

With a manual gauge

d)

With a pressure sensor

92.

What is the variability for exposure timer accuracy when the exposure time is less than 10 ms?

a)

+/- 2%

b)

+/- 5%

c)

+/- 8%

d)

+/- 10%

93.

What is the variability for exposure timer accuracy when the exposure time is more than 10 ms?

a)

+/- 2%

b)

+/- 5%

c)

+/- 8%

d)

+/- 10%