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Female Reproductive System Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure is part of the external female genitalia?

a)

Cervix

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Labia majora

2.

What is the function of the cervix?

a)

Protect the ovaries

b)

Connect the uterus to the vagina

c)

Transport the egg to the uterus

d)

Maintain hormone levels

3.

The uterus connects to the ovaries via which structures?

a)

Labia minora

b)

Round ligaments

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Cervical os

4.

Which is a probable sign of pregnancy?

a)

Nausea

b)

Fetal movement felt by mother

c)

Positive pregnancy test

d)

Amenorrhea

5.

A nurse auscultates fetal heart tones using Doppler. This is considered a:

a)

Presumptive sign

b)

Probable sign

c)

Positive sign

d)

Possible sign

6.

Which of the following is a presumptive sign of pregnancy?

a)

Hegar’s sign

b)

Ultrasound visualization

c)

Amenorrhea

d)

Positive pregnancy test

7.

Which change is normal in the cardiovascular system during pregnancy?

a)

Decreased blood volume

b)

Decreased cardiac output

c)

Increased systemic vascular resistance

d)

Increased blood volume

8.

What respiratory change is expected during pregnancy?

a)

Decreased tidal volume

b)

Increased oxygen consumption

c)

Decreased respiratory rate

d)

Increased airway resistance

9.

What causes increased urinary frequency in the first trimester?

a)

Estrogen

b)

Uterine pressure on bladder

c)

Fetal movement

d)

Constipation

10.

Which vital sign change is expected during pregnancy?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Blood pressure increases in second trimester

c)

White blood cell count increases

d)

Respiratory rate decreases significantly

11.

A BP decrease in the 2nd trimester is due to:

a)

Increased aldosterone

b)

Compression of vena cava

c)

Peripheral vasodilation

d)

Increased cardiac output

12.

Which lab result is expected in the 3rd trimester?

a)

Decreased RBCs

b)

Elevated hemoglobin

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Thrombocytopenia

13.

Which discomfort is caused by GI motility changes?

a)

Leg cramps

b)

Constipation

c)

Round ligament pain

d)

Varicosities

14.

Teaching to relieve round ligament pain includes:

a)

Supine rest

b)

Massage with ice

c)

Warm compresses and rest

d)

Abdominal crunches

15.

What advice helps reduce heartburn?

a)

Lie flat after eating

b)

Avoid fluids

c)

Eat large meals

d)

Small frequent meals and upright posture

16.

A client has leg cramps. What teaching is appropriate?

a)

Plantar flex the foot

b)

Point toes inward

c)

Dorsiflex foot and apply heat

d)

Massage with ice

17.

What position minimizes vena cava compression?

a)

Supine

b)

Right lateral

c)

Left lateral

d)

Trendelenburg

18.

Teaching for back pain should include:

a)

Rest in bed

b)

Avoid exercise

c)

Pelvic tilts and proper posture

d)

Sleep on stomach

19.

What is included in the initial prenatal panel?

a)

Quad screen

b)

Non-stress test

c)

Pap smear and STI screen

d)

Glucose tolerance test

20.

Which finding during a follow-up prenatal visit requires follow-up?

a)

FHR 140 bpm

b)

Weight gain of 1 lb/week

c)

Fundal height 2 cm > gestational age

d)

Foul-smelling vaginal discharge

21.

At what gestational age is the fundus at the umbilicus?

a)

12 weeks

b)

16 weeks

c)

20 weeks

d)

28 weeks

22.

What is a reassuring NST result?

a)

No fetal movement for 30 minutes

b)

2 accelerations in 20 minutes

c)

Late decelerations

d)

Bradycardia without movement

23.

What test confirms fetal lung maturity?

a)

NST

b)

Biophysical Profile

c)

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio

d)

Quad screen

24.

A positive quad screen result means:

a)

Immediate C-section needed

b)

Diagnosis of Down syndrome confirmed

c)

Need for further testing

d)

Risk of postpartum hemorrhage

25.

What instruction is important for air travel during pregnancy?

a)

Avoid fluids before flight

b)

Walk every 1–2 hours

c)

Sit with legs crossed

d)

Use compression corset

26.

Teaching on fetal kick counts should include:

a)

Call if <10 kicks in 2 hours

b)

Track kicks only before meals

c)

1 kick per hour is sufficient

d)

5 kicks in 10 minutes always required

27.

What is a warning sign that must be reported?

a)

Braxton Hicks contractions

b)

Mild backache

c)

Blurred vision and headache

d)

Round ligament pain

28.

What does “passenger” refer to?

a)

Contractions

b)

Pelvic structure

c)

Fetus and placenta

d)

Uterine segment

29.

Which “P” includes emotional support and anxiety?

a)

Passage

b)

Position

c)

Passenger

d)

Psyche

30.

Which pelvis shape favors vaginal birth?

a)

Platypelloid

b)

Android

c)

Gynecoid

d)

Anthropoid

31.

What does 10 cm dilation indicate?

a)

Start of labor

b)

Full effacement

c)

Ready to push

d)

End of latent phase

32.

What does station "0" mean?

a)

Fetal head is crowning

b)

Head is at the ischial spines

c)

Baby is still floating

d)

Fetal head is visible

33.

What is the significance of 100% effacement?

a)

Need for C-section

b)

Cervix fully thinned

c)

Fetal distress

d)

Normal postpartum finding

34.

Which is a sign of true labor?

a)

Irregular contractions

b)

No cervical change

c)

Pain relieved by walking

d)

Progressive cervical dilation

35.

Which indicates false labor?

a)

Cervical dilation

b)

Strong regular contractions

c)

Pain that stops with activity

d)

Bloody show

36.

What confirms true labor?

a)

Braxton Hicks

b)

Cervical dilation and effacement

c)

Leaking fluid

d)

Fetal movement

37.

Which action is appropriate in the 2nd stage?

a)

Assess dilation

b)

Encourage pushing

c)

Check placenta

d)

Apply fundal pressure

38.

What should be assessed during the 4th stage?

a)

Dilation

b)

Fetal movement

c)

Fundus firmness and bleeding

d)

Amniotic fluid color

39.

When does the placenta typically deliver?

a)

Beginning of labor

b)

During pushing

c)

3rd stage of labor

d)

After 1 hour postpartum

40.

What is a side effect of IV opioids during labor?

a)

Increased variability

b)

Hypertension

c)

Neonatal respiratory depression

d)

Maternal hyperreflexia

41.

When should a nurse withhold epidural placement?

a)

FHR 150 bpm

b)

Platelets <100,000

c)

Cervix 3 cm

d)

Client requests it

42.

What non-pharm comfort measure helps OP fetal position?

a)

Lithotomy position

b)

Warm compress to fundus

c)

Counterpressure on lower back

d)

Supine rest

43.

What is the primary role of the doula?

a)

Monitor vitals

b)

Provide medical care

c)

Provide continuous labor support

d)

Administer pain meds

44.

How can the partner best support during labor?

a)

Avoid touching client

b)

Sit quietly without participating

c)

Offer reassurance and apply techniques

d)

Leave to allow privacy

45.

What is the nurse’s top priority during active labor?

a)

Prepare for discharge

b)

Encourage fasting

c)

Monitor fetal and maternal well-being

d)

Document birth plan

46.

What is the first step for suspected pPROM?

a)

Immediate vaginal exam

b)

Start Pitocin

c)

Assess FHR and amniotic fluid

d)

Encourage ambulation

47.

What medication is given to mature fetal lungs?

a)

Nifedipine

b)

Betamethasone

c)

Terbutaline

d)

Indomethacin

48.

What finding suggests infection in pPROM?

a)

Clear fluid with mild odor

b)

Maternal temp 99°F

c)

FHR 180 bpm

d)

Cervix closed

49.

What fetal risk is associated with postterm pregnancy?

a)

Pulmonary hypoplasia

b)

Hyperbilirubinemia

c)

Meconium aspiration

d)

Hypotonia

50.

What is the best strategy for a 41-week pregnancy with no complications?

a)

Wait until 43 weeks

b)

Prepare for Cesarean

c)

Begin fetal monitoring and consider induction

d)

Give corticosteroids

51.

Which is a danger sign after 42 weeks?

a)

Decreased fetal movement

b)

Cervix 1 cm

c)

Increased appetite

d)

Increased urination

52.

What intervention is appropriate for hypotonic contractions?

a)

Administer Pitocin

b)

Give tocolytics

c)

Prepare for vacuum delivery

d)

Rest the client

53.

Shoulder dystocia occurs—what is the nurse’s first action?

a)

Apply fundal pressure

b)

Pull the baby

c)

Perform McRoberts maneuver

d)

Start chest compressions

54.

What fetal position causes intense back labor?

a)

Occiput anterior

b)

Breech

c)

Occiput posterior

d)

Transverse

55.

Which patient is a good candidate for TOLAC?

a)

Classical uterine incision

b)

Placenta previa

c)

Prior low transverse C-section

d)

Multiple gestations

56.

What post-op finding requires immediate attention?

a)

Firm fundus

b)

Scant lochia

c)

Foul-smelling discharge

d)

Mild cramping

57.

Which incision has the lowest risk for uterine rupture?

a)

Vertical

b)

Classical

c)

Low transverse

d)

Inverted T

58.

A cord is seen at the vaginal opening—what is priority?

a)

Notify provider and prep OR

b)

Push cord back in

c)

Change to prone position

d)

Monitor vitals every 15 min

59.

What sign indicates uterine rupture?

a)

Steady contractions

b)

Loss of fetal station

c)

Bradycardia with accelerations

d)

Fundus above umbilicus

60.

Which symptom suggests amniotic fluid embolism?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Seizure and dyspnea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Urinary retention

61.

Which part of the female reproductive system is part of the external genitalia?

a)

Cervix

b)

Uterus

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Labia majora

62.

What connects the uterus to the vagina?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Cervix

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Hormones

63.

Which structure transports eggs from the ovaries to the uterus?

a)

Labia minora

b)

Round ligaments

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Cervical os

64.

What is considered a probable sign of pregnancy?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Nausea

c)

Positive pregnancy test

d)

Fatigue

65.

Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?

a)

Presumptive signs are subjective.

b)

Probable signs do not confirm.

c)

Hearing FHR confirms fetal presence.

d)

"Possible" is not a correct classification.

66.

What is a presumptive sign of pregnancy related to menstruation?

a)

Hegar’s sign is probable.

b)

Ultrasound is positive.

c)

Absence of menstruation.

d)

Positive test is probable.

67.

How much does blood volume increase during pregnancy to support fetal needs?

a)

Decreases would be abnormal.

b)

Cardiac output increases.

c)

Systemic vascular resistance decreases.

d)

Increases by 30–50%.

68.

Why does oxygen consumption increase during pregnancy?

a)

Tidal volume increases.

b)

O2 needs rise to support fetus.

c)

Cardiac output decreases.

d)

Blood pressure increases.

69.

What is the effect of an enlarging uterus on the bladder?

a)

Estrogen doesn’t cause frequency.

b)

Enlarging uterus compresses the bladder.

c)

Fetal movement is later.

d)

Constipation is unrelated.

70.

What happens to white blood cell count during pregnancy?

a)

HR increases.

b)

BP decreases in 2nd trimester.

c)

White blood cell count increases.

d)

RR increases or stays the same.

71.

How does progesterone affect blood pressure?

a)

Aldosterone increases blood volume, not decreases BP.

b)

Vena cava compression affects venous return, not arterial BP.

c)

Progesterone causes vasodilation, lowering BP.

d)

Increased CO doesn’t lower BP directly.

72.

What is leukocytosis and when can it occur?

a)

RBCs increase.

b)

Hgb may be diluted.

c)

WBCs can be elevated, especially during labor.

d)

Platelets decrease.

73.

What is the reason for constipation during pregnancy according to the document?

a)

Cramps are from other causes.

b)

Progesterone relaxes smooth muscle, slowing GI motility.

c)

Round ligament pain is musculoskeletal.

d)

Varicosities are vascular.

74.

How can ligament pain be eased during pregnancy?

a)

Supine can worsen pain.

b)

Ice isn't ideal for ligament tension.

c)

Heat and rest ease ligament pain.

d)

Crunches increase strain.

75.

What is the recommended method to prevent reflux during pregnancy?

a)

Lying flat worsens heartburn.

b)

Fluids help digestion.

c)

Large meals increase pressure.

d)

Small frequent meals and upright posture.

76.

What action helps relieve cramps according to the document?

a)

Plantar flexing worsens cramps.

b)

Ice application.

c)

Dorsiflex foot and apply heat.

d)

Supine position.

77.

What is the benefit of lying on the left side during pregnancy?

a)

Supine compresses vena cava.

b)

Right side still risks compression.

c)

Left side lying improves circulation and reduces vena cava compression.

d)

Trendelenburg is inappropriate.

78.

How can back pain be relieved during pregnancy?

a)

Bed rest isn’t advised.

b)

Exercise is beneficial.

c)

Pelvic tilts and proper posture.

d)

Stomach sleep is discouraged.

79.

When are Pap smear and STI screens typically done during pregnancy?

a)

Quad screen is 15–20 weeks.

b)

NST is 3rd trimester.

c)

These are done early in pregnancy.

d)

GTT is 24–28 weeks.

80.

What might foul-smelling vaginal discharge indicate during pregnancy?

a)

Normal FHR.

b)

Normal weight gain.

c)

May indicate infection.

d)

Normal hormonal changes.

81.

At approximately how many weeks does the fundus reach the umbilicus?

a)

Too early.

b)

Typically at symphysis.

c)

20 weeks.

d)

Fundus is above umbilicus by 28 weeks.

82.

What defines a reactive NST?

a)

No movement is concerning.

b)

2 accelerations in 20 minutes.

c)

Late decels are abnormal.

d)

Bradycardia is abnormal.

83.

What does the lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio assess?

a)

NST assesses well-being.

b)

BPP assesses multiple variables.

c)

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio.

d)

Quad screen detects anomalies.

84.

What does a positive quad screen indicate?

a)

No indication for C-section.

b)

Not diagnostic.

c)

Need for further testing.

d)

Unrelated.

85.

What is the recommended action to prevent DVT and promote circulation during antenatal care?

a)

Fluids should be maintained.

b)

Walk every 1–2 hours.

c)

Crossed legs hinder circulation.

d)

No need for corset.

86.

What should you do if there are fewer than 10 kicks in 2 hours during pregnancy?

a)

Should be tracked at consistent times daily.

b)

Call if <10 kicks in 2 hours.

c)

1 kick/hour is too low.

d)

5 in 10 minutes is unrealistic.

87.

What might blurred vision and headache indicate during pregnancy?

a)

Braxton Hicks are normal.

b)

Mild backache is common.

c)

Blurred vision and headache.

d)

Round ligament pain is expected.

88.

In the context of the 5 P’s of Labor, what does "Passenger" refer to?

a)

Contractions = Powers

b)

Fetus and placenta

c)

Cervix and uterus

d)

Amniotic fluid

89.

How does emotional state affect labor progress?

a)

Passage = bony pelvis

b)

Position = maternal position

c)

Passenger = fetus/placenta

d)

Emotional state affects labor progress

90.

Which pelvic shape is most favorable for vaginal birth?

a)

Platypelloid is flat and less favorable.

b)

Android is heart-shaped and narrow.

c)

Gynecoid is most favorable.

d)

Anthropoid can work but has limitations.

91.

What does 10 cm dilation indicate during labor?

a)

Labor starts at 0–3 cm.

b)

Effacement is thinning, not dilation.

c)

Complete dilation = 2nd stage begins (pushing).

d)

Latent phase ends around 6 cm.

92.

What does "0 station" refer to in labor?

a)

Crowning = +4 to +5.

b)

Presenting part at ischial spines.

c)

Floating = −3 to −5.

d)

Effacement is thinning, not dilation.

93.

Cervix fully thinned is an indication of what?

a)

Not an indication for C-section.

b)

100% effacement = fully thinned cervix.

c)

Not related to fetal distress.

d)

This is intrapartum, not postpartum.

94.

What does progressive cervical dilation indicate?

a)

Irregular = false labor.

b)

No change = false labor.

c)

Pain relieved by walking = false labor.

d)

True labor causes cervical change.

95.

What happens to pain in false labor when activity stops?

a)

Dilation occurs in true labor.

b)

Strong contractions = true.

c)

False labor pain decreases with movement.

d)

Bloody show = true sign.

96.

What confirms labor according to cervical changes?

a)

Braxton Hicks are false labor.

b)

Only cervical changes confirm labor.

c)

Fluid leaking may occur in false labor.

d)

Movement is normal, not diagnostic.

97.

Encourage pushing is active work in which stage of labor?

a)

1st stage

b)

2nd stage

c)

3rd stage

d)

4th stage

98.

What is monitored during the 4th stage of labor?

a)

Dilation

b)

Fetal movement

c)

Fundus firmness and bleeding

d)

Amniotic fluid

99.

When does the placenta deliver during labor?

a)

1st stage

b)

2nd stage

c)

3rd stage

d)

4th stage

100.

What can cause neonatal respiratory depression if given near delivery?

a)

Variability

b)

Blood pressure medication

c)

Opioids

d)

Antibiotics