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NR341 Week 4 & 5

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient with severe burns has crystalloid fluid replacement ordered using the Parkland formula. The initial volume of fluid to be given in the first 24 hours is 30,000 mL. The initial rate of administration is 1875 mL/hr. After the first 8 hours, at what rate would the nurse infuse the IV fluids?

a)

219 mL/hr

b)

625 mL/hr

c)

938 mL/hr

2.

An 80-kg patient with burns over 30% of total body surface area (TBSA) is admitted to the burn unit. Using the Parkland formula of 4 mL/kg/%TBSA, what is the IV infusion rate (mL/hour) for lactated Ringer‘s solution that the nurse will give during the first 8 hours?

(a)   mL

3.

The nurse estimates the extent of a burn using the rule of nines for a patient who has been admitted with deep partial-thickness burns of the anterior trunk and the entire left arm. What percentage of the patient's total body surface area (TBSA) has been injured? (a)   %

4.

When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes dry, pale, and hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. Which term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?

a)

First-degree skin destruction

b)

Full-thickness skin destruction

c)

Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

5.

On admission to the burn unit, a patient with an approximate 25% total body surface area (TBSA) burn has the following initial laboratory results: Hct 58%, Hgb 18.2 mg/dL (172 g/L), serum K+ 4.9 mEq/L (4.8 mmol/L), and serum Na+ 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L). Which prescribed action would be the nurse’s priority?

a)

Monitoring urine output

b)

Scheduling additional laboratory tests

c)

Increasing the rate of the ordered IV solution

d)

Typing and crossmatching for a blood transfusion

6.

During the emergent phase of burn care, which assessment is most useful in determining whether the patient is receiving adequate fluids?

a)

Check skin turgor.

b)

Monitor daily weight.

c)

Assess mucous membranes.

d)

Measure hourly urine output.

7.

A patient admitted with burns over 30% of the body surface 3 days ago has dramatically increased urine output today. How would the nurse interpret this finding?

a)

Diuresis indicates development of acute kidney injury.

b)

Diuresis reflects normalizing capillary permeability.

c)

Increased urine volume signals a likely urinary infection.

d)

Increased urine volume requires increased calorie intake.

8.

A patient with burns covering 40% total body surface area (TBSA) is in the acute phase of burn treatment. Which snack would the nurse recommend as providing the most support for wound healing?

a)

Banana

b)

Orange gelatin

c)

Vanilla milkshake

d)

Whole grain bagel

9.

A patient has just arrived in the emergency department after an electrical burn from exposure to a high-voltage current. Which assessment is the priority?

a)

Oral temperature

b)

Peripheral pulses

c)

Extremity movement

d)

Pupil reaction to light

10.

A patient who has burns on the arms, legs, and chest from a house fire has become agitated and restless 8 hours after being admitted to the hospital. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Stay at the bedside and reassure the patient. at the bedside

b)

Administer the ordered morphine sulfate IV.

c)

Assess orientation and level of consciousness.

d)

Use pulse oximetry to check oxygen saturation.

11.

A patient with extensive electrical burn injuries is admitted to the emergency department. Which prescribed intervention would the nurse implement first?

a)

Assess pain level.

b)

Place on heart monitor.

c)

Check potassium level.

d)

Assess oral temperature.

12.

A patient who weighs 92 kg (202.4 lb) experienced a thermal burn covering 50% of total body surface area (TBSA) eight hours ago. Which new information would be a priority for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

a)

Blood pressure is 95/48 per arterial line.

b)

Urine output of 41 mL over past 2 hours.

c)

Serous exudate is leaking from the burns.

d)

Heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia of 108.

13.

Which patient would the nurse assess first?

a)

A patient with burns who reports level 8 (0 to 10 scale) pain

b)

A patient with smoke inhalation who has wheezes and confusion

c)

A patient with full-thickness leg burns who is scheduled for a dressing change

d)

A patient with partial thickness burns who is receiving IV fluids at 500 mL/hr

14.

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient who had a large burn 48 hours ago. Which result requires priority action by the nurse?

a)

Hematocrit of 53%

b)

Serum sodium of 147 mEq/L

c)

Serum potassium of 6.1 mEq/L

d)

Blood urea nitrogen of 37 mg/dL

15.

The charge nurse observes the following actions being taken by a new nurse on the burn unit. Which action by the new nurse would require immediate intervention by the charge nurse?

a)

The new nurse uses clean gloves when applying antibacterial cream to a burn wound.

b)

The new nurse obtains burn cultures when the patient has a temperature of 95.2°F

(35.1°C).

c)

The new nurse gives PRN fentanyl (Sublimaze) IV to a patient 5 minutes before a dressing change.

d)

The new nurse calls the health care provider when a nondiabetic patient‘s serum glucose is elevated.

16.

Which nursing action is a priority for a patient who had a burn injury while working on an electrical power line?

a)

Inspect the contact burns.

b)

Check the blood pressure.

c)

Stabilize the cervical spine.

d)

Assess alertness and orientation.

17.

Using the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) levels 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5, select the correct choices with the appropriate triage for the following patient situations presented in an emergency department (ED).

a)

2 → a. A 6-year-old child with a temperature of 103.2°F (39.6°C)

1_ → b. A 22-year-old woman with asthma in acute respiratory distress

2 → c. An infant who has been vomiting for 2 days

4 → d. A 50-year-old man with low back pain and spasms

b)

1_→ a. A 6-year-old child with a temperature of 103.2°F (39.6°C)

2_→ b. A 22-year-old woman with asthma in acute respiratory distress

4_→ c. An infant who has been vomiting for 2 days

3_→ d. A 50-year-old man with low back pain and spasms

18.

Using the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) levels 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5, select the correct choices with the appropriate triage for the following patient situations presented in an emergency department (ED).

a)

1 → a. A 32-year-old woman who is unconscious following an automobile accident

5→ b. A 40-year-old woman with rhinitis and a cough

2→ c. A 58-year-old man with midsternal chest pain

3→ d. A 16-year-old teenager with an angulated forearm following a sports injury

b)

4 → a. A 32-year-old woman who is unconscious following an automobile accident

3→ b. A 40-year-old woman with rhinitis and a cough

5→ c. A 58-year-old man with midsternal chest pain

1→ d. A 16-year-old teenager with an angulated forearm following a sports injury

19.

When a nurse is performing a primary survey in the ED, what is being assessed?

a)

Whether the personnel of the ED are adequate to treat the patient

b)

The acuity of the patient’s condition to determine priority of care

c)

Whether the patient is responsive enough to provide needed information

d)

The status of airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure/environmental control

20.

During the primary survey, the nurse observes asymmetric chest wall movement. What intervention would the nurse do first?

a)

Check a central pulse.

b)

Stabilize the cervical spine.

c)

Apply direct pressure to the wound.

d)

Start bag-mask ventilation with 100% oxygen.

21.

During the secondary survey of a trauma patient in the ED, why is it important that the nurse obtain details of the incident?

a)

The mechanism of injury can predict specific injuries.

b)

Key facts may be forgotten when needed later for legal actions.

c)

Alcohol use associated with many accidents can affect treatment of injuries.

d)

Many types of accidents or trauma must be reported to government agencies.

22.

What nursing intervention is done during the “E” step of the primary survey?

a)

Obtain full set of vital signs.

b)

Remove the patient’s clothing and assess.

c)

Elicit history and head-to-toe assessment.

d)

Assess mental status and capillary refill for signs of shock.

23.

When is the placement of a nasogastric tube contraindicated during emergency care?

a)

Inhalation injury

b)

Head or facial trauma

c)

Intraabdominal bleed

d)

Cervical spine fracture

24.

In assessing the emergency patient’s health history, what information is obtained using the mnemonic SAMPLE?

a)

Skin, anatomy of injuries, mucous membranes, peripheral edema, leukocytosis, eczema location

b)

Stiffness, approximate weight, motor function, palpable swelling, labored breathing, edema severity

c)

Symptoms, allergies, medications, past health history, last meal, and events/environment leading to the illness or injury

d)

Sentience, abdominal sounds, memory loss, people exposed to, last medication, earliest availability of past medical records

25.

What heat-related emergency would the healthy athlete with inadequate fluid intake be most likely to experience after exercise?

a)

Heatstroke

b)

Heat attack

c)

Heat cramps

d)

Heat exhaustion

26.

Which statements describe heat exhaustion? Select all that apply.

a)

Volume and electrolyte depletion

b)

Treated with rapid cooling methods

c)

High risk of mortality and morbidity

d)

Rectal temperature of 99.6°F to 104°F (37.5°C to 40°C)

e)

Causes mild confusion, diaphoresis, and dilation of pupils

27.

What is the first priority in managing the patient after drowning?

a)

Reversing acidosis

b)

Correcting hypoxia

c)

Maintaining fluid balance

d)

Preventing cerebral edema

28.

The patient is admitted with severe acidosis after trying to commit suicide by ingesting aspirin. What would be used to treat this patient?

a)

Milk

b)

Cathartics

c)

Hemodialysis

d)

Whole bowel irrigation

29.

During the primary survey of a patient with severe leg trauma, the nurse observes that the patient’s left pedal and posterior tibial pulses are absent, and the entire leg is swollen. Which action will the nurse take next?

a)

Send blood to the lab for a complete blood count.

b)

Assess further for a cause of the decreased circulation.

c)

Finish the airway, breathing, circulation, and disability survey.

d)

Start normal saline fluid infusion with two large-bore IV lines.

30.

A patient who is unconscious after a fall from a ladder is transported to the emergency department by emergency medical personnel. Which action would the nurse complete during the primary survey of the patient?

a)

Obtain a complete set of vital signs.

b)

Check a Glasgow Coma Scale score.

c)

Attach an electrocardiogram monitor.

d)

Ask about chronic medical conditions.

31.

A 22-yr-old patient who experienced a drowning accident in a local pool, but now is awake and breathing spontaneously, is admitted for observation. Which assessment will be most important for the nurse to take during the observation period?

a)

Assess heart sounds.

b)

Palpate peripheral pulses.

c)

Check mental orientation.

d)

Auscultate breath sounds.

32.

A patient arrives in the emergency department (ED) several hours after taking “25 to 30” acetaminophen (Tylenol) tablets. Which action will the nurse plan to take?

a)

Administer N-acetylcysteine.

b)

Prepare for chelation therapy.

c)

Start oxygen using a non-rebreather mask.

d)

Have the patient drink large amounts of water.

33.

A triage nurse in a busy emergency department (ED) assesses a patient who reports 7/10 abdominal pain and states, “I had a temperature of 103.9°F (39.9°C) at home.” Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol).

b)

Assess the patient‘s current vital signs.

c)

Ask the patient to provide a clean-catch urine for urinalysis.

d)

Tell the patient that it may be 2 hours before seeing a health care provider.

34.

The emergency department (ED) triage nurse is assessing four victims involved in a motor vehicle collision. Which patient requires the most immediate treatment?

a)

A patient with no pedal pulses

b)

A patient with an open femur fracture

c)

A patient with paradoxical chest motion

d)

A patient with bleeding facial lacerations

35.

The following interventions are part of the emergency department (ED) protocol for a patient who has been admitted with multiple bee stings to the hands. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Apply ice packs to both hands.

b)

Attempt to remove the patient‘s rings.

c)

Apply calamine lotion to itching areas.

d)

Give prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

36.

Gastric lavage and administration of activated charcoal are prescribed for an unconscious patient who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) after ingesting 30 lorazepam (Ativan) tablets. Which prescribed action would the nurse plan to take first?

a)

Insert a large-bore orogastric tube.

b)

Assist with endotracheal intubation.

c)

Prepare a 60-mL syringe with saline.

d)

Give first dose of activated charcoal.

37.

Following an earthquake, patients are triaged by emergency medical personnel and transported to the emergency department (ED). Which color tag indicates that the nurse need to assess that patient first?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Black

d)

Yellow

38.

A patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?

a)

Prepare to administer rabies immune globulin.

b)

Assist the health care provider with suturing the wounds.

c)

Teach the patient about the use of prophylactic antibiotics.

d)

Keep the wounds dry until the health care provider can assess them.

39.

Which interventions will the nurse plan for a comatose patient who will have targeted temperature management/therapeutic hypothermia? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Assist with endotracheal intubation.

b)

Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

c)

Begin continuous cardiac monitoring.

d)

Prepare to give sympathomimetic drugs.

e)

Obtain a prescription for patient restraints.

40.

The emergency department (ED) nurse is starting targeted temperature

management/therapeutic hypothermia in a patient who has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest. Which actions in the hypothermia protocol can be delegated to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN)? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Evaluate changes in heart rhythm.

b)

Insert a urinary catheter to drainage.

c)

Assess neurologic status every 2 hours.

d)

Place cooling blankets above and below patient.

e)

Attach rectal temperature probe to cooling blanket control panel.

41.

Which data collected by the nurse caring for a patient who has cardiogenic shock indicate that the patient may be developing multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

a)

The patient‘s serum creatinine level is elevated.

b)

The patient reports intermittent chest pressure.

c)

The patient‘s extremities are cool and pulses are weak.

d)

The patient has bilateral crackles throughout lung fields.

42.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a massive burn injury and possible hypovolemia. Which assessment data would be of most concern to the nurse?

a)

Urine output is 30 mL/hr.

b)

Blood pressure is 90/40 mm Hg.

c)

Oral fluid intake is 100 mL for 8 hours.

d)

Skin tenting over the sternum is prolonged.

43.

An intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock. Which data would indicate to the nurse that the goals of IABP treatment are being met?

a)

Urine output of 25 mL/hr

b)

Heart rate of 110 beats/min

c)

Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min

d)

Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat

44.

After change-of-shift report in the progressive care unit, for which patient would the nurse provide care first?

a)

Patient who had an inferior myocardial infarction 2 days ago and has crackles in the lung bases

b)

Patient who had a T5 spinal cord injury 1 week ago and currently has a heart rate of 54 beats/minute

c)

Patient with suspected urosepsis who has new prescriptions for urine and blood cultures and antibiotics

d)

Patient admitted with anaphylaxis 3 hours ago who has clear lung sounds and a blood pressure of 108/58 mm Hg

45.

An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week with sepsis is

now stable and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the patient has new onset confusion with stable vital signs and oxygen saturation. What would the nurse plan to do?

a)

Give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer.

b)

Inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.

c)

Notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer.

d)

Obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.

46.

Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects the effectiveness of drugs that the nurse gives to reduce a patient‘s left ventricular afterload?

a)

Mean arterial pressure (MAP)

b)

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

c)

Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

d)

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

47.

After surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patient‘s central venous pressure (CVP) monitor indicates low pressures. Which action would the nurse take?

a)

Administer IV diuretic medications.

b)

Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol.

c)

Increase the infusion rate of IV vasodilators.

d)

Elevate the head of the patient‘s bed to 45 degrees.

48.

When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter will the nurse use to directly evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

a)

Central venous pressure (CVP)

b)

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

c)

Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

d)

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

49.

When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall myocardial infarction, which is the most pertinent measurement for the nurse to obtain?

a)

Central venous pressure (CVP)

b)

Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

c)

Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)

d)

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

50.

A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume resuscitation, the patient‘s urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider would the nurse question?

a)

Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.

b)

Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr

c)

Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.

d)

Use norepinephrine to keep systolic blood pressure (BP) above 90 mm Hg.

51.

A nurse is caring for a patient whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates a blood pressure of 92/54 mm Hg, a pulse of 64 beats/min, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP). Which intervention prescribed by the health care provider would the nurse question?

a)

Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees.

b)

Infuse normal saline at 250 mL/hr.

c)

Hold nitroprusside if systolic BP is less than 90 mm Hg.

d)

Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP is greater than 90 mm Hg.

52.

A patient with massive trauma and possible spinal cord injury is admitted to the emergency department (ED). Which assessment finding by the nurse would be consistent with a diagnosis of neurogenic shock?

a)

Inspiratory crackles

b)

Heart rate 45 beats/min

c)

Cool, clammy extremities

d)

Temperature 101.2F (38.4C)

53.

An older patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy. Hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which intervention would the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increase the rate for the dopamine infusion.

b)

Decrease the rate for the nitroglycerin infusion.

c)

Increase the rate for the sodium nitroprusside infusion.

d)

Decrease the rate for the 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5/.9 NS) infusion.

54.

After a patient who has septic shock receives 2 L of IV normal saline, the central venous pressure is 10 mm Hg and the blood pressure is 82/40 mm Hg. Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Sodium nitroprusside

55.

A patient with cardiogenic shock has the following vital signs: BP 102/50, pulse 128, respirations 28. The pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is high, and cardiac output is low. Which treatment would the nurse expect to be prescribed?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Hydrocortisone

c)

Epinephrine drip

d)

5% albumin infusion

56.

The emergency department (ED) nurse receives report that a seriously injured patient involved in a motor vehicle crash is being transported to the facility with an estimated arrival in 5 minutes. Which item would the nurse obtain in preparation for the patient‘s arrival?

a)

A dopamine infusion

b)

A hypothermia blanket

c)

Lactated Ringer‘s solution

d)

A 16-gauge IV catheter

57.

Which finding is the best indicator that the fluid resuscitation for a 90-kg patient with hypovolemic shock has been effective?

a)

There are no signs of hemorrhage.

b)

Hemoglobin is within normal limits.

c)

Urine output 65 mL over the past hour.

d)

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 72 mm Hg.

58.

Norepinephrine has been prescribed for a patient who was admitted with dehydration and hypotension. Which data indicate that the nurse should consult with the health care provider before starting the norepinephrine?

a)

The patient is receiving low dose dopamine.

b)

The patient‘s central venous pressure is 3 mmHg.

c)

The patient is in sinus tachycardia at 120 beats/min.

d)

The patient has had no urine output since admission.

59.

Which assessment information is most important for the nurse to obtain when evaluating whether treatment of a patient with anaphylactic shock has been effective?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Orientation

c)

Blood pressure

d)

Oxygen saturation

60.

A patient with septic shock has a BP of 70/46 mm Hg, pulse of 136 beats/min, respirations of 32 breaths/min, temperature of 104°F, and blood glucose of 246 mg/dL. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider would the nurse implement first?

a)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg rectally.

b)

Administer normal saline IV at 500 mL/hr.

c)

Start norepinephrine to keep blood pressure above 90 mm Hg.

d)

Start insulin drip to maintain blood glucose at 110 to 150 mg/dL.

61.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has septic shock. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

a)

Skin cool and clammy

b)

Heart rate of 118 beats/min

c)

Blood pressure of 92/56 mm Hg

d)

O2 saturation of 93% on room air

62.

A patient is admitted to the emergency department (ED) in shock of unknown etiology. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Obtain the blood pressure.

b)

Check the level of orientation.

c)

Administer supplemental oxygen.

d)

Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram.

63.

A patient who has neurogenic shock is receiving phenylephrine through a right forearm IV. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse indicates a need for immediate action?

a)

The patient‘s heart rate is 58 beats/min.

b)

The patient‘s extremities are warm and dry.

c)

The patient‘s IV infusion site is cool and pale.

d)

The patient‘s urine output is 28 mL over the past hour.

64.

Several interventions are prescribed by the health care provider for a patient who has respiratory distress and syncope after eating strawberries. Which action will the nurse complete first?

a)

Give diphenhydramine.

b)

Administer epinephrine.

c)

Start continuous ECG monitoring.

d)

Draw blood for complete blood count (CBC).

65.

A patient with suspected neurogenic shock after a diving accident has arrived in the emergency department. A cervical collar is in place. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Prepare to administer atropine IV.

b)

Obtain baseline body temperature.

c)

Infuse large volumes of lactated Ringer‘s solution.

d)

Provide high-flow O (100%) by nonrebreather mask.

e)

Prepare for emergent intubation and mechanical ventilation.

66.

Which preventive actions by the nurse will help limit the development of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) in patients admitted to the hospital? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Ambulate postoperative patients as soon as possible after surgery.

b)

Use aseptic technique when manipulating invasive lines or devices.

c)

Remove indwelling urinary catheters as soon as possible after surgery.

d)

Administer prescribed antibiotics within 1 hour for patients with possible sepsis.

e)

Advocate for parenteral nutrition for patients who cannot eat adequate calories.

67.

Which assessment finding would the nurse expect when a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30?

a)

Persistent skin tenting

b)

Rapid, deep respirations

c)

Hot, flushed face and neck

d)

Bounding peripheral pulses

68.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which aim will be the primary treatment goal?

a)

Augmenting fluid volume

b)

Maintaining cardiac output

c)

Diluting nephrotoxic substances

d)

Preventing systemic hypertension

69.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV?

a)

Urine volume

b)

Calcium level

c)

Cardiac rhythm

d)

Neurologic status

70.

Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse‘s teaching about management of CKD has been effective?

a)

“I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products.”

b)

“I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day.”

c)

“I will measure my output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink.”

d)

“I need erythropoietin injections to boost my immunity and prevent infection.”

71.

Which information will the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Phosphate level

c)

Neurologic status

d)

Creatinine clearance

72.

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is prescribed to be given via nasogastric tube for a patient with hyperkalemia. Which assessment would the nurse make before administering the medication?

a)

Bowel sounds

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

d)

Level of consciousness (LOC)

73.

Which laboratory result would the nurse check before administering calcium carbonate to a patient with chronic kidney disease?

a)

Serum potassium

b)

Serum phosphate

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

Serum cholesterol

74.

A patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function?

a)

Urine volume

b)

Creatinine level

c)

Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

d)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

75.

A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft?

a)

A fistula is much less likely to clot.

b)

A fistula increases patient mobility.

c)

A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.

d)

A fistula can accommodate larger needles.

76.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of a patient‘s left arm arteriovenous fistula?

a)

Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site.

b)

Assess the quality of the left radial pulse.

c)

Irrigate the fistula with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

d)

Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms.

77.

A patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching?

a)

Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis.

b)

More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis.

c)

Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis.

d)

Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis.

78.

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD?

a)

The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing.

b)

The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange.

c)

The patient cleans the catheter while in the bathtub each day.

d)

The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

79.

Which information in a patient‘s history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation?

a)

The patient has type 1 diabetes.

b)

The patient has metastatic lung cancer.

c)

The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection.

d)

The patient is infected with human immunodeficiency virus.

80.

Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid taken for four years after kidney transplantation?

a)

Postural hypotension

b)

Recurrent tachycardia

c)

Knee and hip joint pain

d)

Increased serum creatinine

81.

A patient who had a kidney transplant eight years ago is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone. Which assessment data will be of most concern to the nurse?

a)

Skin is thin and fragile.

b)

Blood pressure is 150/92.

c)

A lump is palpable in the axilla.

d)

Fasting blood glucose is 144 mg/dL.

82.

The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication being taken by the patient indicates a need for patient teaching?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Calcium phosphate

c)

Magnesium hydroxide

d)

Multivitamin with iron

83.

What laboratory value would the nurse check before administering captopril to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease?

a)

Glucose

b)

Potassium

c)

Creatinine

d)

Phosphate

84.

A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin. Which laboratory value would the nurse monitor for adverse effects of the medication?

a)

Blood glucose

b)

Urine osmolality

c)

Serum creatinine

d)

Serum potassium

85.

A patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information would the nurse discuss with the health care provider before giving the medication?

a)

Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL

b)

Oxygen saturation 89%

c)

Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL

d)

Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

86.

Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein?

a)

Limit movement of the left leg.

b)

Start continuous pulse oximetry.

c)

Restrict the patient‘s protein intake.

d)

Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.

87.

A patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider?

a)

Serum creatinine level of 2.1 mg/dL

b)

Serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L

c)

White blood cell count of 11,500/L

d)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 56 mg/dL

88.

A patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy would the nurse implement first?

a)

Insert urethral catheter.

b)

Obtain renal ultrasound.

c)

Draw a complete blood count.

d)

Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hr.

89.

A patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?

a)

The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL.

b)

Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL.

c)

The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL.

d)

The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2.

90.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Notify the patient‘s health care provider.

b)

Document the QRS interval measurement.

c)

Check the patient‘s most recent potassium level.

d)

Review the chart for the patient‘s current creatinine level.

91.

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician?

a)

Teach the patient about fluid restrictions.

b)

Check blood pressure before starting dialysis.

c)

Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight.

d)

Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

92.

A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention?

a)

The LPN/VN assists the patient to ambulate in the hallway.

b)

The LPN/VN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously.

c)

The LPN/VN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch.

d)

The LPN/VN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient‘s room.

93.

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

a)

The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr.

b)

The patient‘s central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased.

c)

The patient reports level 7 (0- to 10-point scale) incisional pain.

d)

The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

94.

During routine hemodialysis, a patient reports nausea and dizziness. Which action would the nurse take first?

a)

Slow down the rate of dialysis.

b)

Check the blood pressure (BP).

c)

Review the hematocrit (Hct) level.

d)

Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

95.

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate four hours after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Urine output

c)

Creatinine clearance

d)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

96.

A patient reports leg cramps during hemodialysis. Which action would the nurse take?

a)

Massage the patient‘s legs.

b)

Reposition the patient supine.

c)

Give acetaminophen (Tylenol).

d)

Infuse a bolus of normal saline.

97.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient would the nurse assess first?

a)

Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange

b)

Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level

c)

Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L

d)

Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis with a heart rate of 110/min

98.

Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Avoid commercial salt substitutes.

b)

Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL daily.

c)

Take phosphate binders with each meal.

d)

Choose high-protein foods for most meals.

e)

Have several servings of dairy products daily.

99.

A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250-mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient‘s fluid restriction for the next 24 hours?

(a)   mL

100.

The nurse is caring for an unresponsive terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deep and rapid breathing. Which action would the nurse take?

a)

Suction the patient‘s mouth.

b)

Administer oxygen via face mask.

c)

Document the patient‘s respiratory pattern.

d)

Place the patient in high Fowler‘s position.

101.

The nurse is caring for a client experiencing  hypovolemia. Which action will support an increased preload and improve cardiac output?

a)

Administer furosemide intravenous

b)

Start intravenous nitroglycerin infusion

c)

Administer intravenous bolus 0.9% normal saline

d)

Administer sublingual nifedipine

102.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which factor contributes to fluid retention during mechanical ventilation?

a)

Increased release of atrial natriuretic factor

b)

Decreased renal perfusion with release of renin

c)

Increased insensible water loss via the airway

d)

Decreased release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

103.
  • An older adult client with severe dehydration is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) after being found unconscious on the floor of the home. Laboratory results include:


    sodium 122 mEq/L

    • hematocrit 56%

    • blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 38 mg/dL


    The provider orders intravenous administration of D5W at 200 ml/hour to treat hypovolemia. Several hours after the infusion is started, the client has a generalized seizure. Which statement most accurately describes the cause of the seizure?

a)

Viral infection has led to septic shock.

b)

Administration of sodium-free fluids causes cerebral cellular swelling.

c)

Hypovolemia causes decreased cerebral perfusion.

d)

The client has an underlying seizure disorder.

104.

A medication given as a replacement for ADH is __________.

a)

nifedipine

b)

desmopressin

c)

furosemide

105.
  • The nurse obtains hemodynamic measurements, which reveal:

    • **** central venous pressure (CVP) 9 mmHg

    • **** pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) 17 mmHg


    Which findings should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

a)

Poor skin turgor

b)

Dry mucous membranes

c)

Bilateral crackles in the lungs

d)

Jugular vein distention

e)

Hepatomegaly

106.

Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is often preferred for critically ill clients with fluid volume overload. Why is CRRT preferred over intermittent hemodialysis (IHD)?

a)

IHD can result in multi-system organ failure.

b)

IHD can lead to severe hemodynamic instability.

c)

IHD can worsen fluid volume overload.

d)

IHD leads to severe hypertension.

107.

Recognizing Cues: Assessment Findings in Fluid Balance Alterations: At 1300, a 72-year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a diagnosis of congestive heart failure. After assessing the client, the nurse finds dyspnea, bilateral lower lobe crackles, and a urinary output of 28 mL in the past hour. The client is anxious and restless.


Assessment findings indicate that the client is in _____(1)_____. The nurse determines that the most likely diagnosis is  _____(2)_____ due to _____(3)_____. The client’s confusion and restlessness are caused by decreased _____(4)_____. Decreased urinary output indicates  ____(5)______ due to  cardiac output ____(6)______.

a)

(1) fluid volume overload

(2) pulmonary edema

(3) left-side heart failure

(4) oxygenation

(5) renal compromise

(6) decreased

b)

(1) fluid volume deficit

(2) ascites

(3) right-side heart failure

(4) anxiety

(5) hepatomegaly

(6) increased

108.

At 1400, the client’s dyspnea has worsened and urine output is 20 ml for the past hour. A pulmonary artery catheter is inserted for hemodynamic monitoring. Based on the client’s history, which readings does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

a)

Mixed venous O2 sat 40%

b)

Central venous O2 sat 70%

c)

PAWP 5 mmHg

d)

CVP 11 mmHg

e)

Cardiac output 3.0 L/min

109.

Based on the correct interpretation of hemodynamic parameters, which provider prescriptions does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.

a)

Desmopressin 1 ml intravenous push (IVP) now

b)

Oxygen via face mask at 10L/min

c)

Hypertonic fluid administration

d)

Supine positioning

e)

Furosemide 20 mg intravenous

110.

The client’s condition continues to decline. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is prescribed. Which statement indicates a correct understanding of why CRRT was prescribed instead of hemodialysis?

a)

CRRT is indicated due to fluid volume deficit.

b)

Once CRRT is performed, the client will no longer be able to tolerate hemodialysis.

c)

CRRT is a temporary measure to remove fluid from clients who are hemodynamically unstable.

d)

CRRT is used to dialyze the client more quickly than is possible with hemodialysis.

111.

A nurse is triaging four clients in the emergency department (ED). Which client is most at risk of developing obstructive shock?

a)

A client who has been vomiting with diarrhea for one week

b)

A client who has a pulmonary embolism

c)

A client who is tachycardic with premature ventricular contractions

d)

A client who has bacterial meningitis

112.

A nurse in the emergency department (ED) is caring for a client who was recently stung by a bee. Which findings are clinical manifestations of anaphylactic shock? Select all that apply.

a)

Stridor

b)

Flushed skin

c)

Respiratory rate 30 & Wheezing

d)

Bounding pulses & Heart rate 52

e)

Decreased level of consciousness

113.

The nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for intravenous dobutamine. Which type of shock is treated by this medication?

a)

Distributive

b)

Obstructive

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Hypovolemic

114.

As hypovolemia progresses, the body attempts to compensate for intravascular volume loss. Which findings are the early signs of hypovolemic shock due to compensatory efforts? Select all that apply.

a)

Delayed capillary refill

b)

Restlessness & Pallor

c)

Bradycardia

  • Bradypnea

d)

Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg

e)

Anxiety

115.

A nurse is receiving report on five clients. After careful review, which clients must be closely monitored for acute kidney injury (AKI)? Select all that apply.

a)

57-year-old client experiencing hypovolemic shock following multiple fractures and internal injuries from a motor vehicle accident.

b)

86-year-old client with coronary artery disease and unstable angina scheduled for a cardiac catheterization tomorrow morning.

c)

39-year-old client with burns over 45% of the body from an electrical fire last night.

d)

45-year-old client with pancreatic cancer who started chemotherapy 3 weeks ago and was admitted this morning with malaise, fever, chills, tachycardia, and hypotension.

e)

32-year-old client who experienced a placental abruption at 36 weeks gestation and had an emergency Cesarean section this morning.

116.

There are three types of acute kidney injury (AKI): prerenal, intrarenal, and postrenal. Match the incident to the cause of AKI.


(1) = Examples include renal vein/artery stenosis & hypotension (volume depletion, decreased cardiac output).

(2) = Examples include overuse of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), direct damage from trauma, nephrotoxins, or glomerulonephritis.

(3) = Examples include benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), renal stones, and spinal cord injury.

a)

(1) Intrarenal AKI

(2) Postrenal AKI

(3) Prerenal AKI

b)

(1) Prerenal AKI

(2) Intrarenal AKI

(3) Postrenal AKI

117.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury. The provider prescribes continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most common indication for using CRRT?

a)

Cardiogenic shock

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Pericarditis

118.

Which are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI)? Select all that apply.

a)

Chronic overuse of ibuprofen to treat knee pain

b)

Ureterolithiasis that developed two months ago

c)

Lacerated kidney following snowboarding accident

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis due to streptococcal infection

e)

Use of contrast medium during a cardiac catheterization

119.

The nurse is caring for a client at risk for acute kidney injury. Which diagnostic studies are used to stage acute kidney injury (AKI)?

a)

Serum creatinine and urine output

b)

Renal ultrasound and biopsy

c)

Blood pressure and urine osmolality

d)

Estimated blood loss and cardiac output

120.

The nurse is caring for a client in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). Select the assessment findings the nurse anticipates.

a)

Hypotension & High-specific gravity

b)

Peaked T waves

c)

ST-segment elevation & Hypernatremia

d)

Crackles in lung fields

e)

Bounding pulses & Distended neck veins

121.

The nurse is preparing to initiate hemodialysis for a client with acute kidney injury secondary to hypovolemia. Select three priority nursing actions.

a)

Weigh the client.

b)

Determine patency of vascular access.

c)

Instruct the client to expect headaches and dizziness during treatment.

d)

Obtain flumazenil to use as a reversal agent if necessary & administer metoprolol as prescribed.

e)

Review serum electrolyte levels.

122.

A temporary vascular device is placed for immediate use for a client with acute kidney injury who requires hemodialysis. During hemodialysis, what is the nurse's priority assessment?

a)

Blood pressure and cardiac rhythm interpretation

b)

Anxiety and emotional response to therapy

c)

Intake and output

d)

Serum glucose and sodium levels

123.

A nurse is caring for a client who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the procedure?

a)

“The client should be positioned on the left side during the procedure.”

b)

“Before the procedure, air must be instilled in the line.”

c)

“The transducer should be level with the third intercostal space.”

d)

“A chest x-ray may be needed to confirm line placement.”