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NUR 265 Exam 3 Review

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 5hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A NURSE IS PLANNING CARE FOR A CLIENT WHO HAS SEPSIS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS IS A
PRIORITY FOR THE NURSE TO TAKE?

a)

MAINTAIN ADEQUATE FLUID VOLUME WITH IV INFUSIONS.

b)

ADMINISTER ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY.

c)

MONITOR HEMODYNAMIC STATUS

d)

ADMINISTER VASOPRESSOR MEDICATION

2.

A CHILD UNDERGOES SURGICAL REMOVAL OF A BRAIN TUMOR. DURING THE
POSTOPERATIVE PERIOD, THE NURSE NOTES THAT THE CHILD IS RESTLESS,
THE PULSE RATE IS ELEVATED, AND THE BLOOD PRESSURE HAS DECREASED
SIGNIFICANTLY FROM THE BASELINE VALUE. THE NURSE SUSPECTS THAT THE
CHILD IS IN SHOCK. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NURSING ACTIONS WOULD BE
APPROPRIATE?

a)

PLACE THE CHILD IN A SUPINE POSITION FEET UP

b)

NOTIFY THE HEALTH CARE PROVIDER (HCP)

c)

PLACE THE CHILD IN TRENDELENBURG'S POSITION.

d)

INCREASE THE FLOW RATE OF THE INTRAVENOUS FLUIDS.

3.

THE NURSE WORKING IN THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT (ED) IS CARING FOR A CLIENT WITH A 65% TOTAL
BODY SURFACE AREA (TBSA) BURN INJURY. AFTER ASSESSING FOR PATENCY OF THE CLIENT’S AIRWAY, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS WOULD BE THE PRIORITY?

a)

PERFORM A FULL NEUROLOGICAL ASSESSMENT

b)

PREPARE TO TRANSFER THE CLIENT TO THE NEAREST BURN UNIT.

c)

INSERT AN INDWELLING URETHRAL CATHETER

d)

INITIATE PRESCRIBED INTRAVENOUS (IV) FLUIDS.

4.


AN OLDER CLIENT IS HOSPITALIZED WITH GUILLAIN-BARR SYNDROME. A FAMILY MEMBER TELLS THE NURSE THE CLIENT IS RESTLESS AND SEEMS CONFUSED. WHAT ACTION BY THE NURSE IS BEST?

a)

PLACE THE CLIENT ON A BED ALARM

b)

CHECK THE MEDICATION LIST FOR INTERACTIONS

c)

ASSESS THE CLIENT’S OXYGEN SATURATION

d)

PUT THE CLIENT ON SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

5.

THE NURSE IS REVIEWING THE LABORATORY TEST RESULTS FOR A CLIENT ADMITTED
TO THE BURN UNIT 3 HOURS AFTER AN EXPLOSION THAT OCCURRED AT A WORKSITE.
THE CLIENT HAS A SEVERE BURN INJURY THAT COVERS 35% OF THE TOTAL BODY
SURFACE AREA (TBSA). THE NURSE IS MOST LIKELY TO NOTE WHICH FINDING ON THE
LABORATORY REPORT?

a)

HEMATOCRIT 60% (0.60)

b)

SERUM ALBUMIN 4.8 G/DL (48 G/L)

c)

SERUM SODIUM 144 MEQ/L (144 MMOL/L)

d)

WHITE BLOOD CELL (WBC) COUNT 9000 MM3 (9 × 109/L)

6.

A NURSE IS CARING FOR FOUR CLIENTS IN THE NEUROLOGIC INTENSIVE CARE UNIT.
AFTER RECEIVING THE HAND-OFF REPORT, WHICH CLIENT SHOULD THE NURSE SEE
FIRST?

a)

Client with Glasgow Coma Scale that was 10 and is now 8

b)

CLIENT WITH A GLASGOW COMA SCALE SCORE THAT WAS 9 AND IS NOW IS 12

c)

CLIENT WITH A MODERATE BRAIN INJURY WHO IS AMNESIC FOR THE EVENT

d)

CLIENT WHO IS REQUESTING PAIN MEDICATION FOR A HEADACHE

7.

THE NURSE WORKING IN THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT (ED) IS CARING FOR MULTIPLE CLIENTS WHO
WERE RESCUED FROM AN APARTMENT FIRE. IT WOULD BE NECESSARY FOR THE NURSE TO INITIALLY
ASSESS THE CLIENT WHO IS

a)

10-YEARS OLD WITH SUPERFICIAL BURNS TO BOTH ARMS, A HISTORY OF SEIZURES, AND AN OXYGEN
SATURATION OF 95% ON 2 LITERS OF NASAL CANNULA OXYGEN

b)

23-YEARS OLD WITH SUPERFICIAL PARTIAL-THICKNESS BURNS TO BOTH HANDS, A HISTORY OF
HYPERTHYROIDISM, AND SWELLING OF THE FINGERS

c)

60-YEARS OLD WITH FULL THICKNESS BURNS TO FEET, A HISTORY OF BLADDER CANCER, AND IS
SCHEDULED FOR SURGICAL WOUND DEBRIDEMENT IN FOUR HOURS

d)

65-YEARS OLD WITH DEEP PARTIAL--THICKNESS BURNS TO THE CHEST, A HISTORY OF
CARDIOMYOPATHY, AND AUDIBLE WHEEZES..

8.

THE NURSE IS CARING FOR FOUR CLIENTS WITH TRAUMATIC BRAIN INJURIES.
WHICH CLIENT SHOULD THE NURSE ASSESS FIRST?

a)

CLIENT WITH INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE OF 12 MM HG

b)

CLIENT WHO HAS A GLASGOW COMA SCALE SCORE OF 12

c)

CLIENT WITH A PACO2 OF 36 MM HG WHO IS ON A VENTILATOR

d)

CLIENTLIENT WHO HAS A TEMPERATURE OF 102 F (38.9 C)

9.

AFTER A CRANIOTOMY, THE NURSE ASSESSES THE CLIENT AND FINDS DRY, STICKY
MUCOUS MEMBRANES AND RESTLESSNESS. THE CLIENT HAS IV FLUIDS RUNNING AT 75
ML/HR. WHAT ACTION BY THE NURSE IS BEST?

a)

ASSESS THE CLIENT’S MAGNESIUM LEVEL.

b)

ASSESS THE CLIENT’S SODIUM LEVEL.

c)

INCREASE THE RATE OF THE IV INFUSION

d)

PROVIDE ORAL CARE EVERY HOUR

10.

THE PATIENT IS ADMITTED WITH INJURIES THAT WERE SUSTAINED IN A FALL. DURING THE
NURSE'S FIRST ASSESSMENT UPON ADMISSION, THE FINDINGS ARE: BLOOD PRESSURE 90/60
(AS COMPARED TO 136/66 IN THE EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT), FLACCID PARALYSIS OF
LOWER EXTREMITIES, ABSENT BOWEL SOUNDS, ZERO URINE OUTPUT, AND PALPATION OF A
DISTENDED BLADDER. THESE SIGNS ARE CONSISTENT WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

a)

PARALYSIS

b)

SPINAL SHOCK

c)

HIGH CERVICAL INJURY

d)

TEMPORARY HYPOVOLEMIA

11.

THE NURSE RECOGNIZES THAT WHICH PATIENT WOULD BE MOST LIKELY TO
DEVELOP HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK? A PATIENT WITH:

a)

DECREASED CARDIAC OUTPUT

b)

SEVERE CONSTIPATION

c)

ASCITES

d)

SYNDROME OF INAPPROPRIATE ADH (SIADH)

12.

A NURSE IS CARING FOR FOUR CLIENTS IN THE NEUROLOGIC/NEUROSURGICAL INTENSIVE CARE UNIT.
WHICH CLIENT SHOULD THE NURSE ASSESS FIRST?

a)

A CLIENT WHO HAS BEEN DIAGNOSED WITH MENINGITIS WITH A FEVER OF 101 F (38.3 C)

b)

A CLIENT WHO HAD A TRANSIENT ISCHEMIC ATTACK AND IS WAITING FOR TEACHING ON CLOPIDOGREL
(PLAVIX).

c)

A CLIENT RECEIVING TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR (TPA) WHO HAS A CHANGE IN RESPIRATORY PATTERN AND RATE.

d)

A CLIENT WHO IS WAITING FOR SUBARACHNOID BOLT INSERTION WITH THE CONSENT FORM ALREADY
SIGNED.

13.

A PATIENT WITH CARDIOGENIC SHOCK IS COOL AND CLAMMY AND
HEMODYNAMIC MONITORING INDICATES A HIGH SYSTEMIC VASCULAR
RESISTANCE (SVR). WHICH ACTION WILL THE NURSE ANTICIPATE TAKING?

a)

INCREASE THE RATE FOR THE PRESCRIBED DOPAMINE (INTROPIN) INFUSION

b)

DECREASE THE RATE FOR THE PRESCRIBED NITROGLYCERIN (TRIDIL)
INFUSION.

c)

DECREASE THE RATE FOR THE PRESCRIBED 5% DEXTROSE IN WATER
(D5W) INFUSION.

d)

INCREASE THE RATE FOR THE PRESCRIBED SODIUM NITROPRUSSIDE
(NIPRIDE)) INFUSION..

14.

A PATIENT WITH CARDIOGENIC SHOCK HAS THE FOLLOWING VITAL SIGNS: BP 86/50, PULSE
126, RESPIRATIONS 30. THE CVP AND CARDIAC OUTPUT IS LOW. THE NURSE WILL
ANTICIPATE

a)

INFUSION OF 5% HUMAN ALBUMIN..

b)

ADMINISTRATION OF FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) IV.

c)

TITRATION OF AN EPINEPHRINE (ADRENALIN) DRIP.

d)

INFUSION OF NORMAL SALINE AT 150 MLS/HR

15.

A PATIENT WITH SEPTIC SHOCK HAS A URINE OUTPUT OF 20 ML/HR FOR THE
PAST 3 HOURS. THE PULSE RATE IS 120 AND THE CENTRAL VENOUS PRESSURE
(CVP) ARE LOW. WHICH OF THESE ORDERS BY THE HEALTH CARE PROVIDER
WILL THE NURSE QUESTION?

a)

GIVE FUROSEMIDE (LASIX) 40 MG IV

b)

INCREASE NORMAL SALINE INFUSION TO 150 ML/HR

c)

ADMINISTER HYDROCORTISONE (SOLUCORTEF) 100 MG IV

d)

PREPARE TO GIVE ROCEPHIN 1 GRAM DAILY FOR 4 DAYS

16.

A CLIENT WITH MYASTHENIA GRAVIS IS HAVING DIFFICULTY WITH AIRWAY CLEARANCE AND
DIFFICULTY WITH MAINTAINING AN EFFECTIVE BREATHING PATTERN. THE NURSE SHOULD
KEEP WHICH MOST IMPORTANT ITEMS AVAILABLE AT THE CLIENT'S BEDSIDE?

a)

OXYGEN AND METERED-DOSE INHALER

b)

AMBU BAG AND SUCTION EQUIPMENT

c)

PULSE OXIMETER AND CARDIAC MONITOR

d)

INCENTIVE SPIROMETER AND COUGH PILLOW

17.

THE NURSE HAS COMPLETED THE DISCHARGE INSTRUCTIONS FOR A
CLIENT WITH APPLICATION OF A HALO VEST DEVICE. WHICH OF THE
FOLLOWING STATEMENTS FROM THE CLIENT INDICATES A NEED FOR
FURTHER TEACHING OF THE INSTRUCTIONS?

a)

“I WILL USE A STRAW FOR DRINKING”

b)

“I WILL DRIVE ONLY DURING THE DAYTIME HOURS”

c)

“I WILL BE CAREFUL BECAUSE THE DEVICE ALTERS BALANCE”.

d)

“I WILL WASH THE SKIN DAILY UNDER THE LAMB’S WOOL LINER VEST”

18.


HE NURSE IS CARING FOR THE CLIENT WITH INCREASED ICP. THE NURSE WOULD NOTE
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VITAL SIGNS IF THE ICP IS RISING?

a)


INCREASING TEMP., INCREASING HR, INCREASING RESPIRATIONS, DECREASING BP

b)

INCREASING TEMP., DECREASING HR, DECREASING RESPIRATIONS, INCREASING BP

c)

DECREASING TEMP., DECREASING HR, INCREASING RESPIRATIONS, DECREASING BP

d)

DECREASING TEMP., INCREASING HR, DECREASING RESPIRATIONS, INCREASING BP

19.

A NURSE OBTAINS A FOCUSED HEALTH HISTORY FOR A CLIENT WHO IS SUSPECTED OF
HAVING BACTERIAL MENINGITIS. WHICH QUESTION SHOULD THE NURSE ASK?

a)

DO YOU LIVE IN A CROWDED RESIDENCE??

b)

WHEN WAS YOUR LAST TETANUS VACCINATION?

c)

HAVE YOU HAD ANY VIRAL INFECTIONS RECENTLY?

d)

HAVE YOU TRAVELED OUT OF THE COUNTRY IN THE LAST MONTH?

20.

A NURSE IS ASSESSING A CLIENT WHO SUSTAINED DEEP PARTIAL‑THICKNESS AND
FULL‑THICKNESS BURNS OVER 40% OF HIS UPPER BODY 24 HR AGO. WHICH OF THE
FOLLOWING ARE FINDINGS SHOULD THE NURSE EXPECT? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.)

a)

DYSPNEA

b)

BRADYCARDIA

c)

HYPERKALEMIA

d)

HYPONATREMIA

e)

DECREASED HEMATOCRIT

21.

A NURSE IS PLANNING CARE FOR AN ADULT CLIENT WHO SUSTAINED SEVERE BURN
INJURIES. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INTERVENTIONS SHOULD THE NURSE INCLUDE IN
THE PLAN OF CARE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.)

a)

LIMIT VISITORS IN THE CLIENT’S ROOM

b)

ENCOURAGE FRESH VEGETABLES IN THE DIET

c)

INCREASE PROTEIN INTAKE

d)

INSTRUCT THE CLIENT TO CONSUME 2,000 CALORIES/DAY

e)

RESTRICT FRESH FLOWERS IN THE ROOM

22.

A CLIENT WITH MYASTHENIA GRAVIS HAS THE PRIORITY CLIENT PROBLEM OF INADEQUATE
NUTRITION. WHAT ASSESSMENT FINDING INDICATES THAT THE PRIORITY GOAL FOR THIS
CLIENT PROBLEM HAS BEEN MET?

a)

ABILITY TO CHEW AND SWALLOW WITHOUT ASPIRATION

b)

EATING 75% OF MEALS AND BETWEEN-MEAL SNACKS

c)

INTAKE GREATER THAN OUTPUT 3 DAYS IN A ROW

d)

WEIGHT GAIN OF 3 POUNDS IN 1 MONTH

23.

A NURSE ASSESSES A CLIENT WITH A SPINAL CORD INJURY AT LEVEL T5. THE CLIENTS
BLOOD PRESSURE IS 184/95 MM HG, AND THE CLIENT PRESENTS WITH A FLUSHED FACE
AND BLURRED VISION. WHICH ACTION SHOULD THE NURSE TAKE FIRST?

a)

INITIATE OXYGEN VIA A NASAL CANNULA

b)

PLACE THE CLIENT IN A SUPINE POSITION

c)

PALPATE THE BLADDER FOR DISTENTION

d)

ADMINISTER A PRESCRIBED BETA BLOCKER

24.

AN EMERGENCY ROOM NURSE INITIATES CARE FOR A CLIENT WITH A CERVICAL SPINAL
CORD INJURY WHO ARRIVES VIA EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES. WHICH ACTION SHOULD
THE NURSE TAKE FIRST?

a)

ASSESS LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS

b)

OBTAIN VITAL SIGNS

c)

ADMINISTER OXYGEN THERAPY

d)

EVALUATE RESPIRATORY STATUS

25.

THE NURSE IS CARING FOR A CLIENT WHO HAD A SEVERE TRAUMATIC BRAIN INJURY AND
IS BEING DISCHARGED HOME, WHERE THE SPOUSE WILL BE A FULL-TIME CAREGIVER.
WHAT STATEMENT BY THE SPOUSE WOULD LEAD THE NURSE TO PROVIDE FURTHER
EDUCATION ON HOME CARE?

a)

I KNOW I CAN TAKE CARE OF ALL THESE NEEDS BY MYSELF

b)

I NEED TO SEEK COUNSELING BECAUSE I AM VERY ANGRY

c)

HOPEFULLY THINGS WILL IMPROVE GRADUALLY OVER TIME

d)

WITH RESPITE CARE AND SUPPORT, I THINK I CAN DO THIS.

26.

THE NURSE WORKING IN THE POSTANESTHESIA CARE UNIT (PACU) IS CARING FOR A CLIENT
WHO HAD AN ABDOMINAL AORTIC ANEURYSM (AAA) REPAIR. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
ASSESSMENT FINDINGS WOULD SUGGEST THAT THE CLIENT IS IN THE INITIAL (EARLY) STAGE
OF HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK?

a)

A DECREASE IN THE CLIENT’S MEAN ARTERIAL PRESSURE (MAP) OF 20 MM HG FROM
BASELINE.

b)

AN INCREASE IN THE CLIENTS HEART RATE FROM 80 TO 107 BPM

c)

A CHANGE IN PUPILLARY RESPONSE TO LIGHT FROM 4 TO 6 MM

d)

A DECREASE IN RESPIRATORY RATE (RR) FROM 28 TO 14 BREATHS PER MINUTE

27.

THE NURSE IS CARING FOR A 17-YEAR-OLD CLIENT INVOLVED IN A MOTOR VEHICLE CRASH
WHO IS IN THE REFRACTORY STAGE OF SHOCK. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS
WOULD BE APPROPRIATE FOR THE NURSE TO TAKE?

a)

RECOMMEND TO THE CASE MANAGER THAT THE CLIENT RECEIVE A REFERRAL FOR
PLACEMENT IN A LONG-TERM ACUTE CARE (LTAC) FACILITY

b)

DETERMINE IF THE FAMILY WOULD LIKE TO SPEND TIME AT THE CLIENTS BEDSIDE

c)

MONITOR THE CLIENT’S URINE OUTPUT ONCE EVERY 15 MINUTES

d)

USE RINGER’S LACTATE (RL) WHEN ADMINISTERING A PRESCRIBED UNIT OF PACKED
RED BLOOD CELLS (PRBCS).

28.

A PATIENT WITH MASSIVE TRAUMA AND POSSIBLE SPINAL CORD INJURY IS ADMITTED TO THE
EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT (ED). WHICH FINDING BY THE NURSE WILL HELP CONFIRM A
DIAGNOSIS OF NEUROGENIC SHOCK?

a)

COOL, CLAMMY SKIN

b)

INSPIRATORY CRACKLES

c)

APICAL HEART RATE 48 BPM

d)

TEMPERATURE 101.2° F (38.4° C)

29.

During the acute phase of meningitis, which intervention is appropriate?

a)

Limiting conversations with patient

b)

Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum

c)

Performing treatments quickly

d)

Keep lights on so patient will not be confused

30.

Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcal meningitis?

a)

Bladder infection

b)

Middle ear infection

c)

Fractured clavicle

d)

Septic arthritis

31.

Which assessment would be priority when caring for a pt with Guillain-Barre syndrome?

a)

assessing the ability to follow simple commands

b)

evaluating bilateral muscle strength

c)

range of motion exercises

d)

providing a diversionary activity

32.

Why do you assess speech for a pt with Guillain- Barre?

a)

inflammation of the larynx and epiglottis

b)

Increased ICP

c)

involvement of facial and cranial nerves

d)

pts can lose their voice

33.

Pt’s family ask why mannitol is being given to pt. You say...

a)

“It helps hold fluid in the vascular bed to prevent shock.”

b)

“It aids in decreasing swelling in the brain.”

c)

“It increases caloric intake to aid wound healing.”

d)

“It fights off bacteria to prevent infections.”

34.

After a craniotomy, you notice clear drainage on the dressing. You should...

a)

change the dressing.

b)

Elevate HOB

c)

test the fluid for glucose

d)

note the color and consistency in your documentation

35.

you would decide that spinal shock is resolving if you find...

a)

atomic urinary bladder

b)

flaccid paralysis

c)

hyperactive reflexes

d)

widened pulse pressure

36.

Pt with thoracic spinal cord injury complains of pounding headache and is sweaty. You should...

a)

check patency of urinary cath

b)

lower the pt’s head below his knees

c)

place the pt flat on his back

d)

Prepare to administer epi Sub-Q

37.

Which of the following NSG interventions is correct for a pt with ICP of 20?

a)

give pt a warming blanket

b)

administer low dose barbiturates

c)

encourage the pt to hyperventilate

d)

restrict fluids

38.

You administer mannitol. Which assessment should you monitor closely?

a)

muscle relaxation

b)

I&O’s

c)

widening pulse pressure

d)

pupil dilation

39.

Which position should you place a pt with increased ICP?

a)

HOB elevated 30-45 degrees

b)

trendelenburg’s

c)

Left Simm’s

d)

the head elevated with 2 pillows

40.

Which activity should the pt avoid when the pt is at risk for increased ICP?

a)

deep breathing

b)

turning

c)

coughing

d)

passive ROM

41.

Priority nursing DX for pt during the emergent phase of a burn?

a)

Excess Fluid Volume

b)

imbalance nutrition: less than body requirements

c)

risk for injury

d)

risk for infection

42.

you would anticipate that burn pt will be susceptible to which during the early phase?

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

metabolic alkalosis

d)

hyperkalemia

43.

which burn victim would require intubation?

a)

electrical burns on hands and arms causing dysthymia

b)

thermal burns to head and face

c)

chemical burns to chest and abdomen

d)

second-hand smoke inhalation

44.

after the initial phase of a burn, the focus of the plan of care will be...

a)

helping the pt maintain a positive self-concept

b)

promoting hygiene

c)

preventing infection

d)

educating the pt about care of skin grafts.

45.

which complication must the nurse be alert for when caring for a burn pt?

a)

CKD

b)

gastric distention

c)

hiatal hernia

d)

curling’s ulcer

46.

which patient should you see first?

a)

partial thickness burns on legs reports continued pain

b)

Pt arrived from ER with facial burns

c)

pt post-op from skin grafts to the anterior chest wall

d)

Pt with full thickness burns awaiting D/C teaching for 3hrs

Pt with full thickness burns awaiting D/C teaching for 3

47.

Which requires the MOST immediate assessment?

a)

pt admitted 4 days ago for facial burns crying after visitor

b)

post op skin graft 3 hrs ago rating pain 8/10

c)

partial thickness burn with temp of 102.6

d)

Electrical burn with K+ of 5.1

48.

Pt with hypovolemic shock has received a bolus of fluids. What indicates better perfusion?

a)

right arterial pressure increases

b)

Systolic BP increases to 85

c)

urine output increases to 30 ml/hr

d)

heart rate drops to 100 beats per minute

49.

Pt had MVA with multiple injuries. VS T-98, P-130, BP-50/40, R-34. What kind of shock?

a)

distributive

b)

cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic

d)

hypovolemic

50.

84 YO comes into ER with increased confusion and elevated temp. What kind of shock?

a)

distributive

b)

cardiogenic

c)

neurogenic

d)

hypovolemic

51.

Pt with HX of pericarditis comes in with dyspnea and a rapid, weak pulse. What kind of shock?

a)

distributive

b)

cardiogenic

c)

obstructive

d)

hypovolemic

52.

which of these are a compensatory method to increase cardiac output?

a)

tachycardia

b)

hypertension

c)

bounding pulses

d)

increase MAP

53.

You caring for a PT with septic shock. Which should you give first?

a)

steroids to decrease inflammation

b)

antibiotics to treat underlying infection

c)

Vasopressors to increase BP

d)

IVF to increase volume

54.

which of the following is a early indicator for hypovolemic shock?

a)

diminished bowel sounds

b)

increased urinary output

c)

tachycardia

d)

hypertension

55.

when compensatory methods are established for hypovolemic shock, the nurse will find what to be normal?

a)

intensity of pulses and body temp

b)

peripheral pulses and heart rate

c)

Metabolic alkalosis and O2 sat

d)

cardiac output and blood pressure

56.

which patient is at most risk for developing hypovolemic shock?

a)

decreased cardiac output

b)

pt with frequent loose stools

c)

SIADH

d)

DI

57.

To evaluate effectiveness of omperazole for a pt with SIRS the nurse should

a)

listen to bowel sounds

b)

ask the pt about nausea

c)

monitor stools for occult blood

d)

check for abdominal distention

58.

Pt is enroute to your ED following a MVA. You are prepared to do which of the following?

a)

grab 500 ml of albumin

b)

Grab 1000 ml of LR

c)

Grab enough stuff for 2 large bore IVs.

d)

get a pump for dopamine infusion