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Ch.2 Anatomy and Pathology

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not a division of the Pharynx.

a)

Nasopharynx

b)

Uvulopharynx

c)

Oropharynx

d)

Laryngopharynx

2.

How long approximately is the Pharynx?

a)

4 inches

b)

5 inches

c)

6 inches

d)

3 inches

3.

Cagelike, cartilaginous structure that is approx. 1.5-2 inches in length in the adult

a)
Bronchus
b)

Larynx

c)
Esophagus
d)

Trachea

4.

This structure consists of cartilages connected by ligaments and is moved by numerous muscles to create sound

a)

Trachea

b)

Larynx

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Tongue

5.

What forms the anterior wall of the larynx?

a)
Thyroid cartilage
b)
Arytenoid cartilage
c)
Epiglottis
d)
Cricoid cartilage
6.

At what vertebral level does the laryngeal prominence correspond with?

a)

C5

b)

C7

c)

C6

7.

Fibrous muscular tube that is 3/4" in diameter and 4 1/2" long

a)

Esophagus

b)

Trachea

c)

Larynx

d)

Pharynx

8.

What is the location called where the trachea branches into the L and R primary bronchi?

a)
Larynx
b)
Alveoli
c)
Bronchioles
d)
Carina
9.

Where are the parathyroid glands located?

a)
Within the adrenal glands above the kidneys.
b)
On the anterior surface of the thyroid gland in the neck.
c)
In the abdomen near the pancreas.
d)
On the posterior surface of the thyroid gland in the neck.
10.

Where is the thymus gland located?

a)
In the lower abdomen, near the intestines.
b)
In the brain, above the pituitary gland.
c)
In the neck, next to the thyroid gland.
d)
In the upper chest, behind the sternum.
11.

This anatomical structure lies at the ridge of the lowest tracheal cartilage where it divides into the right and left bronchi

a)
carina
b)
trachea
c)
alveolus
d)
bronchus
12.

What are the structures called that the secondary bronchi end up terminating in

a)
Alveoli
b)
Lungs
c)
Trachea
d)
Bronchioles
13.

What is the light, spongy, and highly elastic material that allows for expansion and contraction in the lungs?

a)

Parenchyma

b)

fissures

c)

bronchioles

d)

Vessels

14.

What is the space between the two layers of pleura called?

a)
Pleural cavity
b)
Pleural sac
c)
Pleural membrane
d)
Pleural space
15.

What is the condition called where air or gas is in the pleural cavity?

a)
Hemothorax
b)
Pleural effusion
c)
Pneumothorax
d)
Pulmonary embolism
16.

What do we call the condition where blood is in the pleural cavity?

a)
Pleural effusion
b)
Hemopericardium
c)
Pneumothorax
d)
Hemothorax
17.

From superior to inferior, the three regions of the pharynx are the ____.

a)

laryngopharynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx

b)

oropharynx, nasopharynx, laryngopharynx

c)

nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, oropharynx

d)

nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx

18.

What do you call any fluid other than blood accumulating in the pleural cavity?

a)
Hemothorax
b)
Pneumothorax
c)
Pleural fibrosis
d)
Pleural effusion
19.

This is the double walled membrane that encloses the lungs.

a)
Pleura
b)
Alveoli
c)
Bronchi
d)
Diaphragm
20.

The space between the layers of the pleura.

a)
Pleural cavity
b)
Pleural lining
c)
Pleural membrane
d)
Pleural fluid
21.

Is the thyroid gland considered a mediastinal structure?

a)
Yes, the thyroid gland is a mediastinal structure.
b)
The thyroid gland is located in the mediastinum.
c)
The thyroid gland is part of the thoracic cavity.
d)
No, the thyroid gland is not considered a mediastinal structure.
22.

Where is the Thymus gland located? When is it most prominent?

a)
The Thymus gland is located in the upper chest and is most prominent during childhood and adolescence.
b)
The Thymus gland is located in the brain and is most prominent during old age.
c)
The Thymus gland is located in the neck and is most prominent at birth.
d)
The Thymus gland is located in the lower abdomen and is most prominent in adulthood.
23.

What are the great vessels of the mediastinum?

a)
Aorta, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, pulmonary arteries, pulmonary veins
b)
Jugular veins
c)
Subclavian veins
d)
Carotid arteries
24.

True / False: The pharynx is a common passageway for both food and respiration

a)
False
b)
True
25.

True / False: The left bronchus is smaller in diameter than the right but is approximately twice as long

a)
False
b)
True
26.

The outermost layer of the pleura is referred to as the:

a)

Parietal pleura

b)

Visceral pleura

c)

Pulmonary pleura

d)

Thoracic pleura

27.

Which of the following is not a mediastinal structure?

a)

Thymus gland

b)

Esophagus

c)

Trachea

d)

Epiglottis

28.

Which statement best describes aspiration?

a)

It typically occurs in elderly patients with neurological deficits

b)

It is most common in children when a foreign object is swallowed and enters the airways

c)

It results exclusively from bacterial infections

d)

It only occurs in patients with preexisting lung conditions

29.

Atelectasis is best described as:

a)

Expansion of the lung due to trapped air

b)

Collapse of lung tissue from bronchial obstruction or a punctured airway, leading to a radiodense appearance

c)

An inflammatory infection of the alveoli

d)

A reversible dilation of the bronchi

30.

Which of the following characteristics best defines bronchiectasis?

a)

Reversible bronchial dilation that resolves with treatment

b)

Irreversible widening of the bronchi from chronic infections or obstruction, often with increased mucus and dense lower lung fields

c)

A temporary spasm of the bronchial muscles

d)

Inflammatory consolidation affecting a single lung segment

31.

Which statement best differentiates acute from chronic bronchitis?

a)

Acute bronchitis is most often due to viral infections, while chronic bronchitis is commonly associated with long term smoking

b)

Both forms have identical causes and duration

c)

Chronic bronchitis is caused by viral agents, whereas acute bronchitis stems from tobacco use

d)

There is no clinical difference between the two

32.

Which of the following conditions is included under COPD?

a)

Only emphysema

b)

Only chronic bronchitis

c)

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and certain aspects of asthma

d)

Only asthma

33.

What radiographic findings are typical in cystic fibrosis?

a)

Uniformly clear lung fields

b)

Focal areas of increased radiodensity combined with hyperinflation due to thick mucus

c)

Isolated pulmonary nodules with calcification

d)

Diffuse pleural effusions

34.

Which of the following is not a common cause of dyspnea?

a)

Physical exertion

b)

Restrictive or obstructive lung defects

c)

Pulmonary edema from cardiac conditions

d)

An infection limited to the upper airway

35.

Which radiographic features best characterize emphysema?

a)

Consolidation of lung tissue with air bronchograms

b)

Enlarged alveolar air spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and a barrel-chested appearance

c)

Diffuse patchy infiltrates due to interstitial edema

d)

Increased markings from inflammatory exudates

36.

Epiglottitis is most common in which age group, and why is rapid diagnosis imperative?

a)

Infants under 1 year, because of sudden onset respiratory failure

b)

Adolescents, due to mild symptoms that may be overlooked

c)

Children aged 2 to 5, because swelling can quickly lead to complete airway obstruction

d)

Elderly patients, due to associated comorbidities

37.

Which of the following best differentiates benign from malignant lung neoplasms?

a)

Benign neoplasms are typically small, sharply defined, and peripheral. Malignant neoplasms often begin as slight shadows that become more opaque, with biopsy needed for diagnosis

b)

Both benign and malignant neoplasms appear identical on imaging

c)

Malignant neoplasms are usually well-circumscribed from the onset

38.

Asbestosis is a pneumoconiosis caused by asbestos fibers. Which serious complication is it associated with?

a)

Anthracosis

b)

Mesothelioma

c)

Silicosis

d)

Hamartoma formation

39.

Which pneumoconiosis is commonly known as "black lung"?

a)

Asbestosis

b)

Anthracosis

c)

Silicosis

d)

Mesothelioma

40.

Silicosis is most frequently seen in which of the following occupational groups?

a)

Office workers exposed to minimal dust

b)

Foundry workers and sandblasters exposed to silica dust

c)

Construction workers exposed solely to cement dust

d)

Industrial painters

41.

For proper radiographic evaluation of a pleural effusion, the patient should be positioned:

a)

Supine on the table

b)

Erect or in a lateral decubitus position with the affected side down

c)

Prone with arms elevated

d)

Lateral decubitus with the affected side up

42.

Emphysema is best defined as:

a)

Blood accumulation in the pleural space

b)

Accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity due to infection

c)

Air leakage causing lung collapse

d)

Serous fluid from heart failure

43.

Pleurisy is characterized by:

a)

A painless accumulation of pleural fluid

b)

Inflammation of the pleural layers causing a friction rub and severe pain, often following pneumonia or trauma

c)

Enlargement of the mediastinal lymph nodes

d)

Always a visible effusion on chest radiographs

44.

Which subtype of pneumonia is typically confined to one or two lobes of the lung?

a)

Aspiration pneumonia

b)

Bronchopneumonia

c)

Lobar pneumonia

d)

Viral (interstitial) pneumonia

45.

Aspiration pneumonia develops as a result of:

a)

The inhalation of foreign material triggering localized inflammation and edema

b)

A widespread viral infection of the lung parenchyma

c)

Autoimmune inflammation of a lung segment

d)

A single episode of high altitude exposure

46.

On a chest x-ray, a pneumothorax is identified by:

a)

Diffuse increased lung markings

b)

Displacement of the lung from the chest wall with an absence of lung markings in the affected area

c)

A small, rounded solitary lesion

d)

Uniform consolidation in a lung segment

47.

Pulmonary edema most commonly results from:

a)

An exacerbation of asthma

b)

Congestive heart failure causing fluid retention and a characteristic dense hilar region fading toward the periphery

c)

A severe bacterial pneumonia in a young adult

d)

Pulmonary embolism without cardiac involvement

48.

What is the primary treatment for Respiratory Distress Syndrome (both in infants and adults)?

a)

Diuretics to reduce fluid overload

b)

Positive-pressure ventilation to support gas exchange

c)

Immediate surgical lung resection

d)

Antibiotic therapy as the sole treatment

49.

Primary tuberculosis typically radiographically presents with:

a)

Bilateral fibrocalcific apical changes

b)

Enlargement of hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes with small opaque spots throughout the lung and sometimes unilateral pleural effusion

c)

Extensive cavitation in the lung bases

d)

Diffuse interstitial opacities without lymphadenopathy

50.

Secondary tuberculosis most commonly affects which lung region?

a)

The lower lobes

b)

The middle lung zones

c)

The upper lobes or apices

d)

Diffusely throughout the lungs

51.

Cardiac angiography is primarily used to evaluate:

a)

Coronary artery calcification and stenosis

b)

Pulmonary embolism

c)

Pleural effusion

d)

Lung parenchymal masses

52.

Which of the following procedures is performed to aspirate and analyze fluid from the pleural cavity?

a)

Bronchoscopy

b)

Thoracentesis

c)

Endoscopy

d)

Pleuroscopy

53.

Which option best distinguishes acute bronchitis from chronic bronchitis?

a)

Acute bronchitis is most frequently viral, while chronic bronchitis is most often related to long term smoking

b)

Chronic bronchitis resolves rapidly with minimal treatment

c)

There is no significant difference between the two

d)

Acute bronchitis typically affects only the lower lobes

54.

Which imaging modality is primarily used to assess the movement and function of heart valves?

a)

CT scan

b)

MRI

c)

Echocardiogram

d)

Nuclear medicine

55.

What makes up the boundary between the nasopharynx and the oropharynx?

a)

Uvula

b)

Larynx

c)

Pharynx

d)

Epiglottis

56.

This serves as the lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food and fluids

a)

Uvula

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Trachea

d)

Tongue

57.

What structure suspends the larynx?

a)
Cricoid cartilage
b)
Thyroid cartilage
c)
Epiglottis
d)
Hyoid bone
58.

True / False: The nasal septum is the largest and least mobile cartilage structure

a)
True
b)
False
59.

What is the name of the portion of the larynx that is easily palpated?

a)
Cricoid cartilage
b)

Laryngeal Prominence

c)
Epiglottis
d)
Arytenoid cartilage
60.

Leaflike structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid into the trachea

a)
trachea
b)
larynx
c)
epiglottis
d)
pharynx
61.

Approximately how many C shaped rings of cartilage are imbedded in the anterior wall of the trachea?

a)
16 to 20
b)
5 to 8
c)
25 to 30
d)
10 to 12
62.

True / False: the right and left lobes of the thyroid gland are not very radiosensitive

a)
False
b)
True
63.

The right bronchi divides into how many secondary bronchi?

a)
3
b)
5
c)
4
d)
2
64.

Which modality is most effective for detecting pleural effusions and assisting with thoracentesis?

a)
CT scan
b)
X-ray
c)
MRI
d)
Ultrasound
65.

Which imaging modality is recommended for evaluating pulmonary diffusion abnormalities (as in pulmonary embolism)?

a)

Nuclear Medicine

b)

CT scan

c)
Chest X-ray
d)

Ultrasound

66.

Which imaging modality is best suited for detecting small nodules not visible on chest x-rays?

a)
CT scan
b)
Chest X-ray with contrast
c)
Ultrasound
d)
MRI scan